Exam 4

Question 1

Sarah is connecting a new wireless mouse to a client’s laptop. Which of the following technologies is MOST likely being used to connect the mouse to the laptop?

Answer 1

OBJ-1.5: Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Near field communication (NFC) is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4”) distances that facilitates contactless payment and similar technologies. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Question 2

You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community’s public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?

Answer 2

OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

Question 3

Your firewall is blocking outbound email traffic that is attempting to be sent. Which port should you verify is set to ALLOW in the firewall to ensure your emails are being sent?

Answer 3

OBJ-2.1: The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. Port 25 must be set to OPEN or ALLOW in the firewall for SMTP (Sendmail transfer protocol) to function properly. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Question 4

You work for the city’s Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV). There are five DMV locations spread out across the city that you have been asked to connect with a network. You have created a list of requirements for this network, including that it must be wired and support at least 1 Gbps of bandwidth. Which of the following network types would MOST likely be used for the DMV to connect their internal networks across the city securely?

Answer 4

OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This is the most appropriate choice based on the requirements provided. MAN is a term applied to the interconnection of local area networks (LANs) or campus area networks (CANs) across a city into a single larger network. A MAN is larger than a CAN or LAN but smaller than a WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Question 5

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 5

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 6

You are working at the service desk on your first day as a computer repair technician. You answer the phone and begin to ask the customer about the issue they are experiencing. Which of the following steps of the best practice troubleshooting methodology are you performing?

Answer 6

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 7

A user submits a trouble ticket for their laptop. The user states that every time they move the laptop from one place to another, the system loses power and shutdowns. You have examined the laptop fully and then removed and reinstalled the hard drive, RAM, ribbon cable to the LCD, and the battery, but the laptop is still shutting down whenever it is moved. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue with this laptop shutting down?

Answer 7

OBJ-5.5: Based on the symptoms provided (laptop shutting down whenever it is moved), it is most likely a loose battery connection causing the issue. If the battery connection wasn’t loos and the laptop was unplugged, the laptop would continue to run on battery power. Overheating can cause a laptop to shut down, but it wouldn’t necessarily happen each time the laptop is moved. If the CMOS battery fails, it will not cause the laptop to shut down, but instead will cause the laptop to lose the correct date/time.

Question 8

A user called the help desk to complain about an issue with their laptop’s keyboard. Every time they type a word like “help” or “none,” it is displayed as something cryptic like “he3p” or “n6ne”. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue with the laptop keyboard?

Answer 8

OBJ-5.5: Most keyboards have a numeric side (numbers only) and an alphanumeric side (numbers and letters and symbols). However, to minimize space usage, companies create some keyboards with the alphanumeric side only. This is quite common in laptops that insist on minimizing space for the sake of portability, as seen on mini-laptops and notebooks. Usually, the alphanumeric side is split into function keys (F1 to F12), followed by numeric keys (0-9), and then alphabetic keys (A-Z). To fix this, the fastest way to do this is to turn off NumLock using your laptop keyboard. If you hit the NumLock key, it will turn off. A light beside the key or on the laptop’s top will go off to confirm that the NumLock is disabled.

Question 9

Jennifer just moved from France to the United States. She unpacks her computer and plugs it into the wall using a power adapter to ensure the plug connects properly. When she tries to power on the computer, the screen remains blank, she doesn’t hear the fans spinning, and nothing appears to be happening. What is MOST likely the problem?

Answer 9

OBJ-3.7: It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer’s computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply’s input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or catch fire.

Question 10

Your company received a large bill for file storage from your online cloud provider this month. Upon investigation, you noticed that one of your employees has uploaded over 1 TB of data to the service. What type of plan is your company utilizing?

Answer 10

OBJ-4.1: This scenario describes a measured or metered service plan. For every file or amount of data uploaded, there is an associated fee. It is important to understand what plan your organization is using and match your company’s use case to avoid an end of the month billing surprise. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.

Question 11

Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?

Answer 11

OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

Question 12

Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system’s boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost?

Answer 12

OBJ-1.1: A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster. A magnetic drive is a traditional hard disk drive (HDD). A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. An optical drive is a storage device that uses a CD, DVD, or Blu-Ray disc to store and retrieve data.

