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Cell Biology > Exam 3 Questions > Flashcards

Exam 3 Questions Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

The fluid substance in the nucleus in which solutes are dissolved is called ___.

A

nucleoplasm

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2
Q

The protein containing fibrillar network in the nucleus is called ____.

A

nuclear matrix

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3
Q

An intermembrane space is found in the ______.

A

nuclear envelope

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4
Q

Which of the following will have the highest amount of DNA?

A

chromatin

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5
Q

The basic unit of inheritance called the “gene” resides in the _____.

A

chromatin

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6
Q

Which of the following promotes conversion of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP?

A

RanGAP1

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7
Q

Ribosomes are made in the _____.

A

nucleolus

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8
Q

The nuclear pore complex is found in the _____.

A

nuclear envelope

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9
Q

The nuclear lamina provides mechanical support to the _____.

A

nuclear envelope

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10
Q

Which of the following will have the highest amount of lipids?

A

nuclear envelope

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11
Q

Which of the following will have the highest amount of proteins?

A

nuclear matrix

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12
Q

Which of the following stays in the cytoplasm?

A

RanGAP1

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13
Q

The nucleoprotein fibers that constitute the chromosomes are called ____.

A

chromatin

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14
Q

Nucleosomes are part of ______.

A

chromatin

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15
Q

The shape of the nucleus is maintained by the ____.

A

nuclear matrix

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16
Q

Which of the following will have the highest amount of RNA?

A

nucleoli

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17
Q

Which of the following will have the highest amount of carbohydrates?

A

nucleoplasm

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18
Q

Which of the following promotes conversion of Ran-GDP to Ran-GTP?

A

RCC1

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19
Q

Which of the following stays in the nucleus?

A

RCC1

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20
Q

Centromere is an example of ____.

A

Constitutive Heterochromatin

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21
Q

Transcription occurs in _____.

A

Euchromatin

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22
Q

Histones bind to _____.

A

All of the above

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23
Q

DNA polymerase binds to _____.

A

All of the above

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24
Q

The distal ends of the Y chromosome is an example of _______.

A

Constitutive Heterochromatin

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25
Q

Which of the following are basic proteins that associate with DNA?

A

Histones

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26
Q

Which of the following are involved in transcriptional regulation of gene expression?

A

Histones

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27
Q

Telomerase is an example of _____.

A

None of the above

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28
Q

A dispersed form of chromatin is known as _____.

A

Euchromatin

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29
Q

Methylated DNA is usually found in ______.

A

Facultative Heterochromatin

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30
Q

The inactive X chromosome is an example of _______.

A

Facultative Heterochromatin

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31
Q

Marked indentations on mitotic chromosomes are known as ____.

A

Centromeres

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32
Q

Which of the following are enzymes?

A

Telomerases

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33
Q

Which of the following prevent ends of chromosomes from fusing with one another?

A

Telomeres

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34
Q

The Barr body is an example of _____.

A

Facultative Heterochromatin

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35
Q

Telomere is an example of _____.

A

Constitutive Heterochromatin

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36
Q

Satellite DNA is usually found in ______.

A

Constitutive Heterochromatin

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37
Q

RNA polymerase binds to _____.

A

Euchromatin

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38
Q

The active parts of an X chromosome is an example of _______.

A

Euchromatin

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39
Q

Unusual stretches of repeated sequences which form caps at the ends of chromosomes are known as ____.

A

Telomeres

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40
Q

Which of the following is a reverse transcriptase that synthesizes DNA using RNA as template?

A

Telomerases

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41
Q

In the lac operon, the ligand is made by enzymes encoded by the_____.

A

none of the above

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42
Q

In the trp operon, the ligand-repressor protein complex binds to _____.

A

operator region

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43
Q

What happens if the operator region is removed from the lac operon?

A

the structural genes would always be expressed

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44
Q

What happens if the promoter region is removed from the trp operon?

A

the structural genes would never be expressed

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45
Q

What happens if the lac promoter and operator regions are replaced with those of the trp operon?

A

the structural genes would only be expressed in the absence of trp

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46
Q

What happens if the cAMP-CRP binding site is removed from the lac operon?

A

the structural genes would never be expressed

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47
Q

Which of the following happens in a repressible operon?

A

a and b (no)

In the absence of the ligand, the regulator does not bind to the operator.

The ligand-regulator complex does not bind to the operator.

c (no)

The ligand-regulator complex does not bind to the operator

b and c (no)

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48
Q

Which of the following occurs in the presence of tryptophan?

A

The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator (no)

The ligand-regulator complex does not bind to the operator (no)

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49
Q

In which case will structural genes be expressed in an inducible operon?

A

The ligand-regulator complex does not bind to the operator.

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50
Q

What happens in when tryptophan is present?

A

The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator

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51
Q

In the lac operon, to what does an inducer bind?

A

repressor protein

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52
Q

In the lac operon, the ligand-repressor protein complex binds to _____.

A

operator region (no)
none of the above

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53
Q

If there were a mutation in the regulatory gene of an inducible promoter rendering the protein incapable of binding to the inducer, then ______

A

the structural genes would never be expressed

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54
Q

What happens if the promoter region is removed from the lac operon?

A

the structural genes would never be expressed.

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55
Q

If there were a mutation in the regulatory gene of an inducible promoter rendering the protein incapable of binding to the corepressor, then ______

A

the structural genes would always be expressed

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56
Q

What happens if the trp promoter and operator regions are replaced with those of the lac operon?

A

the structural genes would only be expressed in the presence of lactose

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57
Q

Which of the following happens in an inducible operon?

A

a and c

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58
Q

Which of the following occurs in the presence of lactose?

A

a and c

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59
Q

In which case will transcription NOT occur in a repressible operon?

A

The regulator without the ligand binds to the operator (no)
The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator.

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60
Q

What happens in when tryptophan is absent?

A

The regulator without the ligand does not bind to the operator

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61
Q

In the lac operon, what encodes the repressor protein?

A

regulatory gene

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62
Q

In the trp operon, the repressor protein without the ligand binds to _____.

A

none of the above

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63
Q

In the lac operon, the repressor protein without the ligand binds to _____.

A

operator region

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64
Q

What happens if the structural genes in a trp operon are mutated so that the encoded enzymes become nonfunctional?

A

the structural genes would only be expressed in the absence of the repressor

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65
Q

What happens if the regulatory gene in a lac operon is removed?

A

the structural genes would always be expressed

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66
Q

Which of the following is true for both inducible and repressible operons?

A

The ligand binds to the regulator protein.

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67
Q

Which of the following happens in an inducible operon?

A

b and c (no)

b (no)
The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator.

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68
Q

Which of the following occurs in the trp operon?

A

a and b

The ligand binds to the regulator protein.

The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator.

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69
Q

In which case will structural genes be expressed in a repressible operon?

A

The regulator without the ligand does not bind to the operator

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70
Q

What happens in the presence of lactose?

A

The ligand-regulator complex does not bind to the operator.

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71
Q

In the trp operon, to what does RNA polymerase bind?

A

promoter region

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72
Q

In the trp operon, the ligand is made by enzymes encoded by the_____.

A

structural genes

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73
Q

What happens if the operator region is removed from the trp operon?

A

the structural genes would always be expressed.

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74
Q

What happens if the structural genes in a lac operon are mutated so that the encoded enzymes become nonfunctional?

A

the structural genes would only be expressed in the presence of the inducer

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75
Q

What happens if the regulatory gene in a trp operon is removed?

A

the structural genes would always be expressed.

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76
Q

Which of the following is a difference between inducible versus repressible operons?

A

b and c

The ligand-regulator complex binds to the operator.

In the absence of the ligand, the regulator binds to the operator.

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77
Q

Which of the following occurs in the lac operon?

A

a and c

The ligand binds to the regulator protein.

In the absence of the ligand, the regulator binds to the operator.

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78
Q

In which case will transcription NOT occur in an inducible operon?

A

The regulator without the ligand does not bind to the operator (no)

The regulator without the ligand binds to the operator.

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79
Q

What happens in the absence of lactose?

A

The regulator without the ligand binds to the operator

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80
Q

If there were a mutation in the regulatory gene of a repressible promoter rendering the protein incapable of binding to the corepressor, then ______

A

the structural genes would always be expressed.

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81
Q

Which of the following is involved in genomic imprinting?

A

DNA methylation

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82
Q

The information that governs the cytoplasmic localization of an mRNA resides in the _____.

A

3’-UTR

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83
Q

Which of the following is involved in transcriptional activation?

A

histone acetylation

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84
Q

Which part of the mRNA protects it from being degraded by the exosome?

A

polyA tail

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85
Q

Iron regulatory protein binds to which region of the ferritin mRNA?

A

5’-UTR

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86
Q

The TATA box is a/an ______.

A

core promoter element

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87
Q

Which of the following is not a transcription factor motif?

A

TATA box

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88
Q

Which of the following disrupts histone-DNA interactions, which can lead to changes in the conformation of nucleosomes?

A

chromatin remodelling complex

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89
Q

Which of the following is a sequence-specific transcription factor?

A

glucocorticoid receptor

90
Q

Which of the following is a general transcription factor?

A

TATA-binding protein (TBP)

91
Q

The glucocorticoid response element is an example of a/an ______.

A

distal promoter element

92
Q

Which of the following is a transcription factor motif present in the MYC gene, which is involved in the development of certain types of cancers?

A

helix-loop-helix

93
Q

Which of the following has acetyltransferase activity?

A

histone modification complex

94
Q

Which part of the mRNA is flanked by start and stop codons?

A

coding region

95
Q

Which of the following is a transcription factor motif composed of three alpha helices organized into a boomerang shape?

A

HMG-box

96
Q

Which of the following is involved in heterochromatin formation?

A

histone methylation

97
Q

Which of the following is a transcription factor motif found in AP-1 (also known as Fos/Jun)?

A

leucine zipper

98
Q

Which of the following binds to proteins of the nuclear matrix?

A

insulators

99
Q

Which of the following is performed by subunits of large complexes called corepressors?

A

histone deacetylation

100
Q

The CAAT box and the GC box are both ______.

A

proximal promoter elements

101
Q

Which of the following is a transcription factor motif found in the glucocorticoid receptor?

A

zinc finger

102
Q

DNA sequences that stimulate the transcription of a gene thousands of base pairs away are called ______.

A

enhancers

103
Q

To initiate translation, the 40S ribosomal subunit binds to which part of the mRNA?

A

5’-UTR

104
Q

Which of the following is involved in transcriptional repression of euchromatin?

A

histone deacetylation and histone methylation

105
Q

Which of the following is a coactivator that interacts directly with RNA polymerase II?

A

Mediator

106
Q

Telomerases are is involved in ____.

A

none of the above

107
Q

Chromatin remodelling complex is involved in ____.

A

transcriptional level control of gene expression

108
Q

Decapping enzyme is involved in ______.

A

translational level control of gene expression

109
Q

Which of the following is involved in control of gene expression at the transcriptional level?

A

histone modification

110
Q

The glucocorticoid receptor element is involved in ____.

A

transcriptional level control of gene expression

111
Q

The CAAT box and the GC box are both involved in ________.

A

transcriptional level control of gene expression

112
Q

Maskin is involved in ____.

A

translational level control of gene expression

113
Q

The zip codes found in mRNA are involved in _____.

A

mRNA localization

114
Q

U1 snRNPs are involved in _______.

A

processing level control of gene expression

115
Q

Exonic splicing suppressors are involved in ________.

A

processing level control of gene expression

116
Q

Which of the following is involved in control of gene expression at the post-translational level?

A

polyubiquitination

117
Q

RanGAP1 is involved in ____.

A

none of the above

118
Q

FOS and JUN are involved in ____.

A

transcriptional level control of gene expression

119
Q

Ubiquitin ligase is involved in ____.

A

post-translational level control of gene expression

120
Q

Which of the following is involved in control of gene expression at the mRNA processing level?

A

alternative splicing

121
Q

Proteosomes are involved in ____.

A

post-translational level control of gene expression

122
Q

Histone methyltransferases are involved in _______.

A

transcriptional level control of gene expression

123
Q

The polyA nucleases are involved in ____.

A

translational level control of gene expression

124
Q

Which of the following is involved in control of gene expression at the translational level?

A

mRNA localization

125
Q

PolyA binding protein is involved in ______.

A

translational level control of gene expression

126
Q

Which of the following cell fusion experiments can lead to premature compaction of duplicated interphase chromosomes, which appear pulverized under the microscope?

A

G1 + M (n)
G2 + M (n)
S + M?

127
Q

Which of the following arrests the cell cycle upon UV irradiation?

A

phosphorylation of cdc25 by chk1

128
Q

Which of the following is a cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor?

A

p21

129
Q

Which of the following arrests the cell cycle at the G1 stage?

A

phosphorylation of p53 by chk2

130
Q

Which of the following activates Cdks?

A

phosphorylation of cdc2 by CAK

131
Q

Which of the following is required for G2 cells to enter mitosis?

A

phosphorylation of cdc2 by CAK

132
Q

Which of the following cell fusion experiments can lead to premature compaction of duplicated interphase chromosomes, which remain intact and visible under the microscope?

A

G2 + S (n)
S + M (n)
G2 + M?

133
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes duplicated?

A

S

134
Q

Which of the following phosphorylates cdc25?

A

chk1

135
Q

Which of the following leads to transcription of the p21 gene?

A

phosphorylation of p53 by chk2

136
Q

Which of the following cell fusion experiments can lead to duplication of interphase chromosomes?

A

G1 + M (n)
G1 + S

137
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell cyle stop upon DNA damage due to UV radiation?

A

G1 (no)
G2

138
Q

Which of the following inactivates Cdks?

A

association with p21

139
Q

Which of the following is a cyclin dependent kinase?

A

cdc2

140
Q

Which of the following drives the cells into mitosis after the MPF is phosphorylated?

A

dephosphorylation of cdk by cdc25

141
Q

Which of the following is a kinase?

A

cdc25 (no)
chk1

142
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle are organelles duplicated?

A

G1

143
Q

Which of the following cell fusion experiments can lead to premature compaction of unduplicated interphase chromosomes, which remain intact and visible under the microscope?

A

G2 + S (n)
S + M (n)
G1 + M?

144
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle do mitotic cyclins accumulate?

A

G2

145
Q

Which of the following activates Cdks?

A

a, b and c
A) association with a cyclin

B) phosphorylation at a critical tyrosine residue

C) association with p21

146
Q

Which of the following is a transcription factor?

A

p53

147
Q

Which of the following prevents G2 cells from entering mitosis?

A

phosphorylation of cdc2 by Wee1

148
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell cyle stop upon DNA damage due to ionizing radiation?

A

G1

149
Q

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move towards the spindle equator?

A

metaphase (n)
prometaphase

150
Q

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes align at the spindle equator?

A

metaphase

151
Q

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to opposite spindle poles?

A

anaphase

152
Q

In which stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disperses?

A

prophase

153
Q

Which of the following is in the correct order?

A

G1, G2, S, M (n)
M, G1, S, G2

154
Q

In which stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope assembles around chromosomes?

A

telophase

155
Q

Which of the following is degraded by APCCdc20?

A

securin

156
Q

Which of the following is degraded by APC?

A

b and c

157
Q

Which of the following activates Cdks?

A

a and c

158
Q

Which of the following move chromosomes to the poles?

A

Kinetochore microtubules

159
Q

Which of the following is an adaptor protein that determines the substrate selection of the anaphase promoting complex?

A

cdc20

160
Q

Which of the following guides the formation of a new cell wall in plants during cytokinesis?

