Exam 5 Flashcards
Dion Training’s file server is using a RAID 5 with four disk drives as its data store. One of the drives in the array has just failed. The RAID 5 is still operating and no data loss has been experienced, but the array is no longer providing any resiliency or redundancy. Which of the following actions should you take to restore this drive to normal operations?
OBJ-5.3: In a RAID 5 storage array, you should replace the failed disk and then rebuild the array. If you remove the failed drive, the array can continue functioning at sub-optimal performance until a new drive is installed. The options to perform a system restore would result in downtime and possible data loss. Therefore they should not be selected. While you could run a RAID 5 with only 3 drives, this RAID 5 was already using 4 drives, and the loss of one of those drives by rebuilding it as a 3 drive RAID 5 would result in a 33% reduction in the amount of storage space.
Molly enjoys playing an online MMORPG each day after work. To access the game, she simply enters the website address and logins in to begin playing. Today, she tried to access the game from her laptop at work, but she couldn’t launch the game. What is most likely causing the issue?
OBJ-4.1: The company firewall may be blocking any gaming-related websites and applications to improve security. Adding the website or a category of websites to the firewall’s blocklist would prevent all corporate users from accessing the content. When using cloud-based resources, it is important that all of the right ports and protocols are allowed through the firewall.
A client has a new 2-in-1 laptop/tablet. Whenever they use the touchscreen, the cursor appears to jump to the wrong location and select the wrong icons. If the client connects a USB mouse, there are no issues with using the device. Which of the following should you attempt to perform FIRST to fix this issue?
OBJ-5.4: Tablet/laptops with touchscreen capability can be recalibrated from within the Windows Control Panel. This will ensure that the right parts of the screen are responding when touched. If this is not effective, then you should attempt to update the touchscreen’s drivers. Cursor drift can occur over time, but it is easily fixed by conducting a new touch calibration sequence.
Jason’s new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next?
OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.
Jason would like the fastest internet available at his house, and he called his local fiber-optic provider. Which of the following offers would provide the fastest service to Jason’s home network?
OBJ-2.7: “Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps).
You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as?
OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.
You have been asked to configure your neighbor’s SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server?
OBJ-2.3: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.
Which version of USB can operate at speeds of up to 5 Gbps?
OBJ-3.1: USB 3 can support speeds of up to 5 Gbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power
You just bought a new car and want to use the built-in stereo to make and receive calls on your smartphone. Which of the following should you perform to connect your smartphone to the car stereo?
OBJ-1.6: By pairing the device, you will establish the Bluetooth connection between your smartphone and the car stereo. Bluetooth is commonly used to create a wireless connection between a smartphone and a car stereo for making/receiving phone calls, streaming music from the smartphone to the stereo, and other functions supported by the stereo. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates. A device driver is a small piece of code that is loaded during the boot sequence of an operating system. This code, usually provided by the hardware vendor, provides access to a device, or hardware, from the OS kernel. Under Windows, a signing system is in place for drivers to ensure that they do not make the OS unstable.
A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client?
OBJ-5.3: Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?
OBJ-1.6: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
Which of the following storage types utilize a NAND chipset mounted directly onto the motherboard instead of a mechanical spinning drive to store data?
OBJ-3.4: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a storage controller mounted on the motherboard. It utilizes a NAND chipset and connects via the motherboard’s PCIe bus for increased speed. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. While SSDs also avoid spinning drives, they cannot be mounted directly onto the motherboard. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector.
Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is small and has decided to purchase some on-demand cloud storage resources from a commercial provider (such as Google Drive) as its primary cloud storage solution. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using?
OBJ-4.1: The public cloud is defined as computing services offered by third-party providers over the public internet, making them available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud are three popular public cloud platforms. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
Dion Consulting Group is working with a new laptop manufacturer. The manufacturer wants to create the thinnest and lightest laptops in the world. To do this, they need to choose the right technology for their displays. Which technology should Dion Consulting recommend to allow for the thinnest laptop displays?