Question 13

You have been asked to fix a laptop with a screen image that is being displayed upside down. What is the BEST method to fix this issue?

Answer 13

OBJ-1.3: Windows offers a beneficial function for viewing documents or playing pranks on your friends. With a simple key combination, you can rotate your screen in any direction - flip it upside-down, or lay it on the side. To change your laptop screen orientation, hold down the Ctrl and Alt keys on your keyboard, then press the up/down/left/right arrow key. You can also change your screen orientation in the Windows display settings. An integrated GPU is part of the laptop’s CPU and cannot be easily replaced. The display drivers and the LCD panel are not the cause of the issue since you can see the screen image properly (although it is being displayed upside down).

Question 14

What type of cloud service would allow you to provide a cloud-based application to your employees using their smartphones?

Answer 14

OBJ-4.1: Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools. SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider. You rent the use of an app for your organization, and your users connect to it over the Internet, usually with a web browser. All of the underlying infrastructure, middleware, app software, and app data are located in the service provider’s data center. The service provider manages the hardware and software, and with the appropriate service agreement, it will ensure the availability and the security of the app and your data. SaaS allows your organization to get quickly up and running with an app at minimal upfront cost. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 15

Your home network has a wireless access point (WAP) that allows your smartphone and tablet to connect to your internal network. The WAP is connected to a router and a cable modem to provide internet access. A coaxial cable carries the network traffic from the cable modem to the cable company’s central office for transmission to and from the internet. Which of the following types of networks would best describe this network configuration between your home network and the internet through your cable modem connection?

Answer 15

OBJ-2.7: A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. This is usually a DSL, cable connection, fiber connection, or satellite connection in a home network. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area.

Question 16

You are troubleshooting a storage issue on a customer’s computer. During the computer’s operation, you hear a loud, rhythmic sound. Which of the following storage components is likely failing?

Answer 16

OBJ-5.3: A hard disk drive (HDD) is a mechanical storage device that relies on a storage platter and a read arm. When a hard drive begins to fail, the drive will begin to make a loud clicking noise. This noise is usually rhythmic since the failed spot makes the noise every time the drive rotates during the read/write process. The other options (M.2 PCIe, SSD, and RAM) have no moving parts; therefore, no rhythmic noise would be created during their failure.

Question 17

You are working at the service desk when a customer calls up and complains that their laptop’s monitor looks strange. When pressed for further details, they state that there are black bars on the left and right sides of the screen and that the image appears squashed and distorted. What is MOST likely the cause of this issue?

Answer 17

OBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, most laptops operate as a 16:9 or 16:10 aspect ratio. Older VGA monitors relied on a 4:3 aspect ratio using 1024x768 pixels whereas newer monitors use a 16:9 ratio at 1920x1080 pixels.

Question 18

John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that no one can change the boot order and boot from an unauthorized operating system. What feature should he ensure is enabled?

Answer 18

OBJ-3.5: John should utilize the BIOS to set up a password to prevent unauthorized access to the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) by other users. The BIOS is software that utilizes a small memory chip on the motherboard to hold the settings specialized for an organization to prevent access and tampering, thus reducing the workstations’ overall attack surface and the network. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn’t prevent a user from booting the system or changing the boot order. The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system.

Question 19

A customer’s system clock is continually resetting itself causes discrepancies with the date and time. Which of the following components of the system should you investigate as the root cause of this issue?

Answer 19

OBJ-5.2: The BIOS (basic input/output system) is the program that a computer’s microprocessor uses to get the computer system started after you turn it on. The BIOS settings are stored in the CMOS (complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor). Some of these BIOS settings include the system time and date as well as hardware settings and configurations. If the CMOS battery dies or the BIOS becomes faulty, then the system time and date will be affected. The power supply, RAM, and CPU do not affect the system clock of the workstation.

Question 20

You are working at a Managed Service Provider for a large chain of doctor’s offices. The company is opening a new office downtown. It needs 2 devices to be installed at the front desk to allow customers to self-check-in for their appointments and view/edit their personal contact information. Which of the following type of devices would BEST meet the needs of this doctor’s office?

