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Therapeutics > Exam 5 > Flashcards

Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What year is mens growth is considered “delayed puberty”?

A

14yo

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of hypogonadism in children/young adults?

A

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty (CDGP_

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3
Q

How is hypogonadism in children/young adults treated?

A

IM testosterone esters- 50mg monthly, increasing by 25mg (100mg max)

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4
Q

What is the prognosis and treatment for testicular cancer?

A

Prognosis: Good even up to stage III
Treatment: orchiectomy, radiation, chemo

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5
Q

Which type of alopecia is characterized by being the most common form or “male pattern baldness.”
Alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia
Alopecia universalis
Traction alopecia

A

Androgenic alopecia

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6
Q

What androgen is responsible for elevated testosterone causing alopecia?

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

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7
Q

Which type of alopecia is an autoimmune response resulting in small round patches?
Alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia
Alopecia universalis
Traction alopecia

A

Alopecia areata

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8
Q

Which type of alopecia results in complete hair loss on scalp and body?
Alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia
Alopecia universalis
Traction alopecia

A

Alopecia universalis

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9
Q

Which type of alopecia results from constant tension on hair?
Alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia
Alopecia universalis
Traction alopecia

A

Traction alopecia

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10
Q

What is Finasteride (Propecia)s MOA, Dose and SE?

A

Finasteride- used for alopecia
MOA: inhibits Type II 5-alpha reductase, inhibiting conversion of testosterone to DHT
Dose: 1 mg PO once daily
SE: Decreased libido, ED, Women of child-bearing age avoid handling

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11
Q

What is Minoxidil (Rogaine), MOA and application?

A

MOA: enlarging miniaturized hair follicles
Application: apply to dry scalp twice daily every day

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12
Q

What is the criteria for being diagnosed with adult hypogonadism?

A

Low testosterone levels with symptoms

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13
Q

When should serum testosterone levels be measured? What level characterizes low testosterone?

A

Blood test should be in the morning, <300 ng/dl is positive for low testosterone.
Confirm with 2nd test, if <5 ng/dl confirms low T

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14
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding IM Injection for Testosterone therapy?

A

Freq: 100mg IM weekly or 200mg IM q other
Notes: very high conc, possible mood swings but most economical

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15
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the patch for testosterone therapy?

A

1-2 patches applied nightly; most similar to physiologic t-levels, apply away from pressure areas

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16
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the gel for testosterone therapy?

A

Admin: 5-10g applied to covered area daily
Notes: Shoulders, upper arms, abdomen

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17
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the solution for testosterone therapy?

A

Admin: 1-4 apps to arm pits dail
Notes: apply deodorant first

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18
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the buccal tablet for testosterone therapy?

A

Admin: 30mg tab q12h
Notes: Do not chew or swallow

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19
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the SQ pellet for testosterone therapy?

A

Admin: Implanted q3-6mon
Notes: Delayed onset (3-4mon)

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20
Q

What is the frequency of administration and notes regarding the oral capsule Jatenzo for testosterone therapy?

A

Admin: 158-237mg BID
Notes: Take with food, draw serum test 6hrs after AM dose

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21
Q

What is the goal level for testosterone?

A

btw 400-700 ng/dL

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22
Q

What are the three subtypes of erections?
Psychogenic
Kinetogenic
Reflexogenic
Nocturnal

A

Psychogenic
Reflexogenic
Nocturnal

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23
Q

Erections are initiated by (parasympathetic/sympathetic) response and suppressed by (parasympathetic/sympathetic)

A

parasympathetic, sympathetic

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24
Q

What is the mechanism for erections (starting with NO)

A

NO activates guanylate cyclase
guanylate cyclase converts GTP to cGMP
high cGMP results in Ca release
Ca release produces smooth muscle relaxation
Smooth muscle relaxation allows blood to flood chambers, making veins be squeezed shut preventing drainage

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25
Q

What is the 5 step treatment of ED

A
  1. Treat or eliminate known causes
  2. Oral PDE-5 Inhibitors
  3. Intraurethral or Intracavernous Tx
  4. Possible combination therapy
  5. Penile prosthesis
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26
Q

What is Sildenafil’s drug class, starting and max doses, and onset and duration?