A

phragmoplast

161
Q

Which of the following is/are attached to chromosomes?

A

Kinetochore microtubules

162
Q

Which of the following is the substrate of an active protease called separase?

A

cohesin

163
Q

Which of the following is/are most directly involved in anaphase A?

A

Kinetochore microtubules

164
Q

The movement of spindle poles away from each other is referred to as ______.

A

anaphase b

165
Q

Which of the following is/are formed during telophase?

A

Contractile ring

166
Q

Which of the following keep/s the spindle poles apart?

A

Polar spindle microtubules

167
Q

Which of the following is/are the first to form during mitosis in animal cells?

A

Astral spindle fibers

168
Q

Which of the following is/are made up of actin and myosin filaments?

A

Contractile ring

169
Q

In plant cells, the formation of a new cell wall between two daughter cells begins with the construction of a _____.

A

cell plate

170
Q

The plane of alignment of chromosomes during mitosis is called _____.

A

metaphase plate

171
Q

Which of the following is a direct target of a checkpoint kinase?

A

cdc25

172
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle are centrosomes duplicated?

A

S

173
Q

Which of the following is/are the last to form during mitosis in animal cells?

A

Contractile ring

174
Q

The cytoplasmic bridge between two daughter cells formed from remnants of the middle portion of the mitotic spindle is called _____.

A

midbody

175
Q

Which of the following help/s determine the plane of cytokinesis in animal cells?

A

Astral spindle fibers

176
Q

Which of the following is/are most directly involved in anaphase B?

A

Polar spindle microtubules

177
Q

Which of the following is a direct target of cyclin dependent kinase?

A

condensin

178
Q

Which of the following is degraded by SCF?

A

G1 cyclins

179
Q

Which of the following is a direct target of a cdk-activating kinase?

A

cdc2

180
Q

Which of the following help/s determine the plane of cytokinesis in plant cells?

A

Preprophase band

181
Q

Which of the following is degraded by APCCdh-1?

A

mitotic cyclins

182
Q

Which of the following can cause the separation of sister chromatids?

A

cdc20

183
Q

Which of the following is/are formed during interphase?

A

Preprophase band

184
Q

The movement of chromosomes toward the poles is referred to as ____.

A

anaphase a

185
Q

Which of the following holds sister chromatids together?

A

cohesin

186
Q

Which of the following uses cyclin dependent kinase as a substrate?

A

cdc25

187
Q

Which of the following help/s position the spindle apparatus during metaphase?

A

Astral spindle fibers

188
Q

Which of the following is a multiprotein complex involved in chromosome compaction?

A

condensin

189
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the compaction of a diploid number of paired chromosomes and the disappearance of the nuclear membrane and the nucleolus, while the centrioles move toward opposite poles and the spindle forms?

A

prophase of meiosis I

190
Q

In female gametogenesis, secondary oocytes stop at _____ before they are fertilized by a sperm.

A

metaphase II

191
Q

Which of the following is a ladder like structure with transverse protein filaments connecting two lateral elements, which hold two homologous chromosomes together?

A

synaptonemal complex

192
Q

At what stage of prophase I do chromosomes become visible?

A

Leptotene

193
Q

At what stage of prophase I do synaptonemal complexes disappear?

A

Diplotene

194
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the dispersion of a haploid number of chromosomes and the partial or complete reformation of the nuclear envelopes in the two daughter cells?

A

telophase of meiosis I and II (n)
telophase of mitosis (n)
telophase of mitosis I and meiosis II (n)

195
Q

At what stage of prophase I is the meiotic spindle assembled?

A

Diakinesis

196
Q

At what stage of prophase I are synaptonemal complexes fully formed?

A

Pachytene

197
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the alignment of a diploid number of paired chromosomes at the center of the cell and the attachment of each homologue to chromosomal spindle fibers from opposite spindle poles?

A

metaphase of meiosis I

198
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the compaction of a diploid number of unpaired chromosomes and the disappearance of the nuclear membrane and the nucleolus, while the centrioles move toward opposite poles and the spindle forms?