Answer 20

OBJ-3.8: An touch screen kiosk is a computer terminal featuring specialized hardware and software that provides access to information and applications for communication, commerce, entertainment, or education. These are commonly used for check-in functions at the airport, hotel, and doctor’s offices since they do not require a keyboard or mouse to utilize them. A thin client is a business computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. A thick client is a business computer that performs most or all computing functions on its own. A thick client is also called a standard client or fat client. A CAD workstation is a computer designed to make technical drawings and schematics.

Question 21

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?

Answer 21

OBJ-2.6: A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Question 22

Your college has several campuses located across the city. Within each campus, the buildings are interconnected with a campus area network. If you connect each of the campuses across the city, what type of network would this become?

Answer 22

OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. The term MAN is applied to the interconnection of local area networks (LANs) or campus area networks (CANs) across a city into a single larger network. A MAN is larger than a CAN or LAN, but smaller than a WAN. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Question 23

You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom displays artifacts on the screen. The image is displayed on the screen is bright and appears to be displayed with the right size and in the right position, but the artifacts are obscuring certain portions of the image. What is the FIRST thing you should do to remove the artifacts from being displayed on the screen?

Answer 23

OBJ-5.4: Visual artifacts displayed on the screen are often caused by a projector bulb near its end of life or if the projector bulb is defective. Therefore, you should attempt to replace the bulb in the projector to see if this solves the visual artifact issues described in this question. Changing the contrast would increase or decrease the brightness of the image, but it wouldn’t remove the artifacts. The video driver on the workstation and the resolution would affect the entire image, not just a small portion of it containing the artifacts.

Question 24

What type of connector can be inserted into the port in either direction without damaging the port?

Answer 24

OBJ-3.1: A USB Type C (USB-C) is a 24-pin USB connector with a rotational symmetrical connector, which means it can be plugged into the port in either direction. USB-C makes it easier and more convenient to plug into a USB-C female port than previous versions like Type A and Type B. FireWire and USB Type B use a d-shaped connector that can only be inserted in one direction. USB Type A uses a rectangular connector with a protrusion on one half of the connector to force insertion in only one direction.

Question 25

Susan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried about remaining connected to the internet while overseas and plans to use the WiFi in her hotel room and the local coffee shop with her laptop. Which of the following should she purchase and configure before leaving for Italy to ensure her communications remain secure regardless of where she is connecting from?

Answer 25

OBJ-1.6: While WiFi is available almost everywhere these days, it is not safe to use it without first configuring and using a VPN. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) connects the components and resources of two (private) networks over another (public) network. This utilizes an encryption tunnel to protect data being transferred to and from her laptop to the Dion Training servers and other websites. The other options are all focused on connecting her cellphone but would still not be considered safe without a VPN being utilized. A local mobile hotspot should be used to provide internet connectivity to the laptop (if she uses this instead of the hotel and coffee shop WiFi). Still, for best security, it should also use a VPN when using this connection.

Question 26

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively as a gaming machine for beta testing some new video games they are developing. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select FOUR)

Answer 26

OBJ-3.8: According to CompTIA, the four main things you need to include for a gaming PC are (1) an SSD, (2) a high-end video/specialized GPU, (3) a high-definition sound card, and (4) high-end cooling. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 512 GB SSD (instead of the 1 TB HDD), the dedicated video card with GPU (instead of the CPU with integrated GPU), the 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card (instead of integrated sound from the motherboard), and the high-end cooling (liquid cooling over fans) for this workstation's configuration.

Question 27

A client's laptop appears to have been infected with malware. You have begun troubleshooting, established a plan of action, and have already implemented your proposed solution. According to the best practice troubleshooting methodology, what is the NEXT step you should take?

Answer 27

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 28

An eSports participant wants to build a custom computer system that is extremely fast but also operates quietly. Which of the following options should they install as their cooling mechanism?

Answer 28

OBJ-3.5: Any serious gamer or eSports participant should use liquid cooling. Liquid cooling is very efficient at removing heat while remaining relatively quiet. Unfortunately, liquid cooling can be messy due to potential leakage and spills, though. Therefore, it is always good to test the piping for leakage first, secure the endpoints, and then secure it to the housing unit on the liquid-cooled system. While multiple cooling fans can dissipate heat sufficiently, they produce a loud humming sound while operating. Passive cooling such as a heat sink is not effective at dissipating large amounts of heat. Most gaming systems produce too much heat and cannot be cooled only with a heat sink.