A

pde-5 inhibitors: take on empty stomach
Starting: 50mg Max: 100mg
Onset: 30-60 min Duration: 4 hrs

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27
Q

What is Vardenafil’s drug class, starting and max doses, and onset and duration?

A

pde-5 inhibitors: take on empty stomach
Start: 10mg Max: 20mg
Onset: 30-60min Duration: 4hrs

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28
Q

What is Tadalafil’s drug class, starting and max doses, and onset and duration?

A

pde-5 inhibitors: Ok to take with food
Start: 10mg Max: 20mg
Onset: 60min Duration: 36hrs

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29
Q

What is Avanafil’s drug class, starting and max doses, and onset and duration?

A

pde-5 inhibitors: Ok to take with food
Start: 100mg Max: 200mg
Onset: 30-60min Duration: 6hr

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30
Q

What is the drug/food interaction associated with PDE-5 Inhibitors?

A

CYP3A4 Inhibitors: grapefruit juice (Prolongs effect of the drugs), Fatty food delays absorption, patients on alpha-blockers (BP), or have severe CAD

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31
Q

What patients should avoid the vacuum erection devices?

A

Sickle-cell patients

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32
Q

What drug is used for transurethral suppositories? Intracavernosal injections?

A

Suppositories- Alprostadil Pellets (Muse) less effective than injection
Intracavernosal- Alprostadil (Caverject) best for neurogenic ED, no stimulation required

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33
Q

A condition in which a penis remains erect for hours in the absence of stimulation or after stimulation has ended

A

priapism

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34
Q

Xiaflex is used to treat what condition:
Erectile Dysfunction
Peyronie’s Disease
BPH
Peyroine + BPH

A

Peyronie’s Disease

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35
Q

What converts testosterone to DHT?

A

Type-II 5-alpha reductase

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36
Q

How many voids per night constitute nocturia polyuria?

A

2 or more

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37
Q

What are the ranges of AUAs characterizing mild, moderate, and severe?

A

Mild: <7
Mod: 8-19
Severe: >20

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38
Q

What drugs should be avoided with BPH?

A

anti-cholinergics: benadryl
anti-muscarinics: atropine
Diuretics and nasal decongestants

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39
Q

What drug class is Terazosin? Starting and maintenance dose?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic blocker
Start: 1 mg hs
Maint: 10-20 mg hs

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40
Q

What drug class is Doxazosin? Starting and maintenance dose?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic blockers
Start: 1 mg hs
Maint: 4-8 mg hs

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41
Q

What drug class is Tamsulosin? Starting and maintenance dose?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic blockers
Start: 0.4 mg hs
Maint: 0.4-0.8 mg hs

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42
Q

What drug class is Alfuzosin? Starting and maintenance dose?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic blocker
Start: 10mg daily
Maint: 10mg daily

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43
Q

What drug class is Silodosin? Starting and maintenance dose?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic blocker
start: 4mg daily
Maint: 4-8mg daily with meal

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44
Q

What drug can be used for the treatment of BPH and ED?

A

Tadalafil 5mg daily

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45
Q

What prostate size benefits most from hormonal therapy? What are these drugs and the clinical pearls?

A

> 40 grams
Finasteride (Proscar) 5mg PO daily
Dutasteride (Avodart) 0.5mg PO daily
Both Cat X- Women avoid handling (teratogenic)

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46
Q

What combination drugs can be used for mod-severe BPH?

A

Jalyn (Dutasteride + Tamsulosin)
Finasteride + tadalafil (BPH + ED)
Tamsulosin + tolterodine (BPH +OAB)

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47
Q

What are the two severe surgical options of BPH?

