Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Cell Biology > Exam 4 Questions > Flashcards

Exam 4 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

In _____ signaling, messenger molecules travel short distances through extracellular space.

A

paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following transmit messages between cells?

A

first messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adenylyl cyclase and phospholipase C are examples of ______.

A

effectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EGF and PDGF are examples of ______.

A

first messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following adds phosphate groups to glycogen?

A

phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following makes inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)?

A

phospholipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following phosphorylates RTKs?

A

RTK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is deactivated by protein kinase A?

A

glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In ______ signaling, the cell has receptors on its surface that respond to the messenger molecules that the same cell makes.

A

autocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following receive messages between cells?

A

receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Transcriptions factors that are activated by phosphorylation are examples of ______ in a signaling pathway.

A

target proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase are examples of ______ in a signaling pathway.

A

target proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following removes phosphate groups from phosphorylated proteins?

A

phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is activated by cAMP?

A

protein kinase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following binds to phosphorylated GPCRs?

A

arrestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following activates adenylyl cyclase?

A

heterotrimeric G protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is activated by phosphorylase kinase?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In ______ signaling, messenger molecules reach their target cells through the bloodstream.

A

endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IP3 and DAG are examples of _____.

A

second messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Glucagon and insulin are examples of ______.

A

first messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

GPCRs and RTKs are examples of _______.

A

receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following adds phosphate groups to proteins?

A

kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following breaks down cyclic nucleotides such as cAMP and cGMP?

A

phosphodiesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following phosphorylates GPCRs?

A

GRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is activated by protein kinase A?

A

phosphorylase kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following makes cAMP?

A

adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is activated by cGMP?

A

protein kinase G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is involved in making inositol triphosphate (IP3)?

A

PI 4-kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is activated by calcium?

A

ryanodine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following activates cAMP response element binding (CREB) transcription factors?

A

protein kinase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following has SH2 (Src homology 2) or PTB (phosphotyrosine binding) domain?

A

growth factor receptor bound protein 2 (grb2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following has SH2 (Src homology 2) or PTB (phosphotyrosine binding) domain?

A

insulin receptor substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following would enable a proteins to bind to PIP3?

A

PH domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is activated by a phosphatase?

A

Glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ryanodine receptor is an example of a ____.

A

Ligand-gated channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is activated by DAG?

A

protein kinase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following has PH domain which allows it to bind to phosphatidyl inositol trisphosphate (PIP3)?

A

protein kinase B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is found in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

IP3 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is deactivated by MAP kinase phosphatase-1 (MKP-1)?

A

mitogen activated protein kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is a protein kinase that is activated by a monomeric G protein?

A

rapidly accelerated fibrosarcoma (raf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following has protein kinase activity?

A

insulin receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is a second messenger?

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Adenylyl cyclase makes ___ from ATP.

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor is an example of a ____.

A

Receptor protein tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is involved in making phosphatidyl inositol trisphosphate (PIP3)?

A

PI 3-kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is involved in making inositol triphosphate (IP3)?

A

phospholipase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following activates STAT transcription factors?

A

receptor protein tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor that can activate G proteins?

A

son of sevenless (sos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is a binding site for proteins containing a PH (pleckstrin homology) domain?

A

PIP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phosphodiesterase converts cAMP to ____.

A

AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The glucocorticoid receptor is an example of a ____.

A

Nuclear receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following activates caspase-activated DNase (CAD)?

A

executioner caspase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following forms part of the apoptosome?

A

cytochrome c
procaspase-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following forms a protein-lined channel in the mitochondria, which releases cytochrome c?

A

bax (bcl2-associated X protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When Ras is bound to ____, then it is active.

A

GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following has a death effector domain?

A

procaspase-8

57
Q

Which of the following is part of the extrinsic but not intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

tumor necrosis factor
procaspase-8

58
Q

Which of the following is a second messenger that activates a calcium channel in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

inositol trisphosphate

59
Q

Which of the following prevents exchange of GDP for GTP in monomeric G proteins?

A

GDI (guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor)

60
Q

Which of the following cleaves executioner procaspases?