Question 29

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem?

Answer 29

OBJ-5.2: If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Question 30

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?

Answer 30

OBJ-3.10: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

Question 31

A salesperson wants to set up their laptop to ensure that files can be reached anywhere they travel for business. They want to access the file both on their laptop and through a web browser using the company's cloud file sharing platform. Which of the following applications should be installed on their laptop to meet this requirement?

Answer 31

OBJ-4.1: Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.

Question 32

You have been asked to fix an old computer whose CD-ROM has stopped working. The CD-ROM drive is using a 40-pin ribbon cable, and you suspect the cable is defective. Which cable should you buy to replace the cable?

Answer 32

OBJ-3.4: An IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) cable is an older cable interface that used to be used for the transmission of data between the motherboard and various internal devices like hard drives and CD-ROM drives. An IDE cable is a 40-pin ribbon cable that operated at relatively slow speeds (less than 50 Mbps). IDE cables were also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) cables, as opposed to SATA (Serial ATA) cables. You will rarely come across an IDE cable in use today, but if you are working on a very old computer in an office (legacy machine) then you may find one in use.

Question 33

Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company's local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue

Answer 33

OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server's IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.

Question 34

Which of the following cables was a proprietary cable used in many iPhones and iPads?

Answer 34

OBJ-1.5: Apple's iPhone and iPad mobile devices use a proprietary 8-pin Lightning port and connector. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

Question 35

Which of the following technologies can provide up to 40 Gbps of bandwidth?

Answer 35

OBJ-3.1: Thunderbolt is the brand name of a hardware interface developed by Intel (in collaboration with Apple) that allows the connection of external peripherals to a computer. Thunderbolt 1 and 2 use the same connector as Mini DisplayPort (MDP), whereas Thunderbolt 3 re-uses the USB-C connector from USB. Thunderbolt 1 reached speeds of 10 Gbps, while Thunderbolt 2 reaches speeds of 20 Gbps. The latest versions, Thunderbolt 3 and 4, can reach speeds of up to 40 Gbps. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. External SATA (eSATA) is widely used to connect hard disks and operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, and 6 Gbps. FireWire is a serial SCSI interface that supports up to 800 Mbps of bandwidth

Question 36

Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?

Answer 36

OBJ-2.6: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.

Question 37

You have been asked to run to the store and purchase a network cable for your boss's new laptop. They need a network cable that supports at least 750 Mbps. Which of the following network cables should you purchase to meet the bandwidth required at the lowest price?

Answer 37

OBJ-3.1: You should purchase a CAT 5e cable since it can support up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) of bandwidth and is the cheapest option provided that will meet your boss' bandwidth requirements. CAT 5 cables only support 100 Mbps. Therefore, it won't meet the requirements. CAT 6 and CAT 7 cables will support 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps, respectively, but they are more expensive than CAT 5e cables. Therefore, the CAT 5e cable is the best choice for the requirements provided.

Question 38

Which of the following parts is responsible for converting the analog signals created by your tapping or swiping the surface of a display to a binary signal that is understood by the underlying software?

Answer 38

OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. Analog signals are created when you tap or swipe the surface of the display. The digitizer is connected to the laptop with a flexible digitizer cable. A grid of sensors is activated when you tap or swipe the screen. The sensors' information is sent through the digitizer cable to a circuit that converts the analog signal to a digital signal using binary. A backlight is a fluorescent lamp used to illuminate the image on a flat panel (LCD) screen. If the backlight or inverter fails, the screen image will go very, very dark. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A capacitor is an electrical component that stores electrical energy and is often used to regulate voltages. It can hold a charge after the power is removed.

Question 39

A client has asked you to build a computer to use as part of their home theater (HTPC) system. The HTPC will be used primarily to stream videos in their living room and must have a small form factor to fit into their entertainment center next to their surround sound system. Which of the following motherboards would be the BEST choice for an HTPC system?