A

TUMT: balloon catheter
TURP: scrapes away prostate tissue

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48
Q

Which HPV strands indicate cancer? Genital warts?

A

Cancer: HPV-16 and -18
Genital Warts: HPV-6 and -11

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49
Q

Which HPV vaccine is used currently for treating the most serotypes?
Cervarix or Gardasil 9

A

Gardasil 9

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50
Q

Combines at least 2 indicators (ex BBT and secretions)
Symptothermal Method
Electronic Monitoring
Marquette Method

A

Symptothermal method

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51
Q

Detect LH in urine, electrolytes in saliva, or visual forming of cervical mucus or saliva via handheld microscope
Symptothermal method
Electronic Monitoring
Marquette Method

A

Electronic monitoring

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52
Q

Combo of ClearBlue Fertility Monitor (urine hormone detection) and other NFP methods
Symptothermal method
Electronic Monitoring
Marquette Method

A

Marquette Method

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53
Q

Which of the following are STI preventative
Sperimicide
Cervical Cap
Internal Condom
Cervical Cap
Male Condom
Vaginal Sponge

A

Internal Condom, Male Condom

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54
Q

Rank the following from most effective to least
Vaginal ring, IUD, Male Condom, Implant, Pill

A

Implant, IUD, Pill, Vaginal ring, Male Condom

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55
Q

Which suppresses FSH production, prevent dominant follicle, increases sex-hormone binding globulin and increases binding of free androgens?
Estrogen
Progestin
Testosterone

A

Estrogen

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56
Q

Which prevents LH surge, inhibits ovulation, and thickens cervical mucus?
Estrogen
Progestin
Testosterone

A

Progestin

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57
Q

What is desirable (higher/lower) for these progestin components?
Progestational
Androgenic
Antiestrogenic

A

Progestational- higher
Androgenic- lower
Antiestrogenic- lower

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58
Q

What hormones are used in nexplanon? What is the freq of admin? Common side effects? Return of fertility?

A

Progestin, Left in place up to 3 years, irregular bleeding for first 6-12mon, may be delayed (within 6 weeks)

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59
Q

What hormones are used in LNG IUD? What is the freq of admin? Common side effects? Return of fertility?

A

Progestin, q3-7yrs based on IUD, most side effects due to procedure, spotting first 3-6mon, immediate return to fertility

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60
Q

What hormones are used in copper IUDs? What is the freq of admin? Common side effects? Return of fertility?

A

No hormones, left in place 10+ yrs, historically bleeding worse than LNG IUD, immediate return to fertility

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61
Q

What hormones are used in the Depo Shot? What is the freq of admin? Benefits? Common side effects? Return of fertility?

A

Progestin, 150mg IM or 104mg subcut q 3mon, lower risk of uterine cancer and safe to breastfeed, lower bone density and weight gain common, possible delay in fertility

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62
Q

What are the very low, low dose, and high doses for COC? What if late for dose? Benefits and side effects?

A

Very low: 20-25mcg Low dose: 30-35mcg High: 50mcg
If late one pill, take ASAP. 2 or more, take 1 ASAP and next pill at usual time using backup for 7 days
Benefits: lower ovarian/uterine cancer and improved acne
SE: blood clots (estrogen) and mood

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63
Q

What hormones are used in the Mini-pill? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits and Common side effects?

A

Progestin, Daily within 3hrs of the same time with no placebos, if >3 hrs late take asap and backup for 2 days
Benefits: safe to breastfeed
SE: severe headaches, heavy bleeding, ectopic pregnancy

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64
Q

What hormones are used in SLYND (POP)? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits? Common side effects?

A

Progestin, daily with 4 placebo,
Late: if late 2 or more pills use backup for 7 days
Benefit: safe to breastfeed
SE: Hyperkalemia, heavy bleeding, severe headaches

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65
Q

What hormones are used in the Nuvaring? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits and Common side effects?

