EXAM #4: IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS Flashcards

1
Q

What types of grafts will NOT provoke an immune response?

A

1) Autografts (self)

2) Isografts (identical twins)

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2
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Transplant between two non genetically identical individuals

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3
Q

What are the two hallmark Calicneurin inhibitors used as immunosuppressants?

A

Cyclosporine

Tarcolimus

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4
Q

What are the anti-proliferative/ anti-metabolic immunosuppressants?

A

Azathioprine
Mycophenolate mofetil
Sirolimus

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5
Q

What are the “biological” immunosuppressants?

A

Antithymocyte globulin
Muromonab-CD3
Anti-TNF-a

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6
Q

What are the two adverse effects associated with immunsuppressants as a drug class?

A

1) Infection

2) Malignancy

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7
Q

What are the “genomic” effects of glucocorticoids i.e. MOA related to the genome?

A

1) Bind cytosolic receptor
2) Translocate to nucleus
3) Alter gene expression to decrease pro-inflammatory cytokines

Can also alter transcription factors to decrease production of proinflammatory cytokines

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8
Q

What are the “non-genomic” effects of glucocorticoids?

A

1) Alter signaling pathways

2) Insertion into cell membrane to alter ion transport

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9
Q

What are the effects of glucocorticoid administration?

A

1) Decreased peripheral lymphocytes
2) Decreased pro-inflammatory cytokines
3) Inhibition IL-2
4) Reduced neutrophil chemotaxis

*Little effect on humoral immunity

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10
Q

What are the pro-inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-a
IFN-gamma

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11
Q

What is the function of IL-2?

A

T-cell proliferation

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12
Q

What are the indications for glucocorticoid administration?

A

1) Prevent transplant rejection
2) GVHD
3) Autoimmune disease
4) Prevention of initial “cytokine storm” with biological immunosuppressants

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13
Q

What adverse effects are seen with glucocorticoids?

A

1) Growth retardation
2) Poor wound healing
3) HTN
4) AVN
5) Cataracts
6) Hyperglycemia
7) Adrenal crisis upon discontinuation

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14
Q

What is low dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

Less than 7.5 mg prednisone/ predisoe equivalent per day

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15
Q

What is medium dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

7.5mg- 30mg prednisone/ prednisoe equivalent per day

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16
Q

What is high dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

30-100mg prednisone/ prednisoe equivalent per day

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17
Q

What is very high dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

Greater than 100mg prednisone/ prednisoe equivalent per day

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18
Q

What is pulse glucocorticoid therapy?

A

Greater than 250mg for a day, or a few days prednisone/ prednisoe equivalent per day

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19
Q

What class of drug is Cyclosporine?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

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20
Q

What immunity is inhibited by Cyclosporine?

A

T-cell mediated immunity especially involved in:

1) Transplant rejection (kidney)
2) Autoimmunity

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21
Q

What is the MOA of cyclosporine?

A

1) Complexes with CYCLOPHILIN in cytoplasm
2) Complex with CALCINEURIN
3) Complex prevents dephosphorylation of NFAT
4) NFAT cannot translocate to nucleus
5) NO IL-2, the T-cell growth factor

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22
Q

What are the clinical indications for Cyclosporine?

A

1) Prophylaxis for transplantation

2) GVHD

23
Q

What is the major toxicity associated with Cyclosporine?

A

Nephrotoxicity
Neurtoxicity
Skin cancer
Hirsutism

24
Q

What is the interaction between Grapefruit and Cyclosporine?

A
  • Grapefruit juice inhibits cytochrome p450

- Increases blood concentrations of Cyclosporine increasing toxicity

25
What type of drug is Tacrolimus?
Calcineurin inhibitor (like Cyclosporin)
26
What is the MOA of Tacrolimus?
1) Complexes with CYCLOPHILIN in cytoplasm 2) Complex with CALCINEURIN 3) Complex prevents dephosphorylation of NFAT (transcription factor in nucleus) 4) NFAT cannot translocate to nucleus 5) NO IL-2, the T-cell growth factor
27
How does Tacrolimus differ from Cyclosporine?
Easier to measure blood levels with Tacrolimus
28
What is the major clinical indication for Tacrolimus?
Prophylaxis for transplant rejection
29
What class of drug is Azathioprine?
Purine antimetabolite
30
What is the MOA of Azathioprine?
1) Metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine 2) 6-MP is metabolized further 3) Metabolites incorporate into DNA and block de novo purine synthesis
31
What is unique about lymphocytes that makes Azathioprine specific?
Lymphocytes don't have a pruine salvage pathway *Thus, blocking de novo kills lymphocytes
32
What are the clinical indications for Azathioprine?
1) Prevent transplant rejection 2) Severe RA 3) Glucocorticoid resistant autoimmune disease
33
What are the adverse effects associated with Azathioprine?
1) Myelosuppression--monitor with CBC | 2) Hepatotoxicity--monitor with liver enzymes
34
What type of drug is Mcyphenolate Mofetil?
Purine antimetabolite
35
What is the MOA of Mycophenolate Mofetil?
1) Prodrug 2) Metabolized to MPA (active) 3) Inhibits IMP required for de novo synthesis of pruine *Results in killing lymphocytes
36
What are the clinical indications for Mycophenolate Mofetil?
1) Prophylaxis for transplant rejection 2) SLE *Commonly given with glucocortiocoid and calcineurin inhibitor
37
What adverse effects of Mycophenolate Mofetil?
1) Myelosuppression 2) GI upset 3) CMV infections 4) TERATOGENIC
38
What class of drug is Sirolimus?
Antimetabolite
39
What is the MOA of Sirolimus?
mTOR inhibitor
40
What are the clinical indications for Sirolimus?
1) Transplant prophylaxis | 2) Renal transplant that can't tolerate nephrotoxicity of other drugs
41
What class of drug is Antithymocyte Globulin?
Biological
42
What is the MOA of Antithymocyte Globulin?
1) Binds T-cell CD markers 2) Depletes circulating T-cells via: - Complement activation - Inhibition of T-cell activation
43
What are the clinical indications for Antithymocyte Globulin?
1) Induction immunosuppression | 2) Treatment of acute transplant rejection
44
What adverse reaction is highly associated with Antithymocyte Globulin?
1) Cytokine storm (treated with glucocorticoids) | 2) Serum sickness
45
What class of drug is Muromonab-CD3?
Biological
46
What is the MOA of Muromonab-CD3?
Anti-CD3 antibody (T-cell CD marker) 1) Initiates complement mediated lyisis 2) Prevention T-cell activation
47
What are the clinical indications for Muromonab-CD3?
Reverse glucocorticoid-resistant organ transplant
48
What is a drawback to Muromonab-CD3?
Mouse-antibody; body will generate antibodies generated against Muromonab-CD3 *Can only be used once*
49
What complications are associated with Muromonab-CD3?
1) Cytokine storm with administration | 2) Potentially fatal adverse reactions including anaphylaxis
50
What are the three anti-TNF-a biologicals?
1) Infliximab 2) Adalimumab 3) Etanercept
51
What is Infliximab?
Part mouse and part human anti-TNF-a antibody
52
What is Adalimumab?
Recombinant IgG1 anti-TNF-a antibody
53
What is Entercept?
TNF-a receptor fused to Fc IgG1
54
How are the anti-TNF-a biologicals clinically used?
Autoimmune diseases