Answer 39

OBJ-3.5: A form factor means the physical dimensions of a system, and the motherboard form factor defines the size of the case you can use. There is no performance difference between different motherboard form factors, except for the size and number of expansion slots. Mini-ITX is the most commonly used form factor with HTPC systems because they require the smallest fans or passive cooling, which minimizes the noise produced by the system. A micro-ATX motherboard produces more heat and is larger than a mini-ITX motherboard. Micro-ATX motherboards also require a larger (and louder) fan to keep the system cooled, so it is a poor choice for an HTPC. An ATX or ITX motherboard is a bad choice since they are larger and would not fit into a traditional HTPC case.

Question 40

Your cellular carrier allows you to turn on a feature on your smartphone so that you can share its internet connection with other devices close to your smartphone. If you wanted to share the internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously, which feature would you enable?

Answer 40

OBJ-1.5: A mobile hotspot can share that connection via Wi-Fi with nearby laptops, tablets, game consoles, or anything that can connect to a Wi-Fi network. This feature turns your smartphone into a Wi-Fi access point and then allows the other devices to connect to your smartphone and gain access to the internet. Tethering is another good option for this question, but tethering only supports a single device sharing the smartphone's internet connection at once. Tethering is the use of a mobile device’s cellular data plan to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Question 41

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed four 10 TB hard drives operating at 5400 RPM in a RAID 10 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in this NAS?

Answer 41

OBJ-3.4: A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. Since the NAS uses a RAID 10 configuration, it is a stripped and mirrored array. When all four 10 TB HDDs are installed, half of the capacity is used by the mirroring functionality of the RAID 10. Therefore, only 20 TB is available as the usable storage capacity. This configuration will give the array higher speed/performance (due to the stripping) and increase redundancy (due to the mirroring).

Question 42

You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation for a customer. You have identified the problem and performed a quick backup of the system. What is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 42

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 43

Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don't want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds?

Answer 43

OBJ-3.4: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage's speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.

Question 44

Your company's file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that "RAID is degraded" and that the "Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed". Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error?

Answer 44

OBJ-5.3: Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary. Formatting the logical drive or changing a RAID 5 to a RAID 0 will cause data loss, and therefore they are not the correct answers.

Question 45

Tim's iPhone was starting to flicker randomly during use. He attempted to turn the phone off and on again to fix the flickering, but it keeps flickering randomly. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced in the iPhone?

Answer 45

OBJ-5.5: For mobile phones, flickering is often caused by a failing backlight that needs to be replaced by a certified technician. In a laptop or mobile device, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen.

Question 46

Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn't see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?

Answer 46

OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.

Question 47

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on replacing the hardware and software required when creating and testing new applications and programs from a customer's environment with cloud-based resources?

Answer 47

OBJ-4.1: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides the end-user with a development environment without all the hassle of configuring and installing it themselves. If you want to develop a customized or specialized program, PaaS helps reduce the development time and overall costs by providing a ready to use platform. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Security as a service is a business model in which a service provider integrates their security services into a corporate infrastructure on a subscription basis more cost-effectively than most individuals or corporations can provide on their own when the total cost of ownership is considered.

Question 48

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

Answer 48

OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). "Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.

Question 49

Which of the following types of encryption uses a 128-bit encryption key but is considered weak due to its use of a 24-bit initialization vector?

Answer 49

OBJ-2.3: Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption. The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack.

Question 50

What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk?

Answer 50

OBJ-3.1: Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Cables are often clustered together with a high amount of data passing through from one device to another, causing EMI (electromagnetic interference). EMI causes signal interference and errors in the transfer of data that is known as crosstalk. Unshielded cables do not contain this braided foil shield and are more affected by EMI than a shielded cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Question 51

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly?

Answer 51

OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's driver.

Question 52

You are setting up a hotel ballroom for a training workshop. Which of the following devices would BEST allow the conference attendees to connect their laptops to the hotel's network when inside the conference areas?

Answer 52

OBJ-2.2: A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. While a switch or hub could be used instead, either of these options would require the staff to run 20 cables to the conference attendees that are time-consuming and more expensive than simply offering a Wi-Fi connection using an access point. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Question 53

Which of the following devices is MOST commonly used by a user to provide input to their workstation?

