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KNR 182(2) > Exam 4(YOU GOT THIS KAS) > Flashcards

Exam 4(YOU GOT THIS KAS) Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Pharynx

A

Passageway for both air and food

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2
Q

Definition for Terminal Bronchioles

A

Passageways that represent the final portion of the conducting division of the respiratory system.

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3
Q

Alveoli

A

Microscopic chambers at the end of bronchial tree responsible for gas exchange.

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4
Q

What is the Pleura

A

Lubricating fluid and compartymentalized lungs

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5
Q

What’s the larynx?

A

This is responsible for sound and speech production

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6
Q

What’s the Respiratory Bronchiole

A

First portion airways that can be involved in gas exchange

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7
Q

What are the lungs?

A

Paired composite organs located within the pleural cavities of thorax

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8
Q

Bronchioles

A

Airways that continually branch into smaller diameter passageways

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9
Q

Trachea

A

Flexible, main airway leading into bronchial tree which is lined with hyaline cartilage

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10
Q

Alveoli:

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Respiratory

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11
Q

Respiratory Bronchioles

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Respiratory division

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12
Q

Terminal Bronchiole
conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting division

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13
Q

Trachea
conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting division

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14
Q

Right and left primary bronchus

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting division

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15
Q

Alveolar duct

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Respiratory Division

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16
Q

Secondary and segmental bronchi

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting division

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17
Q

Surfactant

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Respiratory Division

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18
Q

Gas Exchange

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Respiratory division

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19
Q

Hyaline Cartilage

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting division

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20
Q

Cilia

conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting

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21
Q

Type I alveolar cells

A

Respiratory

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22
Q

Type II alveolar cells

conducting division

respiratory division

A

respiratory division

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23
Q

Mucus
conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting

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24
Q

Smooth muscle
conducting division

respiratory division

A

Conducting

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25
Q

T/F

The respiratory division has a larger surface area then the conducting division

A

T

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26
Q

T/F

Filtering, warming, and moistening airflow happens in the respiratory zone?

A

False

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27
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

Nose
Nasal cavity
Paranasal sinuses
Pharynx

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28
Q

Low respiratory tract

A

Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs

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29
Q

What is secreted to trap dust, bacteria, debris and contains enzymes and antibiotics

Mucus

Surfactant

Cilia

Pleural fluid

A

Mucus

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30
Q

Atmospheric pressure is higher than intrapulmonary pressure.

Inspiration (inhalation)

Expiration (exhalation)

A

Inspiration( inhalation)

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31
Q

Thoracic cavity volume decreases which causes the intrapulmonary pressure to rise

Inspiration (inhalation)

Expiration (exhalation)

A

Expiration

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32
Q

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract and pull the ribs up and out.

Inspiration (inhalation)

Expiration (exhalation)

A

Inspiration

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33
Q

Caused by the surfactant not being developed; treated by spraying natural or synthetic surfactant.

Bronchitis

Emphysema

IRDS (Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome)

A

IRDS (Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome)

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34
Q

What factor(s) affect breathing rate and depth?

partial pressure of oxygen (PO2)

partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2)

degree of stretch of lung tissue

emotional state & physical activity level

all of the above

A

all of the above

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35
Q

Which medullary respiratory center controls basic rhythm of breathing?

ventral respiratory group

dorsal respiratory group

A

Ventral respiratory group

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36
Q

Sensors that monitor changes in the chemical composition in blood

mechanoreceptor

exteroceptor

chemoreceptors

photoreceptors

A

Chemoreceptors

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37
Q

Concentration of what gas is most influential to respiration?