OBJ-1.2: An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.
A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem?
OBJ-5.2: If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the exteranl hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS. The F8 key will allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.
Jason created an email with sensitive information. To secure the contents, he encrypted the email before sending it to the recipient. The recipient received the email in their email client but cannot decrypt and read the email’s contents. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
OBJ-5.5: The email would rely on S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions), a standard for the public key encryption and signing of MIME data within emails. The client may be unable to read the S/MIME contents due to a missing or corrupted digital certificate. SMTP is used for sending an email, not receiving and reading emails. The receiver would not be attempting to encrypt the content. They would be attempting to decrypt it. The receiver’s POP3 server appears to be functional since they received the email. They simply cannot open/read it (which relies on S/MIME).
The Chief Financial Officer has asked Maria for a recommendation on how the company could reduce its software licensing costs while still maintaining the ability to access its application server remotely. Which of the following should Maria recommend?
OBJ-3.9: A thin client is a small device that can operate with or without an operating system installed on the client device. Instead, it can boot directly from a network-based operating system on a common server and access applications on the company’s application server. This type of architecture can drastically reduce the need for operating system licenses and reduce deployment costs. A thin client runs from resources stored on a central server instead of a localized hard drive. Thin clients work by connecting remotely to a server-based computing environment where most applications, sensitive data, and memory are stored.
A technician is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The workstation can ping 8.8.8.8 successfully, but it is unable to access Facebook.com. Which internal network server is MOST likely causing these issues?
OBJ-2.5: A DNS server is used to perform name lookups and convert them to valid IP addresses. If a workstation can ping an IP, that indicates the network connection is working. If the workstation cannot access a website using its domain name (like diontraining.com or facebook.com), it indicates a problem might exist with the DNS server. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. A mail server is a server that sends or received emails on behalf of its users. POP3 and IMAP servers are used to receive email and SMTP is used to send an email. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A file transfer protocol (FTP) server is a type of file server that is used to host files for users outside your organization.
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
OBJ-3.5: The area circled indicates the USB connectors on this motherboard. These connectors are used to connect the front panel USB ports to the motherboard. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.
Your boss wants to be able to remotely print from her laptop and smartphone while away from the office. She asks you to set up a method to ensure that she doesn’t have to go back to her office to print a document. Which of the following should be configured to meet this requirement?
OBJ-3.10: In this case, your boss asked for a simple way to print from her mobile devices when she is out of the office. Therefore, you should configure cloud printing. For example, Google’s Cloud Print allows a user to print from any device in the world, regardless of their current location. After printing, the printed papers would be ready in her office when she returns. Bluetooth allows a connection from up to 10 feet away, making it unusable when she is out of the office. An integrated print server would require her to be connected to the local area network to send the documents to the printer. WiFi printing would also require her to be in the office to connect to the wireless network and print the documents.
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend?
OBJ-4.1: OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.
Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company’s computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?
OBJ-2.4: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device’s manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.
When using an impact printer, what is used to transfer the ink to a piece of paper?
OBJ-3.11: An impact printer operates the same way as an old-fashioned typewriter. It uses a film-like ribbon that sits inside between the paper and print head. The ribbon is impacted by a series of mechanical dots in the print head, and this transfers the ink from the ribbon to the paper to form the desired image or text. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Filament is used with a 3-D printer.
Which of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center?
OBJ-3.1: The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that use T568B on both ends of the cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet.
Which of the following devices combine an accurate geolocation system that communicates with a constellation of 24 satellites continuously during its operation?
OBJ-1.4: A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone. An e-Reader is a tablet-sized device designed for reading rather than general-purpose computing. For example, the Amazon Paperwhite is an example of a traditional e-Reader. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users.
Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com?
OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
Jason’s cellphone company allows him to use his smartphone as a wireless hotspot with his laptop when traveling. Jason notices that if he runs a speed test from his smartphone, the cellular connection is 8761 kbps. If he runs the same speed test connection from his laptop connected to his cellphone over its wireless hotspot, the speed drops to 243 kbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the drop in the speed test results?