A

Hormones: EE + P, releasing 15mcg EE/day
Freq: left in 3 weeks, removed for 1 week with new after 7 days
Late: out for >3hr, reinsert and use backup for 7 days
Benefits: Improved acne and lighter less painful periods
SE: blood clots

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66
Q

What hormones are used in Annovera ring? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits and Common side effects?

A

Hormones: EE + P, 13mcg/day
Freq: left in 3 weeks removed for 1 week. Wash with mild soap/warm water
Late: >2 hrs reinsert and use back-up for 7 days
Benefits: improved acne, device up to 13 times

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67
Q

What hormones are used in the patch (Xulane, Zafemy)? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits and Common side effects?

A

Hormones: EE (35mcg/day) + P
Freq: new patch q 3 weeks, patch free 7 days
Late: apply new patch, backup 7 days
Benefits: lower ovarian/uterine cancer, lighter periods
SE: Blood clots

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68
Q

What hormones are used in the Tweirla patch? What is the freq of admin? If late? Benefits and Common side effects?

A

Hormones: EE (30mcg/day- less than others) + P
Freq: New patch q 3 weeks, patch free 7
Late: off<24 hrs no backup needed. Off>24hrs 7 days
Benefits: improved acnes, lighter periods
SE: blood clots, skin irritation

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69
Q

A patient calls your pharmacy around 10a and says that she forgot to take her COC yesterday afternoon, which she usually takes around 1p. She tells you she only forgot one pill. What should she do?
A. Take her pill and use a form of backup for 7 days
B. Take her pill ASAP and use a form of backup for 2 days
C. Take her pill ASAP; no backup needed

A

C. Take her pill ASAP; no backup needed

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70
Q

A patient calls your pharmacy around 10a and says that she forgot to take her mini-pill yesterday afternoon, which she usually takes around 1p. She tells you she only forgot one pill. What should she do?
A. Take her pill and use a form of backup for 7 days
B. Take her pill ASAP and use a form of backup for 2 days
C. Take her pill ASAP; no backup needed

A

B. Take her pill ASAP and use a form of backup for 2 days

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71
Q

What are the serious side effects from estrogen? (ACHES)

A

A- abdominal pain (liver, gallbladder, clot)
C- chest pain (SOB, coughing)
H- headache (Stroke, HTN, Migraines)
E- eye problems (double vision, blurry)
S- swelling or sudden leg pain (DVT)

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72
Q

Which emergency contraception uses progestin?
Copper IUD
Plan-B
Ella

A

Plan-B

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73
Q

What is the longer amount of time post unprotected sex that can utilize emergency contraceptives?

A

5 days: the longer the lower the efficacy

74
Q

Which is the most effective emergency contraceptive for all weights?
Copper IUD
Ella
Plan-B

A

Copper IUD

75
Q

Which EC interferes with sperm viability and function?
Copper IUD
Ella
Plan-B

A

Copper IUD

76
Q

Which EC inhibits ovulation and leads to follicular rupture?
Copper IUD
Ella
Plan-B

A

Ella

77
Q

Which EC inhibits ovulation and is labeled for 72 hours?
Copper IUD
Ella
Plan-B

A

Plan-B

78
Q

When is the latest abortion can occur?

A

70 days (10 weeks)

79
Q

What are the two medications and the uses in medication abortion?

A
  1. Mifepristone (Mifeprex)- blocks hormones and stops pregnancy
  2. Misoprostol (Cytotec)- extracts pregnancy through contractions
80
Q

What doses of Mifepristone and Misoprostol are used during abortion?

A

Mifepristone- 200mg PO once
Misoprostol- 800mcg (2x200mcg) buccally

81
Q

What is considered heavy bleeding in abortion?

