Exam 2

Question 1

Your company’s network has 33 computers that are directly connected to two switches using CAT 5e cables. The two switches are interconnected using a fiber cable with MTRJ connectors at the end of the cables. All 33 computers and the 2 switches are located within the same office building. Which of the following types of networks would best describe this network configuration?

Answer 1

OBJ-2.7: Since all of the computers and switches are located in the same building, it is best described as a Local Area Network (LAN) configuration. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Question 2

Which of the following requires the use of a physical printer to print a document?

Answer 2

OBJ-3.11: Printing to a network printer still requires access to a physical device connected to the network. The other options (Print to Image, Print to PDF, Print to XPS, and similarly Print to File) are all virtual printing methods. These methods will create a file of a specific type with the contents of the printed information. These methods allow a user the ability to print to a file, a PDF (Portable Document Format), XPS (XML Paper Specification - a Microsoft alternative to PDF), or an image (photo).

Question 3

Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is concerned about the privacy of its data due to some recent data breaches that have been in the news. Therefore, they have decided to purchase cloud storage resources that will be dedicated solely for their use. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using?

Answer 3

OBJ-4.1: A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A private cloud is usually managed via internal resources. The terms private cloud and virtual private cloud (VPC) are often used interchangeably. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

Question 4

Which of the following form factors provides a mini card interface used to connect a laptop’s SSD at higher bus speeds than SATA?

Answer 4

OBJ-1.1: M.2 s a new set of form factors for mini card interfaces. An M.2 SSD provides a direct interface with the PCI Express bus to provide higher bus speeds than a SATA connection. M.2 adapters come in four different sizes based on their length. The one chosen depends on your model of laptop and the space available within the case. The 80mm variety is the most common one used in modern laptops. A traditional laptop hard drive usually comes in either the 2.5” form factor or the 1.8” form factor. When a 1.8” form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector’s larger size. A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers.

Question 5

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment?

Answer 5

OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016. A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware’s ESXi). Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

Question 6

You are troubleshooting an issue on a client’s computer and need to make some computer changes to test your theory of probable cause. What should you do BEFORE you make any changes to the computer to test your theory?

Answer 6

OBJ-5.1: You should always ensure that a recent backup of all of the client’s important and critical files has been created before making any changes to the computer. After all, it is easy to replace hardware if you break the computer, but the client’s personal files may be irreplaceable. For example, if you accidentally delete or remove the customer’s pictures of their baby, you can’t just take new baby pictures to replace them!

Question 7

You are attempting to install a full-sized PCIe network interface card into a 1U server, but it is too tall to fit into the machine. Which of the following do you need to install first to install the full-sized PCIe network interface card into the server?

Answer 7

OBJ-3.5: A riser card is a right-angle expansion card used to extend a slot for a card in a computer to make room to plug it in. They are most commonly used in low-profile, 1U and 2U rackmount chassis or embedded systems. Riser cards plug into their respective bus (they are available for PCI, PCI-X, AGP, AGP Pro, PCI Express, ISA, or other busses) and rotate the peripheral cards plugged into the riser card so that they are parallel with the motherboard. Riser cards are available in 1-slot passive risers up to 3-slot passive riser cards for 2U rackmounts. An AGP, SCSI, or PCIe x16 expansion card is a fixed size and shape that cannot be reduced to fit in a 1U server.

Question 8

You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop’s processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue?

Answer 8

OBJ-4.2: CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer’s CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system’s BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. The cache is an extremely fast internal memory located in the CPU. The number of cores is defined by the processor’s multicore capability such as dual-core, quad-core, or octo-core.

Question 9

Which of the following devices could be used to extend transmissions of a signal over longer distances by receiving and retransmitting a given signal at the lowest cost?

Answer 9

OBJ-2.2: A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the internet. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Question 10

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?

Answer 10

OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Question 11

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?

Answer 11

OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

Question 12

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?

Answer 12

OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.

Question 13

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone over Wi-Fi and essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration?

Answer 13

OBJ-1.5: A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. Most smartphones can conduct wireless tethering as a form of creating a hotspot. Tethering uses the cellular data plan of a mobile device to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi (a mobile hotspot). One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a Wi-Fi connection and routing all of your data from your laptop to the phone over Wi-Fi and then from the phone to the Internet using the phone’s built-in cellular modem. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.

Question 14

A customer called the service desk and complained that they could not reach the internet on their computer. You ask the customer to open their command prompt, type in ipconfig, and read you the IP address. The customer reads the IP as 169.254.12.45. What is the root cause of the customer’s issue based on what you know so far?