PCO2

PO2

A

PCO2

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38
Q

What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume

A

Amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation

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39
Q

Residual Volume

A

Amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation

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40
Q

Vital Capacity

A

Maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiratory effort

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41
Q

Tidal Volume

A

Amount of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath under resting conditions

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42
Q

Functional Residual Capacity

A

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal volume expiration

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43
Q

Total Lung Capacity

A

Maximum amount of air contained in the lungs after maximum inspiratory effort

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44
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume expiration

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45
Q

Inspiratory capacity

A

Maximum amount of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration

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46
Q

How many liters is tidal volume

A

0.5

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47
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume liters?

A

2.0

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48
Q

Expiratory reserve volume liters

A

1.5

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49
Q

Residual Volume liters

A

1.0

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50
Q

Vital capacity liters

A

4.0

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51
Q

Subject #1 - Male, 6’1”, 22 years
FVCmeasured = 6.80 L; FVCpredicted = 6.01 L;
FEV1.0 = 5.8 L; FEV2.0 = 6.5 L; FEV3.0 = 6.9 L.
Does Subject 1 have a Restrictive Lung Disease?

Yes
No
Unable to determine

A

No

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52
Q

Subject #1 - Male, 6’1”, 22 years
FVCmeasured = 6.80 L; FVCpredicted = 6.01 L;
FEV1.0 = 5.8 L; FEV2.0 = 6.5 L; FEV3.0 = 6.9 L.
Does Subject 1 have an Obstructive Lung Disease?

Yes

No

Unable to determine

A

No

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53
Q

Subject #2 - Female, 5’6”, 20 years
FVCmeasured = 4.35 L; FVCpredicted = 4.25 L;
FEV1.0 = 3.4 L; FEV2.0 = 4.15 L; FEV3.0 = 4.35 L.
Does Subject 2 have a Restrictive Lung Disease?

Yes

No

Unable to determine

A

No

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54
Q

Subject #2 - Female, 5’6”, 20 years
FVCmeasured = 4.35 L; FVCpredicted = 4.25 L;
FEV1.0 = 3.4 L; FEV2.0 = 4.15 L; FEV3.0 = 4.35 L.
Does Subject 2 have an Obstructive Lung Disease?

Yes

No

Unable to determine

A

Yes

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55
Q

Subject #3 - Male, 5’10”, 63 years
FVCmeasured = 4.25 L; FVCpredicted = 6.5 L;
FEV1.0 = 3.6 L; FEV2.0 = 3.8 L; FEV3.0 = 4.04 L.
Does Subject 3 have a Restrictive Lung Disease?

Yes

No

Unable to determine

A

Yes

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56
Q

Subject #3 - Male, 5’10”, 63 years
FVCmeasured = 4.25 L; FVCpredicted = 6.5 L;
FEV1.0 = 3.6 L; FEV2.0 = 3.8 L; FEV3.0 = 4.04 L.
Does Subject 3 have an Obstructive Lung Disease?

Yes

No

Unable to determine

A

No

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57
Q

Volume of inspired air in the conduction zone conduits that never contributes to gas exchange.

Alveolar dead space

Total dead space

Anatomical dead space

A

Anatomical dead space

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58
Q

Volume of inspired air in the alveoli that do not act in gas exchange due to their collapse or obstruction

Alveolar dead space

Total dead space

Anatomical dead space

A

Alveolar dead space

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59
Q

T/F: Increased air flow resistance decreases air flow rate.

A

True

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60
Q

T/F:Decreased surface tension increases alveoli surface area

A

True

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61
Q

Obstructive Lung Disease (check all that are true):

affects flow rates

affects volumes and capacities

affects the airway tubes

affects the alveoli

fibrosis

asthma

A

affects flow rates

affects the airway tubes

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62
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease (check all that are true):

affects flow rates

affects volumes and capacities

affects the airway tubes

affects the alveoli

fibrosis

asthma

A

affects volumes and capacities

fibrosis

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63
Q

Gas exchange at the body tissues.

External Respiration

Internal Respiration

A

Internal Respiration

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64
Q

Gas exchange at the alveolar level.