A

> 2pads/hr for 2 consecutive hours, blood clots larger than a lemon

82
Q

If a patient comes in with irregular bleeding, what should be given for the first round (second for pills) to help decrease amount of bleeding?

A

Ibuprofen 800mg PO TID x 5 days

83
Q

If a patient comes in with heavy/prolonged bleeding, after taking Ibuprofen 800mg, what is next?

A

EE 50mcg for 21 days (or COC)

84
Q

What is the normal cycle length, menstruation lasting rate, and mL of blood/day?

A

Cycle length: 22-35 days
Menstruation lasting 3-7 days
35mL of blood/day

85
Q

What type of abnormal bleeding is characterized by abnormal pain associated with menstruation
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Metrorrhagia

A

Dysmenorrhea

86
Q

What characterizes Primary vs Secondary Dysmenorrhea?

A

1: normal ovulatory cycles and pelvic anatomy
2: Underlying anatomic or physiologic cause

87
Q

What is the patho of dysmenorrhea?

A

Buildup of fatty acids in cell membrane released during menses
Prostaglandins and leukotrienes released in uterus
Inflammatory response causes symptoms

88
Q

What is the first line treatment of dysmenorrhea? Second line?

A

1: NSAID, OC, Non-pharmacologic
2: depo shot (DMPA), Levo-releasing IUD

89
Q

What is the MOA for NSAID therapy?

A

Inhibits COX 1 and 2, leading to decreased prostaglandin production

90
Q

What type of abnormal bleeding is characterized by absence of the menstrual cycle?
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Metrorrhagia

A

Amenorrhea

91
Q

What characterizes primary vs secondary amenorrhea?

A

1: No menses by age 15
2: No menses x 3mon (in menstruating women)

92
Q

What four organs can affect amenorrhea?

A

Uterus, Ovaries, Pituitary gland, and hypothalamus

93
Q

What drugs induce amenorrhea?

A

first and second gen antipsychotics, antihypertensives, and GI promotility agents

94
Q

What are pharmacological treatment options for amenorrhea?

A

Conjugated equine estrogen, estradiol patch
Estrogen with progestin component

95
Q

What type of abnormal bleeding is characterized by a menstrual cycle over 35 days (but less than 90 days)?
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Polymenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Metrorrhagia

A

Oligomenorrhea

96
Q

What type of abnormal bleeding is characterized by a menstrual cycle less than 21 days apart?
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Polymenorrhea
Metrorrhagia

A

Polymenorrhea

97
Q

What characterizes heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB)?

A

Bleeding > 80mL or lasting > 7 days

98
Q

What are the four etiologies of HMB?

A

Hematologic- bleeding/clotting disorder
Hepatic- Cirrhosis
Endocrine- Hypothyroidism
Uterine- structural abnormalities, uterine fibroids

99
Q

What are the hormonal treatment options of HMB?

A

CHC, Progestins, Levo-IUD, Danazol, GnRH agonists

100
Q

What are the non-hormonal treatment options of HMB?

A

NSAIDs, Tranexamic Acid, and Iron

101
Q

What is the MAO and Dosing of Tranexamic Acid?

A

MOA: antifibrinolytic (prevents degradation of blood clots)
Dosing: 1300mg PO TID x 5 days (at onset of menses)

102
Q

What type of abnormal bleeding is characterized by irregular menstrual bleeding between cycles?
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Polymenorrhea
Metrorrhagia

A

Metrorrhagia

103
Q

What are the most common symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Dysmenorrhea, infertility, dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain

104
Q

What is the first, second, and third line treatment for endometriosis?

A

1: NSAIDs, CHCs, Progestins
2: GnRH agonist/antagonists, Danazol
3: Aromatase inhibitors

105
Q

What is the MOA for Danazol?

A

MOA: androgen that suppresses FSH and LH production

106
Q

Noncancerous tumor formations; smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts of the myometrium

A

uterine fibroids

107
Q

What are the two surgical options of uterine fibroids and their fertility preservation?

A

Myomectomy- preserves fertility, removes fibroids (not permanent soln)
Hysterectomy- removes uterus, definitive treatment, not fertile

108
Q

What uterine fibroid treatments induce a menopausal-like state for surgical treatment?

A

GnRH and SPRM

109
Q

What is the key difference and similarities in PMS and PMDD

A

Difference: PMS- at least one symptoms for 3 menstrual cycles
PMDD- mental health disorder five symp for 2 consecutive months
Similarities: start of follicular phase

110
Q

What is the first, second and last line treatment for PMS/PMDD?

A

1: SSRI, NSAIDs, Spironolactone
2 (in order): Venlafaxine, Duloxetine, Clomipramine, Alprazolam, COCs
3: GnRH agonists, surgery

111
Q

What are three clinical presentations of PCOS?

A

Hyperandrogenism, menstrual disturbances, and overweight or obese

112
Q

What are three clinical presentations of PCOS?

A

Hyperandrogenism, menstrual disturbances, and overweight or obese

113
Q

What are the three possible mechanisms of PCOS?

A

*Inappropriate gonadotropin secretion
*Insulin resistance with hyperinsulinemia
*Excessive androgen production

114
Q

Which follicular phase do PCOS stay in?

A

Follicular

115
Q

What is the mechanism of gonadotropin secretion in PCOS?

A

Increase GnRH -> Increase in LH too soon -> No rise in FSH -> No dominant follicle -> No ovulation -> Unopposed estrogen -> Luteal phase never entered -> Elevated androgen

116
Q

How does insulin resistance result in hyperandrogenism with PCOS?

A

The pancreas over-produces insulin to compensate for the lack of maintenance of normal blood sugar levels in the body. This increases adipose tissue, leading to insulin resistance. This blocks SHBG synthesis in the liver, allowing increased free testosterone, increasing androgen levels (hyperandrogenism)

117
Q

What are the diagnosis criteria of PCOS?

A

Hyperandrogenism
Chronic Anovulation
Polycystic ovaries
(Must present 2/3)

118
Q

How does exercising improve ovarian function?

A

Decreases free testosterone and hyperinsulinemia

119
Q

What is the first line treatment option for PCOS and its dosing/components?

A

COC- commonly monophasic
Estrogen: Lowest effective dose (20mcg) titrate up
Responsible for LH suppression and decreasing androgen production
Progestin: preferred- norgestimate and northindrone
AVOID: desogestrel, drospirenone, gestodene
Increases risk for VTE

120
Q

Which one of the following birth control regimens would be most appropriate to initiate in a 29-yr old women with BMI of 34 kg/m2?
A. EE 30 mcg/northindrone acetate 1.5mg daily
B. EE 20 mcg/norethindrone acetate 1mg daily
C. EE 30 mcg/desogestrel 0.15mg daily
D. Norethindrone 0.35mg daily

A

B. EE 20 mcg/norethindrone acetate 1mg daily

121
Q

What is spironolactone’s MOA, Dosing, and Clinical Pearls?

A

MOA: Anti-androgen at the follicle
Dosing: 50mg - 100mg BID
Pearls: Teratogenic- must be on OC

122
Q

What is Proscar’s MOA, Dosing, and Clinical Pearls?

A

MOA: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Dosing: 2.5-5 mg daily
Pearls: teratogenic

123
Q

What is Proscar’s MOA, Dosing, and Clinical Pearls?

A

MOA: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Dosing: 2.5-5 mg daily
Pearls: teratogenic

124
Q

What is Metformin’s MOA, Dosing, and Clinical Pearls?

A

MOA: Insulin Sensitizer
Dosing: 500mg PO daily -> 1000mg BID (2000 total)
Pearls: taken with meal (GI), discontinue if pregnant

125
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of metformin in PCOS?
A. Dose is 500mg PO QD
B. Offers reliable endometrial protection
C. Results may take up to 6 mon to be seen
D. GI side effects will decrease after 2-3 weeks

A

B. Offers reliable endometrial protection

126
Q

What is the second-line treatment for PCOS Menstrual Irregularity?

A

Cyclic progestin therapy
(Medroxyprogesterone 5mg-10mg or Micronized progesterone 200 for 10-14 days q 1-2mon)
Progestin-only OC
Levo-IUD

127
Q

What medication should PCOS patients take if they want to become pregnant? What is its mechanism?

A

Letrozole (Femara)- aromatase inhibitor
Induces ovulation by triggering hypothalamus to increase LH and FSH secretion

128
Q

What is Letrozole (Femara) dosing?

A

2.5-7.5mg PO x 5 days, starting day 3 of menses
If ovulation does not occur, increase by 2.5mg up to 5 cycles

129
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infertility?

A

1: never before prego
2: have been prego and trying again

130
Q

T/F: Women are the biggest cause of infertility

A

False: equal between men and women

131
Q

What two factors are the most common in female infertility?

A
  • Tubal and peritoneal factors (blocked fallopian tubes or alteration of the pelvic environ.)
  • Ovulatory factors (PCOS)
132
Q

Which product(s) detect surge in LH levels?
OvuSense Device
Urine Ovulation Predictor Kits
Oova Fertility Translator

A

Urine Ovulation Predictor Kits
Oova Fertility Translator

133
Q

In fetal development, which weeks are the most critical in development?

A

First 8 weeks

134
Q

How much should a women increase their calories when pregnant?

A

300-400 extra calories/day

135
Q

What is the limit for caffeine intake in pregnancy?

A

<200 mg/day

136
Q

What are the three important prenatal supplements? Their dosage?
Folate
Vit D
Calcium
Magnesium
Iron

A

Folate: 400-600mcg/day
Ca: 1000-1300mg/day
Iron: 27-30mg/day

137
Q

When should prenatal supplements ideally be started?

A

3 mon prior to conception

138
Q

What vaccines are recommended if pregnant? Not recommended?

A

Recommend: Inactivated Flu before end of Oct and Tdap btw 27-36 wks of pregnancy
NOT recommended: Live vaccines (ex: HPV, MMR)

139
Q

What are the 6 teratogens to know?

A

(Will Sam)
Warfarin
Isotretinoin
Lisinopril
Lithium
Statins
Alcohol
Methotrexate

140
Q

What section of package inserts can pregnancy info be found?

A

Section 8

141
Q

What is the preferred treatment for diabetes management during pregnancy? What should be avoided?

A

DOC: Insulin
AVOID: Metformin, oral options

142
Q

What is the DOC for hypertension management in pregnancy? What should be avoided?

A

DOC: Labetalol
Avoid: Lisinopril, Valsartan

143
Q

What is the first line non-pharma treatment for nausea and vomiting?

A

Avoid triggers, eat smaller, dry meals, avoid spicy food, avoid completely empty stomach

144
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line pharmacological treatments for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A

1: Pyridoxine
2: Doxylamine and Pyridoxine

145
Q

For treatment of pain, fevers, and headaches, what should be avoided after 32 weeks?

A

NSAIDs

146
Q

For treating cough and cold in pregnancy, what is recommended?

A

Nasal saline spray

147
Q

What is the recommended treatment for urinary tract infections?

A

1st gen cephalosporins, nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin

148
Q

What scale is used to measure depressive disorders? What is its scoring?

A

Edinburgh Depression Scale
>10 is indicative of possible depression

149
Q

What is recommended for treating depressive disorders in pregnancy?

A

CBT (Cognitive Behavior Therapy)

150
Q

What is recommended for treatment of thromboembolism in pregnancy?

A

Non-Pharma: IVC filter and compression stockings
Pharma: Anticoagulation for at least 6 mon

151
Q

What characterizes preeclampsia?