Answer 14

OBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.12.45, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

Question 15

You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don’t have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?

Answer 15

OBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

Question 16

You have been asked to replace the processor in a workstation. You remove the old processor, install the new processor into the motherboard slot, attach the heat sink, and attempt to power on the workstation. The workstation boots up but after a minute the computer shuts itself down. Which of the following steps did you MOST likely forget to perform?

Answer 16

OBJ-3.5: When you install a processor, you need to ensure you install it in the processor socket on the motherboard, apply thermal paste to the backside of the processor, attach the heat sink, attach the processor fan to the heat sink, and then connect the power cable to the processor fan. If you neglect to apply the thermal paste between the processor and the heat sink, the heat sink cannot effectively dissipate all the heat from the processor, and the computer will shut itself down to protect the processor from becoming overheated. Thermal paste is a paste used to connect a heat sink to a CPU that provides a liquid thermally conductive compound gel to fill any gaps between the CPU and the heat sink to transfer heat more efficiently to the heat sink from the CPU.

Question 17

Which of the following types of encryption is considered the most secure to utilize in a SOHO network?

Answer 17

OBJ-2.3: Wi-Fi protected access version 3 (WPA3) has replaced WPA2 as the most secure wireless encryption method. WPA3 uses the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE) to increase the security of preshared keys. WPA3 provides the enhanced open mode that encrypts transmissions from a client to the access point when using an open network. WPA3 Enterprise mode supports the use of AES with the Galois/counter mode protocol (GCMP-256) for the highest levels of encryption. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption. Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack.

Question 18

A customer is complaining that their printer has begun to fade. While questioning the customer, you found out that they bought the laser printer about 11 months ago, have never performed any maintenance, and have only added more paper to it when it runs out. When checking the page counter, you identified that they had printed over 3,000 pages. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the fading?

Answer 18

OBJ-5.6: In general, fading occurs when the ink or toner is running low. Based on the customer’s questioning, it appears they have not done any maintenance, including replacing the toner cartridge. It would be best if you first replaced the toner and then attempt to print a test page. In general, drums and corona wires do not need maintenance until closer to 7,500 to 10,000 printed pages with most laser printers.

Question 19

You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?

Answer 19

OBJ-2.5: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.

Question 20

Tom, a system administrator, has installed and configured a new domain server for a corporate network. What is the next step that he should perform to allow the company’s employees to access the server on the corporate domain?

Answer 20

OBJ-3.9: A system administrator must create and configure each user’s account to access the domain via their local PC after the server is installed, configured, and set up. Each account should be configured using the concept of least privilege to maximize the security of the domain server and the network. After configuring the user’s account, the administrator can install the antivirus, applications, and configure access to the file server.

Question 21

Which port is used to connect to an SMTP server?

Answer 21

OBJ-1.6: The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Question 22

Which of the following is a proprietary wireless communication protocol operating in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?

Answer 22

OBJ-2.4: Z-Wave is a wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-Wave creates a mesh network topology, using low-energy radio waves to communicate from one appliance to another. Devices can be configured to work as repeaters to extend the network but there is a limit of four hops between a controller device and an endpoint. This allows for wireless control of residential appliances and other devices, such as lighting control, security systems, thermostats, windows, locks, swimming pools, and garage door openers. Zigbee is a low-power wireless communications open-source protocol used primarily for home automation. Zigbee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices.

Question 23

You have been asked to install a new wireless network for your company’s new branch office. Your boss wants the network to be high-speed and is willing to buy new hardware and network adapters to ensure all the devices can communicate on the new network. Which of the following wireless standards should you install for the fastest data transfer speeds?

Answer 23

OBJ-2.4: 802.11ac is the fastest of the four standards listed in this question. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.

Question 24

You are configuring a SOHO network that will contain 7 devices, but you only have a single public IP address. Which of the following concepts should be configured to allow the 7 devices to share that single IP when connecting to the internet?

Answer 24

OBJ-2.3: Network address translation (NAT) is a network service provided by a router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses. NAT can use static mappings but is commonly implemented as network port address translation (PAT) or NAT overloading, where a few public IP addresses are mapped to multiple LAN hosts using port allocations. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. Universal plug-and-play (UPnP) is a protocol framework allowing network devices to autoconfigure services, such as allowing a games console to request appropriate settings from a firewall. A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request.

Question 25

You are troubleshooting a computer, and your supervisor believes that the issue is with the workstation’s RAM. Which of the following symptoms did your supervisor likely observe?

Answer 25

OBJ-5.2: Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery.