A

prophase of mitosis

199
Q

In female gametogenesis, primary oocytes stop at _____ before they becomes secondary oocytes at puberty.

A

prophase I

200
Q

In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate?

A

anaphase I

201
Q

In gametogenesis, the stage between primary spermatocytes and secondary spematocytes is _____.

A

interkinesis

202
Q

At what stage of prophase I does synapsis begin?

A

Zygotene (n)
Pachytene (n)
Leptotene

203
Q

Which of the following are 100-nm electron dense bodies which correspond to sites where crossing-over takes place?

A

recombination nodules

204
Q

In which stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate?

A

anaphase II

205
Q

Which stage of meiosis ends the process of meiosis with chromosomes again enclosed by a nuclear envelope? The cells at this stage have a haploid amount of nuclear DNA and a haploid number of chromosomes.

A

telophase II

206
Q

During which phase of meiosis do the kinetochores of sister chromatids face opposite poles as they line up in the center of the cells? The centromeres of sister chromatids become attached to chromosomal spindle fibers from opposite spindle poles.

A

metaphase II

207
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the splitting of the centromeres of a diploid number of chromosomes and the movement of the resultant chromosomes toward opposite poles of the two daughter cells?

A

anaphase of mitosis and meiosis I (n)
anaphase of meiosis I (n)

208
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the random splitting of the centromeres of a haploid number of unpaired chromosomes and their movement to opposite poles of the cell?

A

anaphase of meiosis II

209
Q

At what stage of prophase I do synaptonemal complexes become visible?

A

Pachytene (n)
Zygotene

210
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the alignment of a diploid number of unpaired chromosomes at the center of the cell and the attachment the kinetochore of each sister chromatid to chromosomal spindle fibers from opposite spindle poles?

A

metaphase of mitosis

211
Q

Which stage of meiosis begins with the synchronous splitting of the centromeres, which hold the sister chromatids together, allowing the chromosomes to move toward opposite poles of the cell?

A

anaphase II

212
Q

During which stage of meiosis have the chromosomes become recompacted after interkinesis? They begin to line up at the metaphase plate and if the nuclear envelope had reformed earlier, it is once again broken down.

A

prophase II

213
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the dispersion of a diploid number of chromosomes and the reformation of the nuclear envelopes and nucleoli in two daughter cells?

A

telophase of meiosis I and II (n)
telophase of mitosis and meiosis I (n)
telophase of mitosis

214
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the compaction of a haploid number of chromosomes and the disappearance of the nuclear membrane if it had reformed, while the centrioles move toward opposite poles and the spindle forms?

A

prophase of meiosis II

214
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the alignment of a haploid number of chromosomes at the center of the cell and the attachment of the kinetochore of each sister chromatid to chromosomal spindle fibers from opposite spindle poles?

A

metaphase of meiosis II

215
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the random separation of the maternal and paternal members of the homologous pairs and the movement of a haploid number of chromosome possessing two chromatids each to opposite poles of the cell?

A

anaphase of meiosis I

216
Q

Which of the following refer to specific points of covalent attachments between homologous chromosomes?

A

chiasmata

217
Q

What stage of cell division is characterized by the dispersion of a haploid number of chromosomes and the reformation of the nuclear envelopes in the four daughter cells?

A

telophase of meiosis II

218
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the alignment of a diploid number of chromosomes at the center of the cell and the attachment of those chromosomes to the spindle?

A

metaphase of mitosis and meiosis I

219
Q

Which of the following is activated by fertilization of the oocyte?

A

anaphase promoting complex

220
Q

What stage in cell division is characterized by the compaction of chromosomes and the disappearance of the nuclear membrane and the nucleolus, while the centrioles move toward opposite poles and the spindle forms?

A

prophase of mitosis and prophase of meiosis I

221
Q

Which of the following inactivates Cdks?

A

phosphorylation at a critical tyrosine residue

Cell Biology (6 decks)

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