A

BP >140/90 mmHg AND
Proteinuria (>300 mg/dL q 24hr)

152
Q

How can preeclampsia be prevented with meds?

A

Aspirin 60-80mg starting late first trimester

153
Q

What characterizes severe preeclampsia and what is the DOC?

A

> 180/120 (either #)
Hydralazine

154
Q

What is the DOC in seizure management during pregnancy?

A

Magnesium sulfate 4-6g IV bolus

155
Q

What characterizes HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelet count

156
Q

What is the first line treatment of Group B Strep in Pregnancy?

A

Penicillin G or Ampicillin

157
Q

What time period is preterm labor?

A

Labor before week 37 gestation

158
Q

What medication prevents preterm labor?

A

Progesterone
200mg vaginal suppository if no history or preterm birth with prior pregnancies
250mg IM weekly if history

159
Q

Occurs before onset of labor when water breaks but no contraction

A

Premature Membrane Rupture

160
Q

What treatment options are for preterm labor?

A

Corticosteroids, Antibiotics, and Toxolytics

161
Q

Which reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm labor treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Tocolytics
D. Magnesium Sulfate

A

B. Corticosteroids

162
Q

Which treats Group B strep prophylaxis in preterm labor treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Tocolytics
D. Magnesium Sulfate

A

A. Antibiotics

163
Q

Which inhibits uterine contractions in preterm labor treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Tocolytics
D. Magnesium Sulfate

A

C. Tocolytics

164
Q

Which provides fetal neural protection in preterm labor treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Tocolytics
D. Magnesium Sulfate

A

D. Magnesium Sulfate

165
Q

What antibiotics are used in premature membrane rupture?

A

ampicillin + erythromycin

166
Q

Which stage of labor does the cervix relax, causing it to dilate and thin out?
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III

A

Stage I

167
Q

Which stage of labor does the uterine contractions increase in strength and the infant is delivered?
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III

A

Stage II

168
Q

Which stage of labor is the placenta expelled?
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III

A

Stage III

169
Q

What are the three (P) categories of labor dystocia?

A
  1. Powers: inadequate contractions or pushing
  2. Passenger: position, presentation or size of fetus
  3. Passage: Maternal bony pelvis and soft tissues impede the progress
170
Q

When is oxytocin administered in labor?

A

When hypotensive and uterine hyperstimulated

171
Q

What is oxytocin’s adverse affect of tachysystole characterized by?

A

> 5 contractions/10 min

172
Q

T/F: There is a difference of efficacy between c-section and expectant managment

A

False

173
Q

T/F: Use of oxytocin during labor makes it less likely to require antibiotics before or during labor

A

T

174
Q

What is the first-line treatment for uterine atony (hemorrhage) to prevent excessive blood loss?

A

Oxytocin

175
Q

What are the RID ranges for Minimal, Small Amt, Moderate, and Large amount of transfer to milk

A

<2%: Minimal
2-5%: Small amt
5-10% Moderate
>10%: Large

176
Q

Mom is taking aspirin 325 mg/day
Mom= 75kg
Infant= 5kg
ASA theo Infant dose: 0.25 mg/kg/day
What is the RID?

A

Maternal: 325/75= 4.33 mg/kg/day
RID: 0.25/4.33= 0.0577 or 5.77%

177
Q

What is 1st line antidepressant treatment for breastfeeding mothers?

A

Paroxetine and Sertraline

178
Q

What is the safest Hale Risk Category (L)?

A

L1 safest -> L5 contraindicated

179
Q

If a patient is in methadone-maintenance program can the breastfeed?

A

Yes

180
Q

What happens to milk production on buprenorphine?

A

Decrease

181
Q

If opioids must me used, which is the best for breastfeeding mothers?

A

Morphine- poor oral availability

182
Q

When is the greatest milk supply?

A

First thing in the morning

Therapeutics (16 decks)

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