Answer 53

OBJ-3.6: The most common input device used to provide information to your workstation is your keyboard. While a monitor can be used (if it is a touchscreen monitor), this is not commonplace on all workstations. A CD-ROM drive is a type of input device, but it is not used to provide interactive input and commands to a workstation. A webcam is another type of input, but most programs do not take commands through your webcam and instead rely on your keyboard.

Question 54

Your company's printer is displaying an error of "Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty." Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using?

Answer 54

OBJ-3.11: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.

Question 55

A customer recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her schoolwork. It has been working well for about 3 weeks, but today she has brought it into your store for repair because it is not working properly. When she touches an icon on the screen, the program fails to load. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to be fully intact with no dark blobs or spider web cracks in the panel. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen, but it appears non-responsive to your touch. You can, however, click on the icons using the laptop's touchpad without any issues. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

Answer 55

OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. The LCD screen is the panel that is inside the device, which displays the image. You cannot get to the LCD without taking the device apart first. When only the touch screen is broken, you should still see what is happening on the screen, and the screen should still function as normal. When only the LCD is broken, you can still use the touchscreen, but the panel will have dark blobs or spider web cracks (or both). When both LCD and touchscreen are damaged, you may still be able to use portions of the touchscreen, and some parts of the LCD may display the image, but you will incur obvious difficulties in using the device as normal. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

Question 56

Dion Training's multifunction laser printer recently had a paper jam. An employee pulled the paper out of the rollers to clear the jam. Unfortunately, the device still has a paper jam error displayed on the screen and will not print. You have been called to fix this issue. Which of the following should you attempt FIRST?

Answer 56

OBJ-5.6: Often, employees will pull the jammed paper out of a printer to clear a paper jam. This can lead to small bits of paper being left in the path or in front of a blockage sensor. As a technician, you should always check the entire path is clear and the sensors are not blocked first if the printer claims there is a paper jam as this is the most likely cause of a continued paper jam error.

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology?

Answer 57

OBJ-1.4: Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5" and 7" are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger. Smartwatches, fitness monitors, and VR headsets are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.

Question 58

A salesman has been traveling to different businesses all day to give a sales presentation. Each time, he starts up his laptop and logs into Windows to show his PowerPoint presentation to the customer. During his second appointment, his laptop lost power and shut itself off abruptly. He arrives at his third appointment and plugs in his laptop to recharge it. When he powers on his laptop, he sees a very low-resolution version of his normal desktop. He attempts to change the resolution from 800 x 600 to 1920 x 1080 (his normal resolution) but cannot find it in the Display Settings options inside of Windows. Which of the following could be the cause of this error?

Answer 58

OBJ-5.4: If your display is shown in low resolution (640 x 480 or 800 x 600), but the computer isn't in Safe Mode, it is usually a driver issue. For some reason, the laptop's display driver has become corrupted between the salesman's last appointment and this appointment. Without a valid display driver, Windows will revert to the "Generic VGA" driver, limiting the system's highest resolution to 1024 x 768. To solve this issue, you should reinstall a new display driver for the laptop's appropriate graphics card.

Question 59

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem?

Answer 59

OBJ-3.2: F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Question 60

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 60

OBJ-3.5: The area circled indicates the PCIe x16 (PCI Express x16) slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 61

Which type of cloud service provides users with an end-to-end application solution for a recurring monthly or yearly fee?

Answer 61

OBJ-4.1: Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online e-commerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 62

Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system?

Answer 62

OBJ-3.5: It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.

Question 63

What is the term for a system that is no longer directly supported by its vendor?

Answer 63

OBJ-2.5: A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform. Legacy systems usually work well for what they do (which is why they don't get prioritized for replacement), but they represent very severe risks in terms of security vulnerabilities. Unified threat management (UTM) devices are network appliances that provide all the security functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and other security devices into a single device or appliance. Patch systems are used to conduct patch management across your organization's network. An embedded system is a computer system that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function, such as a microcontroller in a medical drip or components in a control system managing a water treatment plant.

Question 64

You work for a bank interested in moving some of its operations to the cloud, but it is worried about security. You recently discovered an organization called CloudBank that was formed by 15 local banks as a way for them to build a secure cloud-based environment that can be accessed by the 15 member banks. Which cloud model BEST describes the cloud created by CloudBank?

Answer 64

OBJ-4.1: Community Cloud is another type of cloud computing in which the cloud setup is shared manually among different organizations that belong to the same community or area. A multi-tenant setup is developed using the cloud among different organizations belonging to a particular community or group with similar computing concerns. For joint business organizations, ventures, research organizations, and tenders, a community cloud is an appropriate solution. Based on the description of 15 member banks coming together to create the CloudBank organization and its cloud computing environment, a community cloud model is most likely described. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.

Question 65

Which type of technology imitates hardware without relying on the CPU being able to run the software code directly?

Answer 65

OBJ-4.2: Emulators emulate hardware without relying on the CPU being able to run code directly. Virtual machines use CPU self-virtualization, to whatever extent it exists, to provide a virtualized interface to the real hardware. A simulator is a limited scope that is usually used in training to mimic a real system's functionality. Emulators were created before virtualization and operate much slower than a true virtualization environment with a hypervisor.

Question 66

A computer technician is trying to set up a shared printer on the corporate network. The users must send print jobs directly to the printer, and the printer will be used by multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements best?

Answer 66

OBJ-3.10: The technician should set up a TCP/IP print server since it will eliminate any compatibility issues associated with using different operating systems and allow the users to send jobs directly to the printer. TCP/IP printing is considered a high-speed and reliable method for sending a print job directly to a printer. AirPrint is a feature in the macOS and iOS operating systems, it does not support Windows or Linux. Bonjour is Apple's implementation of zero-configuration networking and does not support Windows or Linux systems. Virtual printers can print a document to a PDF or XPS file, therefore this will not let user's send documents to the printer for physical printing.

Question 67

An inkjet printer is printing images and text at an angle, and sometimes they don't print at all. Which of the following would a technician perform to align a printer?

Answer 67

OBJ-3.11: The technician should first calibrate the printer and perform a print test. Usually, it aligns the print heads during calibration and prints out a test page with a code for the user to enter and print another test page to ensure it is properly aligned. A printer that has alignment problems will not print documents accurately. Images and text can print at an angle, or they may not print at all. Your printer can become misaligned if there is any paper stuck in the machine, print cartridges are clogged or dirty, improper installation of cartridges, and using low-quality cartridges. Additionally, a printer can become misaligned after the machine completes a large print job. The print head in most inkjet printers is located inside the ink cartridge so they are replaced frequently. The cartridge should only be replaced when it is empty. Since the printer is still printing, the issue is not the cartridge or print head.

Question 68

You are troubleshooting a video editing workstation for Dion Training that will not boot. After running diagnostic tests on the system, you determine that one of the four hard disks in the workstation's RAID 0 array has failed. To prevent this from occurring in the future, which type of RAID should you configure that would provide the best performance and redundancy for this video editing workstation?

Answer 68

OBJ-5.3: A RAID 10 creates a mirrored array of striped arrays. This will provide the fastest performance and the best redundancy of any option listed in this question. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Question 69

Jason's laptop is having some issues when he is typing. He opened a Word document and attempted to type "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog," but the screen displayed "Theqickbrwnfxjmpedverthelazydg" instead. It appears the O, U, and space bar are not functioning. What is most likely the issue?

Answer 69

OBJ-5.5: Based on the keyboard only acting incorrectly with a few keys, it is likely the keyboard has some stuck keys caused by dirt or debris. If crumbs get under a key, it will cause it not to work properly. Due to the large size of the space bar key, it is often the first key to get stuck. To fix this, you should hold the laptop at a 90-degree angle to the desk and spray compressed air under the keys while rapidly clicking the stuck key to dislodge any dirt or debris. Stuck keys are different than sticky keys, though. Sticky keys are a Windows function that ignores a certain key is pressed and held for too long, such as the shift key being held down for 10 seconds. Whether working or defective, the backlight would not affect the keyboard typing and displaying the right keys to the screen. A keyboard's drivers would usually affect special keys (like volume or brightness), not standard keys like letters or the space bar.

Question 70

What is a tool that would allow you to easily identify a network cable that was not labeled in the wiring closet during its installation?

Answer 70

OBJ-2.8: A tone generator and toner probe is an excellent tool that allows you to easily detect which cable goes to which port on a patch panel in a wiring closet. While you could use a cable tester (if both ends of the cable were available to the technician), a tone generator and probe are much more efficient at identifying cables that were not properly labeled. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy.