Internal Respiration

External Respiration

A

External respiration

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65
Q

Increased diffusion is favored with:

more surface area

shorter distance

greater solubility of gases

all the above are true

A

Alll

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66
Q

T/F: Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is higher in the alveoli vs the blood vessels

A

True

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67
Q

T/F:Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is higher in the tissues vs the blood vessels

A

F

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68
Q

T/F: Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is higher in the alveoli vs the blood vessels

A

F

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69
Q

T/F:Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is higher in the tissues vs the blood vessels

A

T

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70
Q

T/F: Increase in temperature & PCO2 lowers Hb’s affinity for O2 which enhances Hb to unload O2 into the tissues

A

T

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71
Q

T/F: Higher CO2 in the blood releases more hydrogen ions (H+) which lowers our blood pH which makes our blood more acidic

A

T

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72
Q

T/F: Majority of O2 is carried in the blood via hemoglobin while majority of CO2 is carried via carbaminohemoglobin

A

F

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73
Q

Gas exchange at tissues?
A) Internal
B) external

A

Internal

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74
Q

Co2 solubility is ____ O2 solubility
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to

A

A.

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75
Q

PCO2 at tissues is ____ PCO2 in the blood
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to

A

A

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76
Q

T/F: Co2 attached to the heme on the hemoglobin

A

F

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77
Q

Decrease temperature___ Hb affinity(hemo wanted to hold onto it) for O2
A) increase
B)decrease
C) no affect

A

A

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78
Q

Increase in PCO2___ Hb affinity for O2

A) increase
B)decrease
C) no affect

A

B

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79
Q

Airflow rate in obstructive lung disease is restrictive lung disease

a)Less than
b. Greater than
c. Same as

A

Less than

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80
Q

Normal, quiet ventilation

a.Tidal volume
b. Vital capacity
c. Total lung cap.

A

Tidal volume

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81
Q

TV + IRV + ERV IS:
a. Tidal volume
b.Vital capacity
c. Total lung cap.

A

Vital capacity

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82
Q

Air in conduction zone that is not involved in alveolar gas exchange
c. Total lung cap.
a. Alveolar dead space
b.Anatomical dead space

A

Anatomical dead space

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83
Q

Volume of air ventilation each minute
a.tidal volume
b.Minute ventilation

A

Minute ventilation

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84
Q

hat measures the efficiency of alveolar gas exchange
a. Minute ventilation
b.Alveolar ventilation rate

A

Alveolar ventilation rate

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85
Q

Type of breathing to increase alveolar ventilation exchange
a.Normal rate
b.Slow & deep

A

Slow and deep

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86
Q

Increase resistance_____air flow rate
a.Increases
b.Decreases

A

Decreases

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87
Q

Decrease lung compliance____lungs ability to expand
a.increase
b.decrease

A

Decrease

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88
Q

Obstructive lung disease affects:
a.Tubes/bronchi
b. Alveoli

A

a

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89
Q

Affects lung capacity & volume:
a. Obstructive PD
b.Restrictive PD

A

b.Restrictive PD

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90
Q

Measures volume/capacity; normal > 75%
a.Static test
b. Dynamic test

A

Static test

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91
Q

The function(s) of the urinary system include (mark all that apply):

excrete nitrogenous wastes

maintain blood pH

maintain fluid balance

none of the above

A

excrete nitrogenous wastes

maintain blood pH

maintain fluid balance

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92
Q

About how much blood do the kidneys filter every day?

125 ml

1.5 L

5 L

180 L

A

180L

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93
Q

The vessel that supplies blood directly into the glomerulus is called the ________.

cortical radiate artery

afferent arteriole

efferent arteriole

arcuate artery

A

Correct Answer:
afferent arteriole

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94
Q

This structure is a capillary bed from which blood is filtered into the nephron.

renal corpuscle

glomerulus

peritubular capillary

glomerular capsule

A

glomerulus

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95
Q

Please select the correct sequence of urine flow through the kidney structures:

  1. Ureter
  2. Minor Calyx
  3. Major Calyx
  4. Renal Pelvis
  5. Renal Pyramid

3, 4, 5, 2, 1

5, 2, 3, 4, 1

5, 4, 3, 2, 1

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

A

5,2,3,4,1

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96
Q

________ are the structural and functional units that form urine.

Urinary Bladder

Renal Cortex

Nephrons

Ureters

A

Nephrons

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97
Q

T/F: The glomerulus is a turf of capillaries that are highly porous and allow filtrate to be formed.

True

False

A

True

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98
Q

T/F: The glomerular capsule is a hollow structure surrounding the glomerulus.

True

False

A

True

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99
Q

The renal tubule consists of (mark all that apply):

Glomerulus

Glomerular Capsule

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Nephron Loop

Distal Convoluted Tubule

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Nephron Loop

Distal Convoluted Tubule

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100
Q

T/F: The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the farthest from the renal corpuscle.

True

False

A

False

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101
Q

T/F: The nephron loop has both descending and ascending limbs.

True

False

A

True

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102
Q

________ comprises of 85% of nephrons

Cortical Nephron

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

Cortical Nephron

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103
Q

________ have long nephron loops that deeply invade the renal medulla.

Cortical Nephrons

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

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104
Q

________ are important in the production of concentrate urine.

Cortical Nephrons

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

105
Q

________ are almost entirely in the renal cortex.

Cortical Nephrons

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

Cortical Nephrons

106
Q

When glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increases, urine output ________.

increases

decreases

has no change

107
Q

When urine output increases, blood volume ________.

increases

decreases

has no change

108
Q

When blood volume decreases, systemic blood pressure ________.

increases

decreases

has no change

109
Q

When glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases, blood volume ________.

increases

decreases

has no change

110
Q

When blood volume increases, systemic blood pressure ________.

increases

decreases

has no change

111
Q

What type of control is considered “in-house” and autoregulates the GFR?

intrinsic

extrinsic

112
Q

What type of control maintains systemic blood pressure throughout the body?

intrinsic

extrinsic

113
Q

Water is said to ______ salt (Na+).

date

ignore

follow

114
Q

Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) secretion increases the reabsorption of ______ in the DCT and collecting duct.

water

Na+

K+

Ca2+

115
Q

Aldosterone secretion increases the reabsorption of ______ in the DCT and collecting duct.
water

Na+

K+

Ca2+

116
Q

When ADH increases, urine output ______.

increases

decreases

no change

117
Q

When aldosterone secretion increases, urine output ______.

increases

decreases

no change

118
Q

When Na+ reabsorption increases, water reabsorption ______.

increases

decreases

no change

119
Q

The ascending limb of the nephron loop is:

impermeable to solutes

freely permeable to water

impermeable to water

selectively permeable to solutes

A

impermeable to water

120
Q

What part of the nephron reabsorbs nearly all glucose and amino acids?

distal convoluted tubule

proximal convoluted tubule

nephron loop

collecting ducts

A

proximal convoluted tubule

121
Q

Where is 2/3 of readorption occurs in nephrons

122
Q

Impermeable to solutes in nephron loop

A

Descending

123
Q

Most abundant cation in filtrate

124
Q

Movement of H20 from hypoosmotic solution to hyperomotic solution

A

Osmosis (a lot of salt in this place and then waste there is more water where the solutes are being pulled by the water)

125
Q

Protein channels/pore that allows water to reabsorb

A

Aquaporins(protein channels)

126
Q

Creates the medullary osmotic gradient in juxtamedullary nephron

A

Countercurrent multiplayer

127
Q

Preserves the medullary osmotic gradient in vasa recta capillaries

A

Countercurrent exchanger

128
Q

Hormone that increases water reabsorption via activating aquaporins

A

ADH(over hydrated will shut down the aquaporins hormones)

129
Q

Hormone that increases Na+ reabsorption

A

Aldosterone( pulls sodium when needed)

130
Q

Parts of the tubule that control Na+ and water by hormones

131
Q

Volume of filtrate formed er minutes of both kidneys

132
Q

Countercurrent multiplier

A

countercurrent multiplier mechanism helps the kidney conserve water and maintain proper fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.