Question 26

Jason is attending the CompTIA Partner’s Summit convention this year. While at the conference, Jason will need to ensure his smartphone has enough battery power to last the entire day without having to recharge it since it is hard to find an available electrical outlet in the conference rooms. Jason needs to ensure his smartphone is always available for use to receive updates from his team back home, as well. Which of the following would you recommend Jason use to ensure he can use the phone all day without his smartphone running out of power?

Answer 26

OBJ-1.5: To extend the device’s battery life and enable Jason to use it continuously throughout the day, it is recommended that he use a smartphone case with a built-in battery. These cases can provide enough battery power for an additional 8-12 hours of use. A wireless charging pad is a bad choice since you cannot easily use the phone while it is on the charger, and the charger still needs a power source (like an outlet). A power strip would also be a poor choice because it assumes there is a wall outlet available. Airplane mode is a bad choice because it may reduce the power needed (and therefore extend the battery life), but it also will prevent any connectivity over the cellular network.

Question 27

What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment?

Answer 27

OBJ-4.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn’t have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.

Question 28

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as A?

Answer 28

OBJ-3.2: This port is the PS/2 connection. It is used for legacy keyboards and mice before the widespread use of USB ports. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.

Question 29

Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh?

Answer 29

OBJ-2.7: The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Question 30

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 30

OBJ-3.7: The area circled indicates the fan power connectors. The power supply is connected to the motherboard using the mainboard power (24-pin connector at the top of the board), and the case fans connect using these 4-pin connectors to power the fans. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 31

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as G?

Answer 31

OBJ-3.2: These ports are the USB 3.0 connections. The red coloring notates this. USB 3.0 ports are always shown as a different color to differentiate them from the older and slower USB 2.0 ports. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.

Question 32

What is the first step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 32

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 33

You are configuring a SOHO network for a small coffee shop. They have found that certain customers will buy a single coffee cup and then sit at the coffee shop all day to use the WiFi. The owner has asked you to block this customer’s laptop from connecting by placing it on a blocklist. Which of the following configurations would you use to blocklist this customer’s device based on its unique hardware identifier?

Answer 33

OBJ-2.3: MAC filtering is the application of an access control list to a switch or access point so that only clients with approved MAC addresses connect. Port forwarding allows a router to take requests from the Internet for a particular application and send them to a designated host on the LAN. An allow list is a form of protection where only the items identified specifically on the list are allowed, whereas all others are denied. For example, if you create an access control list that relies on an allow list, it would block every IP address that is not found in the allow list. A blocklist contains every address or port that is blocked from accessing the network.

Question 34

Which network technology is used to prioritize certain types of network traffic over others?

Answer 34

OBJ-5.7: Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets’ timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC filtering, allow lists, and ACLs are used to block traffic, not prioritize it.

Question 35

A customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive. You run the command ‘ipconfig /all’ from their workstation, and it returns an IP of 169.254.34.12. Which of the following is the problem with this workstation?

Answer 35

OBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

Question 36

Dion Training’s office uses a shared networked printer that is accessed via a print server. Tamera attempted to print 3 documents to the printer. After the first documented printer, the printer stopped printing and the other two documents never came out of the printer. What is your FIRST step to try and get the printer to start printing again?

Answer 36

OBJ-5.6: Often, a network printer connected to a print server will stop printing if the print queue becomes too full or a single print job in the queue has failed. A good first step in troubleshooting these kinds of issues is to clear the current jobs in the print queue and then try reprinting again. Since the printer is accessed via a print server, it is unlikely that restarting the user’s workstation or updating the print drivers on their workstation will fix the printing issue. A networked printer usually uses an ethernet cable such as Cat 5e and not a USB cable for connection to the network.

Question 37

You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose?

Answer 37

OBJ-3.1: A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They’re designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.

Question 38

You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?

Answer 38

OBJ-3.7: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.

Question 39

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 39

OBJ-3.5: The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 40

Tamera just purchased a Wi-Fi-enabled Nest Thermostat for her home. She has hired you to install it, but she is worried about a hacker breaking into the thermostat since it is an IoT device. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to mitigate Tamera’s security concerns? (Select TWO)

Answer 40

OBJ-2.3: The BEST options are to configure the thermostat to use the WPA2 encryption standard (if supported) and place any Internet of Things (IoT) devices into a DMZ/screened subnet to segregate them from the production network. While enabling two-factor authentication on the device’s website is a good practice, it will not increase the IoT device’s security. While disabling the wireless connectivity to the thermostat will ensure it cannot be hacked, it also will make the device ineffective for the customer’s normal operational needs. WEP is considered a weak encryption scheme, so you should use WPA2 over WEP whenever possible. Finally, upgrading the wireless access point’s firmware is good for security, but it isn’t specific to the IoT device’s security. Therefore, it is not one of the two BEST options.