Question 71

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications and programs on a customer's workstation with cloud-based resources?

Answer 71

OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 72

Which of the following ports is used by the native file and printer sharing protocol for Mac computers and supports many unique Mac attributes that are not supported by other protocols?

Answer 72

OBJ-2.1: The Apple File Protocol (AFP) is the native file and printer sharing protocol for Mac computers. It supports many unique Mac attributes that are not supported by other protocols and operates over port 548. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Question 73

Which motherboard form factor measures 6.7" x 6.7" (17 cm x 17cm) in size?

Answer 73

OBJ-3.5: The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7" x 6.7" in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system. The mATX (microATX) motherboard's form factor is 9.6" x 9.6" in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard's form factor is 12" x 9.6" in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX.

Question 74

A new smartphone supports users' ability to transfer a photograph by simply placing their phones near each other and "tapping" the two phones together. What type of technology does this most likely rely on?

Answer 74

OBJ-1.5: Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth (BT) is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Radio frequency (RF) is the propagation of radio waves at different frequencies and wavelengths. For example, Wi-Fi network products use a frequency of either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz.

Question 75

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase?

Answer 75

OBJ-3.6: Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface.

Question 76

You want to create a new mobile application and develop it in the cloud. You just signed up for a cloud-based service provider's offering to allow you to develop it using their programming environment. Which of the following best describes which type of service you have just purchased?

Answer 76

OBJ-4.1: Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides the end-user with a development environment without all the hassle of configuring and installing it themselves. If you want to develop a customized or specialized program, PaaS helps reduce the development time and overall costs by providing a ready to use platform. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 77

You are trying to send an email to your boss, but it refuses to leave your outbox. You see an error message displayed on the screen that tells you to verify your outbound server settings. Which of the following servers should you configure your email client to use to ensure your emails are being sent?

Answer 77

OBJ-2.5: SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. An SMTP server uses the SMTP protocol to send emails from one server to another. If your mail client cannot send an email properly, it is likely an issue with your SMTP server. A mail server is a server that sends or received emails on behalf of its users. POP3 and IMAP servers are used to receive email and SMTP is used to send an email. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. A secure shell (SSH) server is used to accept incoming connections for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication.

Question 78

Which of the following devices would allow you to control and provide input commands to multiple servers within the same server rack using a single set of input devices?

Answer 78

OBJ-3.6: A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs. Generally, a single KVM installed in each server rack allows the administrator to quickly switch between physical servers within the rack using the same keyboard, mouse, and monitor. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface. A mouse is an input device that is used to control the movements of a cursor and to select objects on the screen. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data into a computer using different key layouts based on the geographical region in which it is used.

Question 79

As a PC Technician, you are on the road most of the day and use a laptop. When you get back to your office at the end of the day, you would like to be able to quickly connect a larger external monitor, keyboard, and mouse to your laptop through a single USB port to perform additional work on the larger screen. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?

Answer 79

OBJ-1.3: A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

Question 80

You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?

Answer 80

OBJ-2.6: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Question 81

Which of the following tools is used by a technician to remove the jacket or sheathing from a wire when building a cable?

Answer 81

OBJ-2.8: A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place.

Question 82

You connect a VOIP device on a user's desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?

Answer 82

OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

Question 83

What is the purpose of utilizing secure boot?

Answer 83

OBJ-3.5: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use the firmware manufacturer's instructions to create Secure boot keys and store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you'll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Secure boot slows down the boot process and does not provide any memory (RAM) protections. Secure boot does not increase the storage speed.

Question 84

You are installing a new projector in a customer's home theater room. After connecting the projector and powering it on, you notice some odd debris displayed on the screen. Which of the following should you do to correct this?

Answer 84

OBJ-5.4: Based on the situation described, there appears to be some odd debris being displayed on the screen. This sounds like some artifacts or debris on the lens or protective glass of the projector. If this is cleaned, the image should be resolved back to a clear picture. This is the first and cheapest option to attempt. If this doesn't work, then you may need to replace the bulb since a failing bulb can create artifacts, as well.

Question 85

Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?

Answer 85

OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.