OBJ-5.7: Some cellular companies provide free mobile hotspots as part of their plans, but they will throttle the speeds provided by the hotspot. For example, T-Mobile in the United States can provide extremely fast cellular data connections from your smartphone, but they will throttle your hotspot connectivity to 256 kbps unless you purchase an additional high-speed option for your hotspot. The other options are all incorrect since any of those issues would cause the laptop to have no connectivity instead of the slow connectivity provided in the question.
You have just set up an FTP server to allow users to download the new open-source application your company is releasing. Which port should be opened to allow users to connect to this server?
OBJ-2.1: The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.
You are traveling to Thailand on a business trip. Your laptop’s touchscreen display is visibly flickering between being too bright and too dim when plugged into the power outlet at a local coffee shop. You take your laptop to your hotel room, and you notice it doesn’t flicker when plugged in there. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
OBJ-5.4: Since the only change between the flickering and non-flickering was the change in location and the power source, it is likely the cause of the issue. In some areas of the world, power is less stable and reliable than in more industrialized countries like the United States, Canada, England, and Japan. Some locations around the world have less reliable power that is subject to more power fluctuations. Flicker is a visible change in a lamp’s brightness due to rapid fluctuations in the power supply voltage. The voltage drop is generated over the grid’s source impedance by the changing load current of equipment or facility. These fluctuations can generate the visible flicker noticed by the user of the device.
Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM’s ability to have memory allocated for its use?
OBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.
Ted, a file server administrator at Dion Training, has noticed that many sensitive files have been transferred from a corporate workstation to an IP address outside of the local area network. Ted looks up the IP address and determines that it is located in a foreign country. Ted contacts his company’s security analyst, verifying that the workstation’s anti-malware solution is up-to-date and the network’s firewall is properly configured. What type of attack most likely occurred to allow the exfiltration of the files from the workstation?
OBJ-2.4: Since the firewall is properly configured and the anti-malware solution is up-to-date, this signifies that a zero-day vulnerability may have been exploited. A zero-day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability, so a patch or virus definition has not been released yet. A zero-day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. Hackers then exploit this security hole before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it. This exploit is therefore called a zero-day attack. Zero-day attacks include infiltrating malware, spyware, or allowing unwanted access to user information. Spoofing is the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source. Impersonation is the act of pretending to be someone or something else. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the webserver.
Jason presents a “how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt” lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup?
OBJ-5.4: The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector’s bulb to reduce the machine’s heat load. The laptop’s sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.
Samantha, a consultant, is working onsite at a large corporation’s headquarters this week. She takes out her iPad and attempts to launch an application. She notices that the application will not launch, even though she is connected to the wireless network and has properly established internet connectivity. Which of the following should she do to fix this issue and allow the application to launch properly?
OBJ-5.5: Applications often run in the background and do not get properly closed when you finish using them. This can cause them to hang and lock up when a user tries to reopen them. By closing all open applications, shutting down the iPad, then rebooting it and launching the app again will ensure that the application is freshly loaded and overcome many issues. This will ensure that the cache is cleared before attempting to reload the application. While a factory reset and iOS reload would also work, it would take much longer and cause extensive data loss on the device.
An employee at Dion Training complains that every time airplane mode is enabled on their laptop, their external mouse and headphones stop working. Which of the following technologies is being disabled by airplane mode and likely causing the issues experienced by this user?
OBJ-1.6: Bluetooth is a wireless connectivity method that is usually used by external mice and wireless headphones. When airplane mode is enabled, the GPS, cellular, wireless, and Bluetooth radios are usually disabled in smartphones, tablets, or laptops. If the Bluetooth radio is turned off/disabled, it will cause issues with Bluetooth-connected devices like mice and headphones. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). A cellular radio is a component in a mobile device capable of switching frequencies automatically when moving between network cells without losing the connection. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates.