133
Q

Countercurrent exchanger

A

countercurrent exchange is a highly efficient mechanism for the transfer of substances across biological membranes, maximizing the exchange process and optimizing physiological functions such as respiration and urine concentration.

134
Q

The 3 steps of urine formation

A

1.filtrate
2.reabsorption
3.secretion

135
Q

ADH UP; Urine ____?

136
Q

parasympathetic

A

nervous system regulates restful activities and conserves energy in the body. It is often referred to as the “rest and digest” system, contrasting with the sympathetic nervous system’s “fight or flight” response. It slows heart rate, promotes digestion, constricts bronchi, and has various other effects on organs.

137
Q

sympathetic

A

Send signal to store for the short being

138
Q

Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder

defecation

excretion

filtration

micturition

A

Micturition

139
Q

For micturition to take place; what are the order of events that must take place?
1. Opening of the internal sphincter.
2. Bladder wall stretches, and the stretch receptors trigger spinal reflexes.
3. Opening of the external sphincter.
4. Contraction of the detrusor muscles by the parasympathetic system

1, 2, 3, 4

4, 3, 2, 1

4, 2, 1, 3

2, 4, 1, 3

140
Q

All the following are solutes of urine EXCEPT:

uric acid

urea

creatinine

glycogen

141
Q

The muscularis of the urinary bladder, collectively called the detrusor muscle, is made up of ________ layers of muscle.

2

3

4

5

142
Q

What is the kidney?

A

The kidney is the big shaped organs

143
Q

What is the ureter?

A

It’s those long tubes connected to the kidneys that carries the routine from the kidney to the bladder

144
Q

What is the Hepatic Vein?

A

The blue vein tube in the middlee

145
Q

Urethra

A

Vagina( women pelvic area)

146
Q

What is the Renal Artery?

A

The major blood vessel that supplice oxygenated blood to the kidneys( red tube)

147
Q

Renal Vein

A

renal veins are the main blood vessels that carry blood from the kidneys and ureters to the inferior vena cava (IVC), which then carries blood directly to the heart.

148
Q

Rectum (cut view)

A

Hollow hole on top on the bladder

149
Q

Urinary Bladder

A

The bladder obviously before the pee hole

150
Q

Adrenal Gland

A

Fat looking things near the kidneys

151
Q

When you are dehydrated, your urine is usually:

dark yellow

pinkish

clear

A

Dark Yellow

152
Q

When water reabsorption increases, urine output ________.

increases

decreases

no change

153
Q

What autonomic nervous system induces micturition?

parasympathetic

sympathetic

somatic

A

parasympathetic

154
Q

What urinary sphincter has voluntary control?

internal urethral sphincter

external urethral sphincter

pyloric sphincters

esophageal sphincter

A

external urethral sphincter

155
Q

What nitrogenous waste in urine is from protein metabolism?

urea

uric acid

creatinine

creatine phosphate

156
Q

What creates the medullary osmotic gradient?

countercurrent multiplier

countercurrent exchanger

A

Countercurrent Multiplier

157
Q

What preserves the medullary osmotic gradient?

countercurrent multiplier

countercurrent exchanger

A

Countercurrent Exchanger

158
Q

Act as the countercurrent multipliers.

nephron loop

vasa recta

cortical nephron

glomerulus

A

Nephron loop

159
Q

T/F: When the secretion of ADH increases urine production/volume increases.
Incorrect answer:

True

False

160
Q

Also known as urination

A

Micturition

161
Q

The acid that gives urine its yellow color

162
Q

Largest solute waste in urine

163
Q

Type of movement ureters use to move urine from kidneys to bladder

A

Peristalsis

164
Q

Triangle region of the ureter entries and bladder neck; infections

165
Q

Middle layer of bladder made of smooth muscle

A

Destructor

166
Q

Sphincter with voluntary control

167
Q

Sphincter with involuntary control

168
Q

Inhibits micturition and inhibits pontine storages

A

sympathetic

169
Q

Promotes micturition and inhibits Pantone storage

A

ParaSympathetic

170
Q

Homologous structures -

A

often have functions in common

Male testes & female ovaries

171
Q

males secrete ?

172
Q

Female sex hormones

A

Estrogens and progesterone (females)

173
Q

Accessory reproductive organs:

A

remaining reproductive structures → ducts, glands, and external genitalia

174
Q

The Scrotum

A

Sac of skin and superficial fascia
Hangs outside abdominopelvic cavity Contains paired testes

175
Q

Scrotom temp maintenance

A

98.6o) → slightly cooler for
sperm production (spermatogenesis)

176
Q

Dartos muscle:

A

smooth muscle; wrinkles scrotal skin; pulls scrotum close to body

177
Q

Cremaster muscles

A

bands of skeletal muscle Cremaster Muscle
that elevate testes
Dartos Muscle

Regulate temp

178
Q

Sperm production

A

meiosis 1 & 2 (splitting)

179
Q

Where is soerm produced

180
Q

Where is sperm stored

A

epididymis

181
Q

Male Accessory Ducts:

A

Epididymis
Ductus (vas) Deferens
Ejaculatory Duct Urethra

182
Q

During ejaculation,

A

epididymis contracts, expelling sperm into ductus (vas) deferens
Epididymis

183
Q

Ductus deferens (or vas deferens)

A

Tube connected to the epididymis. When contracted sperm, shoots straight up into the ductus deferens

184
Q

Corpus spongiosum:

A

-surrounds urethra and expands to form glans and bulb

-help make an erection and keep the urethra open during the erection.

185
Q

Corpora cavernosa

A

paired dorsal erectile bodies

helps with erection

Contain blood vessels that fail with blood to help an erection

186
Q

Seminal Glands

A

produces 70% fluid volume of semen
Increase sperm motility/fertilizing ability
Sperm & seminal fluid mix in the ejaculatory duct

187
Q

Prostate

A

secretes milky, slightly acid fluid
Fluid activates sperm; accounts for 1⁄3 of semen volume
1 in 6 men develop prostate cancer; 3rd

188
Q

Bulbo-urethral Gland

A

produce thick, clear mucus
that neutralizes traces of urine
Lubricates the glans penis when sexually excited
Seminal Glands
Prostate
Bulbo-urethral gland

189
Q

Is erection parasympathetic or sympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

190
Q

Is ejaculation parasympathetic or sympathetic

A

Sympathetic

191
Q

structures that have functions in common and common origin during development

A

homologous structures

192
Q

Male’s sex organs

193
Q

produces sperm

194
Q

stores sperm

A

epididymis

195
Q

transports sperm from epididymis to ejaculation

A

vas deferens

196
Q

fluid that neutralizes the urethra (urine) is produced by the___

A

bulbo-urethral gland

197
Q

produces 70% of amén fluid volume; increases sperm motility/fertilizing ability

A

seminal gland

198
Q

fluid that activates sperm is produced by the ____

A

prostate glad

199
Q

spongy erectile tissue in the penis

A

corpus spongiosum and cavernosa

200
Q

why does the scrotom/testes location matter ✨

A

sperm production to be slightly cooler then body temp

201
Q

what role does the parasympathetic system play(ereectuon or ejaculation

A

erection;vasodilation

202
Q

what role does the sympathetic l play (erection or ejaculation

A

ejeculation

203
Q

First 14 days of the ovarian cycle.

Postovulatory phase

Proliferative phase

Follicular phase

Luteal phase

A

Follicular phase

204
Q

Phase of the menstrual cycle that the endometrium rebuilds and there is a rising of estrogen.

Postovulatory phase

Proliferative phase

Follicular phase

Luteal phase

A

Proliferative phase

205
Q

Phase of the ovarian cycle that occurs after ovulation; consists of corpus luteum activity

Postovulatory phase

Proliferative phase

Follicular phase

Luteal phase

A

Luteal phase

206
Q

Phase of the female cycle that the endometrium prepares for embryo implantation; second half of the menstrual cycle

Postovulatory phase

Proliferative phase

Follicular phase

Luteal phase

Postovulatory phase

A

Postovulatory phase

207
Q

Female internal genitalia includes:

Mons pubis

Ovaries

Uterine tubes

Uterus

Vagina

Labia minora

Labia majora

A

Ovaries
Uterine tubes
Uterus
Vagina

208
Q

Female external genitalia includes:

Mons pubis

Ovaries

Uterine tubes

Uterus

Vagina

Labia minora

Labia majora

A

Mons pubis
Labia Minora
Labia Majora

209
Q

Male sex organ

testes

epididymis

vas deferens

prostate

210
Q

Stores sperm for up to several months.

testes

epididymis

vas deferens

prostate

A

Epididymis

211
Q

Gland that secretes a slightly acidic fluid that activates sperm

testes

epididymis

vas deferens

prostate

212
Q

During a vasectomy, what male anatomy is cut and ligated?

testes

epididymis

vas deferens

prostate

A

Vas deferens

213
Q

Produce and store the female gametes

Ovaries

Uterus

Vagina

Uterine tube

214
Q

Usual site of fertilization

Ovaries

Uterus

Vagina

Uterine tube

A

Uterine tube

215
Q

Its function is to receive, retain, and nourish fertilized the ovum

Ovaries

Uterus

Vagina

Uterine tube

216
Q

Lining of the uterus that sheds and is influenced by ovarian hormones

perimetrium

myometrium

endometrium

adventitia

A

Endometrium

217
Q

What’s the Perimetrium?

A

Outermost serosa layer

218
Q

What is Myometrium?

A

bulky middle layer consisting of interlacing layers of smooth muscle
○Contracts rhythmically during childbirth

219
Q

What is Endometrium?

A

mucosal lining
○Simple columnar epithelium
○Fertilized egg burrows into endometrium and resides there during development
○Changes in response to ovarian hormone cycles
○Shed during menstruation if no conception (~28 days)

220
Q

3 layers (“coats”) of wall

A

Fibroelastic adventitia → outer
Smooth muscle muscularis → middle
Stratified squamous mucosa with rugae → inner

221
Q

Acidic of Alkaline: Adult

222
Q

Acidic or alkaline: Adolescents

A

Alkaline more prone to infection(STD’s)

223
Q

Mons pubis:

A

fatty area overlying pubic symphys

224
Q

Labia majora

A

hair-covered, fatty skin folds
○Counterpart of male scrotum

225
Q

Labia minora

A

skin folds lying within labia majora
○Counterpart of male spongy urethra of the penis

226
Q

Greater vestibular glands

A

release mucus into vestibule for lubrication
○Counterpart of male bulbo-urethral glands

227
Q

Clitoris

A

structure composed largely of erectile tissue
○Counterpart to the male penis

228
Q

Ovarian Cycle

A

prepares ovum (mature egg)

229
Q

Uterine Cycle

A

prepares uterus

230
Q

Ovarian cycle → months

A

(~28 day) series of events associated with maturation of egg

231
Q

Two consecutive phases; Follicular phase

A

period of vesicular follicle growth (days 1-14)
●Increased secretion of estrogen - one follicle is selected, point that ovulation occurs (mid cycle)
●Hypothalamus → GnRH (1x/month) → Anterior Pituitary → FSH/LH

232
Q

Two consecutive phases; Luteal phase

A

period of corpus luteum activity (days 14-28)
●Only 10-15% of women have 28-day cycles (up to 40 or short as 21 days)
○Follicular phase varies, but luteal phase is always 14 days from ovulation to end of cycle

233
Q

Ovulation

A

ejection of oocyte from ripening follicle

234
Q

Fraternal Twins

A

not identical; 2 oocytes fertilized by 2 sperms

235
Q

Identical Twins -

A

1 oocyte fertilized by 1 sperm but early separation of daughter cells

236
Q

Corpus luteum

A

secretes high levels of progesterone and some estrogen corpus luteum produces hormones that sustain pregnancy until placenta is ready to take over → at about 3 months

237
Q

Days 0-4: Menstrual Phase

A

endometrium detaches & sheds (bleeding); low levels of hormones

238
Q

Days 5-14: Proliferative (preovulatory) Phase

A

rising levels of estrogen; endometrium rebuilds; ovulation occurs at the end of this stage

239
Q

Days 15-28: Secretory (postovulatory) Phase →

A

most constant timewise; endometrium prepares for embryo implant; a cervical plug forms to block sperm, pathogens, foreign materials, etc;
1.if fertilization does not occur the corpus luteum degenerates toward the end of this phase

240
Q

Estrogens

A

Promote oogenesis (development of ovum) and follicle growth in ovary
○Anabolic effects on female reproductive tract Induce secondary sex characteristics
■Growth of breasts
■Increased deposit of subcutaneous fat (hips & breasts)
■Widening and lightening of pelvis

241
Q

Progesterone:

A

Works with estrogen to establish and regulate uterine cycle
■Promotes changes in cervical mucus
■Effects of placental progesterone during pregnancy
●Inhibits uterine motility
●Helps prepare breasts for lactation

242
Q

Fibroelastic adventitia

243
Q

Smooth muscle muscularis

244
Q

Stratified squamous mucosa with rugae

A

inner
■Withstand friction

245
Q

concurrent: prepares ovum (mature egg)

246
Q

Uterine Cycle →

A

prepares uterus

247
Q

Days 0-4: Menstrual Phase →

A

endometrium detaches & sheds (bleeding); low levels of hormones

248
Q

Days 5-14: Proliferative (preovulatory) Phase →

A

rising levels of estrogen; endometrium rebuilds; ovulation occurs at the end of this stage

249
Q

Days 15-28: Secretory (postovulatory) Phase →

A

most constant timewise; endometrium prepares for embryo implant; a cervical plug forms to block sperm, pathogens, foreign materials, etc;
1.if fertilization does not occur the corpus luteum degenerates toward the end of this phase

250
Q

Homologous Reproductive Organs

A

Testes(M) Ovaries(F)
Glans Penis(M) Glans Clitoral(F)
Scrotom(M) Labia Majora(F)

251
Q

T/F: An alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidity of male urethra and female vagina and enhances motility

252
Q

What is seman made of?

A

Contains:
○Fructose → for ATP production
○Prostaglandins → viscosity of mucus
○Hormones → enhance sperm motility
○Antibiotics → destroy some bacteria
○Clotting factors → causes sperm to stick to walls of vagina

253
Q

Static test

A

ERV, IRV, RV, TV, VC

254
Q

Dynamic

A

forced expiratory volume, Forced expiratory volume in 1 second, Forced Vital Capacity

255
Q

Role of the Renal Cortex?

A

Outer most layer
-received >90% of blood that enters the kidneys

256
Q

Role of the Renal Medulla

A

Secretes urine into a sac-like tubules

257
Q

Role of the Renal Pelvis

A

Peristalsis to move urine out into the ureter

258
Q

Role of the Major Calyx

A

Collects urine form the minor calves and then empty’s urine into Renal Pelvis

259
Q

Minor Calyx role

A

Drain the pyramids at papillae

KNR 182(2) (4 decks)

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