Question 41

The video editor at Dion Training has submitted a trouble ticket stating her editing workstation makes a loud clicking noise whenever she is editing videos for an upcoming course. You initially thought the system fans were causing the noise. You have replaced the fans, but the noise continues to be heard when applications are loaded or the videos are being edited. Which of the following actions should you perform NEXT?

Answer 41

OBJ-5.3: The next thing you should do is to perform a full backup of the hard drive. A clicking noise is commonly associated with a hard drive that is about to fail. Therefore, you should first conduct a full backup of the hard drive and then replace the faulty drive with a new hard drive to prevent any data loss from occurring.

Question 42

Samuel is building a backup file server, and he wants to ensure that he can minimize downtime. Which of the following considerations should be MOST important when choosing a storage controller card for this server?

Answer 42

OBJ-3.4: The primary consideration for the storage controller card is that it supports hot-swappable drives. Being hot-swappable means that a bad HDD can be removed and replaced while the server runs, which prevents downtime. Data loss can be prevented by configuring a RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 6, or RAID 10, and the RAID can automatically replicate the data to the new hard drive that is replaced during the hot swapping process without any downtime or data loss. While the other options may be good features to have, the most important feature is support for hot-swapping to minimize downtime.

Question 43

Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports?

Answer 43

OBJ-2.2: A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.

Question 44

A gaming computer system has 32 GB of RAM, a 1 TB HDD, a multicore CPU, and a dedicated GPU. The customer wants to increase the speed and performance of the system. Which of the following actions would you recommend performing?

Answer 44

OBJ-3.5: To further increase the system’s performance, the system should be configured for overclocking the processor by entering the BIOS setup program and increasing the CPU clock speed using the Overclocking feature. Overclocking your CPU can make your processor run significantly faster by applying the right settings and having adequate cooling. Overclocking does typically lower the lifespan of a CPU, though. This system already has ample RAM (32 GB) and a dedicated GPU. A graphics card cannot be increased in speed using the control panel.

Question 45

Thor is working as a contractor for the Department of Defense (DoD). To better secure their systems, each laptop is equipped with a device that requires all employees to insert their employee identification badges into the computer to log in. Each identification badge has an electronic chip embedded into the badge. The employee must enter a PIN to unlock the digital certificate stored in this badge to authenticate to the login server. Which of the following technologies is used to read the employee’s badge?

Answer 45

OBJ-3.6: A smart card reader is a device, either built-in or attached as a peripheral, that uses a slot or NFC to interact with a smart card. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A barcode scanner or barcode reader is a handheld or pen-shaped device designed to scan barcodes. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. A magnetic stripe reader also called a magstripe reader, is a hardware device that reads the information encoded in the magnetic stripe located on the back of a plastic badge. The magnetic stripe on the back of a badge is composed of iron-based magnetic particles encased in plastic-like tape. An automatic document feeder (ADF) is a device that feeds media automatically into a scanner or printer.

Question 46

You are configuring a workstation to be used as a point of sale (POS) device. Which of the following peripherals should you install with the device?

Answer 46

OBJ-3.6: A signature pad is a common peripheral used with a point of sale workstation. This allows a customer to sign a contract or sales receipt digitally. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user’s monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A scanner is a type of photocopier that can convert the image of a physical object into an electronic data file. The two main components of a scanner are the lamp, which illuminates the object, and the recording device, an array of CCDs (Charge Coupled Devices). There are flatbed and sheet-fed versions, with sheet-fed versions typically being incorporated with a printer and fax machine into a multifunction device.

Question 47

Josie in Human Resources was just issued a new laptop by Dion Training. When she plugs the laptop into the network’s wall jack and turns it on, she receives an error message. She calls the service desk to report that the error message being displayed states, “There is an IP address conflict with another system on the network.” You are working as a field service technician and have been asked to resolve this error. What should you do?

Answer 47

OBJ-5.7: This is a common error when two network devices are assigned the same IP address on a network. This occurs most commonly when static IP addresses are used, so the easiest way to avoid this issue is to use DHCP to assign the IP addresses on the network. Forcing the user to use wireless over wired may solve the issue temporarily, but this is more of a workaround than a true solution to the error. It would be best if you didn’t randomly choose a new IP and statically assign it to the laptop since this will lead to more future conflicts. You shouldn’t remove the desktop computer’s static IP configuration if the error you received is on the laptop.