A

initiator caspase-8

61
Q

Which of the following is part of the intrinsic but not extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

cytochrome c
procaspase-9

62
Q

Which of the following is an antiapoptotic protein that inhibits the release of cytochrome c?

A

bcl2 (B-cell lymphoma 2)

63
Q

Which of the following makes cGMP?

A

guanylyl cyclase

64
Q

Which of the following activates procaspase-8?

A

procaspase-8

65
Q

Which of the following is an intercellular messenger that activates guanylyl cyclase?

A

nitric oxide

66
Q

Which of the following is inhibited by Viagra?

A

cGMP phosphodiesterase

67
Q

Which of the following activates calmodulin, which in turn modulates that activity of protein kinases and other proteins?

68
Q

Which of the following is the substrate of initiator caspase-8?

A

executioner procaspase

69
Q

Which of the following is part of the extrinsic but not intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

procaspase-8

70
Q

Which of the following is recognized as an “eat me” signal by specialized macrophages?

A

phosphatidylserine

71
Q

Which type of cancer has the highest incidence in men?

A

Prostate cancer

72
Q

Which of the following can be caused by human papilloma virus?

A

Cervical cancer

73
Q

Figure 16.4 suggests that:

A

Cancer cells do not require growth stimulatory signals.

74
Q

Which of the following is true about oncogenes and/or tumor suppressor genes?

A

Loss of function of both copies of a tumor repressor gene can lead to cancer.
Enhanced function of a single copy of an oncogene can lead to cancer.

75
Q

Which of the following tumor suppressor genes encodes a protein that is part of complex involved in DNA repair?

76
Q

Which of the following oncogenes encodes a protein that affect the genetic state of chromatin, such as DNA methylation patterns?

77
Q

Which of the following mutation will lead to tumor formation if it occurs in the APC gene?

A

reduced affinity to a transcription factor

78
Q

Which of the following oncogenes encodes a membrane-bound protein that inhibits apoptosis?

79
Q

Loss of p53 function will lead to _____.

A

suppression of apoptosis

80
Q

Loss of RB gene function will lead to _____.

A

enhanced cell proliferation

81
Q

One of the functions of p53 is _____.

A

activation of transcription
cell cycle arrest at G1
apoptosis

82
Q

Which of the following genes is mutated in the earliest stages of colon cancer?

83
Q

Which of the following is an antibody that blocks an EGF receptor (HER1) from binding EGF that stimulates proliferation of metastatic colon cancer?

84
Q

Treating chronic myelogenous leukemia with Gleevec, which is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, is an example of _____.

A

inhibiting cancer-promoting proteins

85
Q

Which type of cancer has the highest incidence in women?

A

Breast cancer

86
Q

Which of the following can be caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori?

A

Stomach cancer

87
Q

When cancer cells are grown under conditions where normal cells form a monolayer, cancers cells pile on top of one another to form clumps. This observation suggests that:

A

Cancer cells do not respond to growth inhibitory signals.

88
Q

Which of the following is true about oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?

A

Oncogenes promote growth while tumor suppressor genes restrain growth.
Oncogenes act dominantly while tumor suppressor genes act recessively.

89
Q

Which of the following tumor suppressor genes is associated with formation of polyps that can lead to colon cancer?

90
Q

Which of the following is the first oncogene to be discovered?

91
Q

Which of the following mutation will lead to tumor formation if it occurs in the RB gene?

A

loss of phosphorylation sites (n)

92
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of proteins and noncoding RNAs involved in cell growth and proliferation?

93
Q

Loss of the GTPase function of RAS may lead to _____.

A

enhanced cell proliferation

94
Q

Enhanced MDM2 function will lead to _____.

A

suppression of apoptosis

95
Q

Which of the following is an antibody that binds to a cell-surface protein (CD20) that is present on the malignant B-cells in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

96
Q

The use of anti-CD20 antibodies to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is an example of _____.

A

passive immunotherapy

97
Q

The most common cancer among Japanese men but not in first and second generation Japanese migrants to Hawaii is _____.

A

Prostate cancer (n)
Stomach cancer

98
Q

Which of the following can be caused by hepatitis B virus?