Question 48

A technician needs to upgrade the RAM in a database server. The server’s memory must support maintaining the highest levels of integrity. Which of the following type of RAM should the technician install?

Answer 48

OBJ-3.3: Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops. Non-parity memory is a type of system memory that does not perform error checking except when conducting the initial startup memory count. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device.

Question 49

The email client on a desktop workstation is acting strangely. Every time the user opens an email with an image embedded within it, the image is not displayed on their screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Answer 49

OBJ-1.6: This is a security setting in the mail client to prevent malicious malware and viruses from entering your environment. If the images are not downloaded on a received email, they will display as a red X within the reply email. If the email was forwarded, then the images will be displayed as a white box with a black border. This can be seen in the source code as ‘Image Removed by Sender’ next to where the images should appear in the email client. For example, in the Microsoft Outlook email client, the security settings for hosted images can be changed within the mail client’s Trust Center (Outlook Options -> Trust Center -> Trust Center Settings).

Question 50

Jason, a computer technician, is troubleshooting a motherboard. He has determined that the motherboard needs to be replaced in the laptop. Which of the following next step should be performed next? (Choose TWO)

Answer 50

OBJ-5.2: It is essential to read the owner’s manual before starting anything. The next step is to document all screws and locations because lots of these tiny screws are not equal and have different depths. If you don’t document which screws go into which holes, you could insert them into the wrong place and waste a lot of time or cause damage to the laptop. You should avoid using a portable power drive to remove screws as they can generate electromagnetic interference due to their electrical motors. The laptop’s keyboard would be disconnected after disconnecting the battery, not before.

Question 51

Dion Training’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO) needs your help. His laptop has stopped working, and it will not power on. During your troubleshooting efforts, you have determined the motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced. Unfortunately, it will be a few days before a new motherboard arrives from your supplier. In the meantime, the CFO needs to get some spreadsheets containing the proposed budgets for a new project from the laptop to his desktop in his office. Which of the following actions should you perform to give the CFO access to the files he needs?

Answer 51

OBJ-1.1: By removing the hard drive from the laptop and placing it into an external USB enclosure, you have effectively turned the drive into an external USB hard drive that can be connected to any computer as a secondary device. This will allow the technician to connect the drive to the CFO’s desktop workstation and then copy any files or folders that the CFO needs from the old laptop’s hard drive (in the external enclosure) to the primary hard drive (in the desktop computer) so that the CFO can get back to work again. If you removed the hard drive from the laptop and installed it as the primary hard drive in the CFO’s desktop computer, it would likely not work due to missing drivers for the desktop’s hardware. Removing and replacing the drive with an SSD would not solve the issue with the laptop since the laptop’s motherboard has already failed. You cannot run Windows System Recovery on the laptop since the motherboard has failed.

Question 52

Susan is on a business trip and her laptop doesn’t appear to charge when plugged into the electrical outlet in her hotel room. She calls the help desk and asks for your assistance. Which of the following options should she attempt first during your troubleshooting efforts?

Answer 52

OBJ-5.5: Since you are on a business trip, you likely don’t have additional batteries or DC jacks with you to use, so you should attempt to connect to a different electrical outlet first. According to the troubleshooting methodology, you should always question the obvious. The power outlet being dysfunctional is the obvious thing to check first. A light switch controls some outlets, and some outlets become worn out over time from heavy use by other travelers. If you try another outlet and it still isn’t working, then you would look at the DC jack or the battery as the next possible source of the problem. Most modern laptops have integrated batteries that are difficult to remove and reinsert (such as Macbooks, Chromebooks, and other thinner laptops), therefore removing and reinserting the battery would not be a viable option for many travelers.

Question 53

You are setting up a projector and a laptop for a big presentation in the Dion Training conference room. You start up the presentation software and mirror the laptop’s display to the projector. The image on the screen from the projector is flickering intermittently, but the image on the laptop’s display is working with no issues. You attempt to change the laptop’s resolution to a lower setting and a higher setting, but still, the projector’s flickering persists. Which of the following steps should you attempt NEXT?

Answer 53

OBJ-5.4: A flickering image on a projector is a common issue that can occur if the display cable between the laptop and the projector is not connected securely. This is especially common with older-style display cables like VGA and DVI. Therefore, it is important to ensure a VGA or DVI cable is properly secured using the cable’s thumbscrews to prevent flickering of the image.

Question 54

On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer’s market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?

Answer 54

OBJ-1.5: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser’s credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square’s mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphones

Question 55

A client contacts the service desk because their laptop will not charge when plugged in. The client states that the laptop runs properly while connected to the wall outlet, but if they unplug it, then the laptop immediately powers off. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?

Answer 55

OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates a defective or failed battery. Since the battery will not charge, but the laptop can stay on while connected to the wall outlet, this indicates it is not an issue with the DC jack, the power adapter, or the wall outlet.

Question 56

You are building a virtualization environment to host public-facing servers that must connect to the internet. This will require that you install several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network and communicate with the host operating system and the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

Answer 56

OBJ-4.2: If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

Question 57

The large multi-function printer in your office is shared between 12 people. Unfortunately, it has stopped working, and the technicians have determined it must be replaced. A new printer has been ordered, but it will be 2 weeks until it arrives. The only other printer available in your office is the manager’s printer, but it is connected via USB to their workstation. One of the technicians would like to share the manager’s printer with the other 12 employees for the next 2 weeks as a temporary workaround. Unfortunately, there are no spare wired network jacks available in the office to connect the printer to the network directly, but there is a wireless access point nearby. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow the 12 employees to access the manager’s printer?

Answer 57

OBJ-3.10: The BEST solution would be to use a wireless print server to connect the printer to it using USB. This wireless print server can then receive the print jobs directly from all of the network users. It is not recommended that the technician create a share on the manager’s computer or set the printer configuration to the manager’s IP address since all print jobs would fail anytime the manager shut down or restarted their computer. Using a USB drive to transfer the files to the manager’s computer each time someone wanted to print is also not a good solution since this is difficult for the users and will be disrupting the manager’s work every time someone needed to print something.

Question 58

What type of cloud service would provide you with a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud for you to create customized cloud-based apps?

Answer 58

OBJ-4.1: Platform as a service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. You purchase the resources you need from a cloud service provider on a pay-as-you-go basis and access them over a secure Internet connection. PaaS includes infrastructure (servers, storage, and networking) and middleware, development tools, business intelligence (BI) services, database management systems, and more. PaaS allows you to avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing software licenses, the underlying application infrastructure and middleware, container orchestrators, or the development tools and other resources. You manage the applications and services you develop, and the cloud service provider typically manages everything else. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 59

Sally is troubleshooting a customer’s PC that is operating extremely slowly. The customer works as a video editor and often downloads large files, edits them into a new file, then deletes the original files from the hard disk to free up space. Sally performs a hard drive read/write test and verifies the drive is operating 60% slower than its baseline configuration speed. Which of the following should Sally do to speed up the drive?

Answer 59

OBJ-5.3: Traditionally, hard drives can become fragmented over time when files are continually written and deleted from the disk drive. This can lead to longer seek/read times for the device. To correct this, disk defragmentation should be performed to remove this fragmentation from the drive. Defragmentation is not required for solid-state devices (SSDs) since they can access any storage location on a drive with the same amount of delay. There is no indication of file system corruption, so there is no need to use chkdsk. An internally connected hard drive using SATA is faster than using an external USB drive. Erasing and reimaging the system would lose all of the user’s data and should not be done to speed up the drive.

Question 60

You are installing some new hard drives in a legacy Novell NetWare server in a closed IPX network. The hard drive has a 4-bit set of jumpers that must be configured to represent the device’s ID number (0-15) in the storage device chain. Which of the following types of connectors would you use for data transfer with these hard drives?

Answer 60

OBJ-3.2: Don’t be mistaken by all of the extra information provided in the question about the legacy (old) server in a closed IPX network. Focus on what the question is asks: what type of hard drive uses an ID number between 0-15 that must be set. The only types of hard drives or devices that use an ID number are narrow SCSI (0-7) and wide SCSI (0-15). Therefore, the correct answer is SCSI. The Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is a set of parallel interface standards developed by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) for attaching printers, disk drives, scanners, and other peripherals to computers. SCSI is supported by all major operating systems and was heavily used in older servers in the late 90s and early 2000s until SATA replaced it in most applications. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. The parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA) used to be the main disk interface for computers until it was replaced by SATA connections. PATA was formerly called integrated drive electronics (IDE) or enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called primary and secondary. A PATA drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable.

Question 61

What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use?

Answer 61

OBJ-3.10: Bonjour, Apple’s zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP. Cloud Print is a service that allows users to print from any device in the network cloud to any printer that has Cloud Print support enabled.

Question 62

Christian is planning on taking a business trip to Mexico in his SUV. He gets into the car, enters the address, and the device plots a route south from Oregon to Mexico. As he begins driving, he notices the GPS states that he is driving south, but his car’s compass in his rearview mirror states he is driving north. Which of the following should be done to fix this issue?

Answer 62

OBJ-5.5: A GPS may need to be calibrated to determine the true north. In an integrated GPS of an SUV, this usually involves driving in a circle in a parking lot as part of the calibration. This might involve moving your hand in a figure-eight motion to re-calibrate the internal gyros and/or compass on a smartphone.

Question 63

You are configuring a SOHO network and only allowing specific IP addresses to access the network while blocking any IP addresses that are not on the list. Which of the following should be implemented?

Answer 63

OBJ-2.3: An allow list is a form of protection where only the items identified specifically on the list are allowed, whereas all others are denied. For example, if you create an access control list that relies on an allow list, it would block every IP address that is not found in the allow list. A blocklist contains every address or port that is blocked from accessing the network. MAC filtering is the application of an access control list to a switch or access point so that only clients with approved MAC addresses connect. Port forwarding allows a router to take requests from the Internet for a particular application and send them to a designated host on the LAN.

Question 64

You just installed ten new monitors for the accounting department. Karen just called the help desk complaining that her monitor has a single black-colored square on her screen that won’t go away. What is MOST likely the issue with Karen’s LED display?

Answer 64

OBJ-5.4: A dead pixel occurs when an entire pixel or a group of subpixels remain dark even when they are supposed to be on. Since this implies that the pixel or group of subpixels are no longer powering on, they are harder to fix than stuck pixels. In most cases, dead pixels are lost forever. Even though this is a new monitor, it could still have been defective and have a dead pixel.

Question 65

A military contracting firm is worried about proprietary corporate information being removed from the company’s network. To combat this, they have created strict rules regarding what types of information can leave their office building. You have been asked to fix a workstation for the company and have been brought on-site to troubleshoot the issue. You have properly followed the troubleshooting steps and have created a plan of action to fix the workstation. Unfortunately, your solution will require that the workstation be taken back to your off-site repair shop to solve the workstation’s problems fully. What is the NEXT thing you should do to fix this workstation?

Answer 65

OBJ-5.1: You should always verify the company’s corporate policies you are working with for any specialized procedures or requirements involved when you are asked to work on a machine containing proprietary information. Based on their corporate policies, they may require you to remove the hard drive, delete the information on the hard drive, or follow other technical or administrative procedures before you can remove the workstation from their facility. It is not simply enough to ask the employee who normally works on that computer since they may not be authorized to make that decision (based on their corporate policies).

Question 66

Which of the following cloud computing resources are MOST important when determining a cloud file-storage synchronization application’s performance?

Answer 66

OBJ-4.1: I/O bandwidth is the measurement of the amount of input and output operations that can be performed within a given time. The higher the I/O bandwidth, the faster and more efficient a cloud file-storage synchronization application will become. Applications that rely on large amounts of reading and writing of data require a high amount of I/O bandwidth. Disk speed is not nearly as important since most cloud file-storage systems use a virtualized file system for storage and do not rely on a single disk. Instead, they rely on a storage area network or a virtualized storage solution. The CPU and RAM utilization on the system would not have as large of an impact on the performance as the I/O bandwidth.

Question 67

Dion Training has decided to use a PaaS solution to host their training courses. The service charges are based on the number of students enrolled in the courses each month. Which type of cloud computing concept is being demonstrated by this pricing strategy?

Answer 67

OBJ-4.1: Resources are measured through metering on a per-use basis. The metering measurement is based on the type of resources such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users. The metering mechanism should be accessible to the customer via a reporting dashboard, providing complete transparency in usage and billing. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices, as well as share the cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.

Question 68

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer’s gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO)

Answer 68

OBJ-3.7: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply.

Question 69

Your network is running extremely slow. You have troubleshot the issue and determined that there are too many collisions on the network. Your network currently has 20 computers, all connected to a single 24-port hub on the network. Which of the following devices should you install to decrease the number of collisions?

Answer 69

OBJ-2.2: A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions. Therefore whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network. Replacing the hub with a switch will break down the hub’s single collision domain into 24 separate collision domains (one per port on the switch) and eliminate collisions. This will increase the overall speed of the network. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.

Question 70

Which of the following operating systems cannot be run on a laptop?

Answer 70

OBJ-1.4: Apple’s iOS can only be run on iPhones and iPads, not on laptops. Linux, Windows, macOS (OS X), and Android can all be run on laptops. Android is unique because it was originally designed to be run only on smartphones and tablets but has since been installed on many inexpensive laptops and desktops. Linux and Windows are both commonly installed on laptops and desktops.

Question 71

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

Answer 71

OBJ-2.4: The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Question 72

A client’s PC was not able to be powered on. You are troubleshooting the issue by ensuring that the power cable is connected firmly to both the PC and the wall outlet. You took the PC to your workbench to diagnose it. You tried powering on the PC at the workbench, but it did not work. You decided to test the power supply unit and ensure it was selected for 110 volts. You connected it to a power supply tester and verified the power supply is working properly. What is the NEXT step in troubleshooting you should perform?

Answer 72

OBJ-5.2: You should verify the power connections are securely connected to the motherboard. Always check the motherboard’s 24-pin ATX connection and other connectors for the processor and disk drives to ensure they are seated securely. Since the power supply has been verified as working properly, it does not need to be replaced. There is no indication in this scenario that the memory is faulty and needs to be replaced. Removing the CMOS battery would reset the BIOS/UEFI, but that would not solve an issue with the motherboard not receiving the power it requires.

Question 73

Tom, a student, wants to install Windows and Linux to practice configuring these operating systems as part of his CompTIA+ studies. His current Windows 10 laptop has a multi-core processor, and 16 GB of RAM installed. Which of the following should Tom do?

Answer 73

OBJ-3.8: The best solution would be to install virtualization software like VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V. This will allow the student to run additional operating systems for practice. While they could buy additional laptops to practice on, there is no need to spend money on additional hardware since their laptop has multiple cores and plenty of memory to create the two virtual machines. Based on the information provided, Tom’s computer is sufficient to run at least one Linux virtual machine on his Windows system so he doesn’t need to buy a new laptop. Chromebooks do not support virtual machines. If Tom was going to use cloud-based virtual machines, he could use his current Windows machine to access them instead of buying a new Chromebook.

Question 74

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 74

OBJ-4.1: A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

Question 75

You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen?

Answer 75

OBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won’t display at all. The other options are not possible.

Question 76

What does VDI stand for?

Answer 76

OBJ-4.1: VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) centralizes instances for desktops that run on a single server utilizing the resources and performance from a single server. A thin client or an end-user then accesses the virtual desktops through a web browser. It is important to have sufficient resources on the central server to reduce lag time and provide an adequate user experience. VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) is used in large enterprise businesses to focus on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 77

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 77

OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PATA connector on this motherboard. The parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA) used to be the main disk interface for computers until it was replaced by SATA connections. PATA was formerly called integrated drive electronics (IDE) or enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called primary and secondary. A PATA drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 78

Which of the following services does Apple use for syncing their data across multiple macOS and iOS devices?

Answer 78

OBJ-4.1: iCloud is an Apple proprietary application that works across multiple devices running macOS and iOS. Apple has since released iCloud synchronization tools for Windows. Unfortunately, they have not released an Android version, so Android users must use the web-based version instead of a dedicated synchronization app.

Question 79

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company’s needs? (Select TWO)

Answer 79

OBJ-3.8: According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation’s configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Question 80

A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network’s SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?

Answer 80

OBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.

Question 81

You want to build a virtualization workstation that will be used to run four different server operating systems simultaneously to create a test lab environment. Each guest operating system only requires 20 GB of storage on the host workstation. Which of the following is the MOST important piece of hardware needed for this system to run efficiently?

Answer 81

OBJ-3.8: For a virtualization workstation, it is important to have a fast processor with multiple cores. In addition to a multi-core processor, it is good to have lots of memory and a fast HDD (but not necessarily a large HDD). A dedicated GPU (graphical processing unit) is not important for a virtualization workstation. Many virtualized servers run in text-only mode or with a headless display, making a dedicated GPU a poor choice.

Question 82

Which of the following form factors of storage devices are NOT used in laptops?

Answer 82

OBJ-1.1: A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers. The larger 3.5” magnetic drives are the standard size used by desktop computers and do not fit into a laptop’s smaller form factor. Laptops most commonly use 2.5” and 1.8” magnetic drives. In modern laptops, you will often find an M.2 form factor SSD installed.

Question 83

Your boss asked you to generate a simple square code that can be easily scanned by a smartphone to access a preconfigured website address or link. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet this requirement?

Answer 83

OBJ-3.6: In this case, you should select a QR code to meet this requirement. A QR code is a square that contains a specific graphical pattern that can be read by a smartphone’s camera. When read, the graphical pattern is converted to data, such as a website address or link that can be easily opened. QR codes can also be read by dedicated QR scanners, as well. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system.

Question 84

You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?

Answer 84

OBJ-5.2: If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won’t boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue’s source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.

Question 85

Which of the following protocols operates over port 143 by default?

Answer 85

OBJ-2.1: The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.