A

Liver cancer

99
Q

Which of the following is not true about cancer cells?

A

Cancer cells do not have high metabolic requirements.

100
Q

Which of the following tumor suppressor genes encodes a protein that prevents transcription of genes involved in the transition from G1 to S phase?

101
Q

Which of the following is the first oncogene to be discovered?

102
Q

Which of the following mutation will convert RAS from a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?

A

loss of GTPase activity

103
Q

Which of the following oncogenes encodes a protein that prevents apoptosis and cell cycle arrest by binding to p53?

104
Q

Loss of BCL-2 gene function will lead to _____.

105
Q

Increased levels of EGFR will lead to _____.

A

enhanced cell proliferation

106
Q

One of the functions of BCL-2 is _____.

A

suppression of apoptosis

107
Q

Which of the following genes is mutated in the later stages of colon cancer when the tumor is clearly malignant?

108
Q

Which of the following is an anticancer drug that inhibits a specific mutated version of BRAF found in metastatic melanoma?

109
Q

DCVax, which is described as a cancer vaccine, is an example of _____.

A

active immunotherapy

110
Q

Which of the following has the lowest survival rate?

A

Pancreatic cancer

111
Q

Which of the following can be caused by the herpes virus HHV-8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

112
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET) scans can reveal the location of metastatic tumors where glucose uptake is elevated because:

A

Cancer cells have high metabolic requirements.

113
Q

Which of the following tumor suppressor genes is a transciption factor that activates genes involved in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis?

114
Q

Which of the following mutation will lead to tumor formation if it occurs in the MDM2 gene?

A

enhanced affinity to a transcription factor

115
Q

The cancer-causing avian erythroblastosis virus contained an oncogene derived from which of the following proto-oncogenes?

116
Q

Loss of certain phosphorylation sites in RB gene but not its function will lead to _____.

A

cell cycle arrest at G1

117
Q

Loss of RAF gene function may lead to _____.

A

reduced cell proliferation

118
Q

One of the functions of PKB (AKT1) is _____.

A

suppression of apoptosis

119
Q

Which of the following is an antibody that blocks VEGF from binding to its receptor, thus inhibiting angiogenesis?

120
Q

The use of tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) to kill cancer cells is an example of _____.

A

active immunotherapy

121
Q

The highest number of cancer deaths come from _____.

A

Lung cancer

122
Q

Which of the following can be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

123
Q

Cancer comes from _____.

A

a singe cell line with multiple genetic alterations

124
Q

Which of the following tumor suppressor genes encodes phosphoinositide phosphatase?

125
Q

Which of the following oncogenes encodes a protein that affect the genetic state of chromatin, such as DNA methylation patterns?

126
Q

Which of the following mutation will lead to tumor formation if it occurs in the p53 gene?

A

loss of phosphorylation sites

127
Q

Which of the following oncogenes encodes a metabolic enzyme in the TCA cycle, which can mutate to produce an abnormal metabolite that affects histone demethylation and DNA methylation?

128
Q

Loss of NF1 (a RAS GTPase activating protein) gene function will lead to _____.

A

enhanced cell proliferation

129
Q

Enhanced PTEN function will lead to _____.

130
Q

Which of the following is an antibody that blocks an EGF receptor (HER2) from binding EGF that stimulates proliferation of breast cancer cells?

131
Q

DCVax, which is described as a cancer vaccine, is an example of _____.

A

active immunotherapy

132
Q

Aneuploidy is evidence that:

A

Cancer cells do not respond to apoptotic signals.

133
Q

Which of the following mutation will lead to tumor formation if it occurs in the NF1 gene?

A

loss of GTPase activation activity

134
Q

Which of the following proto-oncogene encodes a protein kinase and most closely linked to melanoma?

135
Q

Loss of RAS gene function will lead to _____.

A

reduced cell proliferation

136
Q

Enhanced PI3K function will lead to _____.

A

suppression of apoptosis

137
Q

One of the functions of BRCA1 is _____.

A

DNA repair

138
Q

The cancer-causing simian sarcoma virus contained an oncogene derived from which of the following proto-oncogenes?

Cell Biology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions