EXAM #3: REVIEW Flashcards
1
Q
What sedative drug classes are “selective” CNS depressants?
A
1) Barbiturates
2) Benzodiazepines
3) Ethanol
2
Q
Outline the progression of dose-dependent effects seen with the sedative hypnotics.
A
1) Sedation
2) Sleepiness
3) Anesthesia
4) Coma
5) Respiratory depression/ death
3
Q
List the six clinical indications for the sedative hypnotics.
A
1) Anxiety
2) Insomnia
3) Amnesia-induction
4) Seizures
5) Ethanol withdrawal
6) Muscle relaxation
4
Q
What are the two suffixes associated with the Benzodiazepines?
A
- “zepam”
- “zolam”
5
Q
What are the two benzodiazepines that undergo metabolism to weakly active, short lived metabolites with intermediate duration of action?
A
- Alprazolam
- Triazolam
6
Q
What effects are associated with Alpha-1 GABA receptor agnoism?
A
1) Sedation
2) Anticonvulsant
3) Anterograde amnesia
7
Q
What effect is associated with Alpha 2,3, and 5 GABA receptor agonism?
A
Anxiolysis
8
Q
What are the five adverse effects associated with benzodiazepines?
A
1) Respiratory depression
2) Anterograde amnesia
3) Tolerance
4) Dependence
5) Withdrawal
9
Q
What drug classes will cause additive CNS depression when combined with benzodiazepines?
A
1) Ethanol
2) Opoids
3) Anticonvulsants
4) Phenothiazine
5) Antihistamines
6) TCAs
10
Q
List the four indications for Barbiturates.
A
1) Anticonvulsant
2) Sedative-hypnotic
3) Anesthesia
4) Medically induced coma
11
Q
List the three common side effects of the MAOIs.
A
- Orthostatic hypotension
- Weight gain
- Sexual dysfunction
12
Q
What are TCAs first line therapeutic agents for?
A
Chronic pain
13
Q
What are TCAs second line therapeutic agents for?
A
Major depression
14
Q
What TCA is used to treat neuropathic pain?
A
Desipramine
15
Q
What TCA has the most sedative effects?
A
Amitriptytline
16
Q
What is the MAJOR side effect to remember as being associated with the TCAs?
A
Cardiac toxicity i.e. induction of lethal cardiac arrhythmias
17
Q
What are all of the side effects of the TCAs?
A
1) Cardiac toxicity
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Delirium in the elderly
4) Sexual dysfunction
18
Q
What is important to remember about the safety of SSRIs compared to other antidepressants?
A
SSRIs are much safer than MAOIs or TCAs
19
Q
What symptoms compose the triad of Serotonin Syndrome?
A
1) AMS
2) Autonomic hyperactivity
3) Neuromuscular abnormalities
20
Q
What is the MOA of Venlafaxine?
A
SNRI
21
Q
What receptor does Venlafaxine have its major effect on? Minor?
A
Major= SERT Minor= NET
22
Q
What is the clinical indication for Venlafaxine?
A
Severe Depression
23
Q
What is the MOA of Duloxetine?
A
SNRI with balance SERT and NET inhibition
24
Q
What is the primary clinical indication for Duloxetine?
A
Chronic pain (increasingly prescribed over the TCAs i.e. Desipramine)
25
What is the MOA of Trazadone?
Antihistamine (H1 antagonist)
26
What is the primary clinical indication for Trazadone?
Depression + insomnia (unlabeled)
27
What is the MOA of Buproprion?
1) NE/ DA reuptake inhibitors
| 2) Increases catecholamine release
28
What are the clinical indications for Bupropion?
1) Major depression
| 2) Smoking cessation
29
What drug class does Mirtazapine fall under?
TCA
30
What is the MOA of Mirtazapine?
1) TCA (SERT and NET inhibitor)
2) Alpha-2 antagonist
3) Antihistamine (H1)
4) 5-HT2/3 antagonist
31
List the three antidepressants that are potent CYP2D6 inhibitors.
- Paroxetine
- Fluoxetine
- Fluvoxamine
32
What two anticonvulsants are prescribed for Bipolar Disorder?
1) Valproate
| 2) Carbamazepine
33
What is the MOA of Lithium?
Decreases the post-synaptic response to NE and 5-HT by:
- Decreasing cAMP
- Decreasing IP3
34
What are the four major side effects associated with Lithium?
1) Tremors
2) Hypothyroid
3) Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
4) Skin reactions
35
What is the most common type of partial seizures?
Complex partial
36
What is an absence of Petit Mal seizure?
A seizure that is characterized by:
- Brief LOC
- Some motor signs/ automatisms
*More common in children
37
What are the three molecular events underlying EPSPs?
1) Na+ influx
2) Ca++ influx
3) Paroxysmal Depolarization
38
What drugs are best for treating absence/ petite mal seziures?
Ethosiximide
| Valproate
39
What drugs are best for treating myoclonic seizures?
Clonazepam
| Valproate
40
What drugs are best for treating Status Epilepticus?
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Phenytoin
Fos-phenytoin
41
List the adverse effects associated with anticonvulsant agents.
1) Sedation
2) Diplopia
3) Nystagmus
4) Ataxia
5) GI disturbances
42
What two things do you need to remember about anticonvulsant therapy in women?
1) Anticonvulsants decrease the efficacy of oral contraceptives
2) Anticonvulsants are teratogenic
43
What are the three elements of the Phenytoin MOA?
1) Na+ channel blocker
2) Enhanced GABA release
3) Decreased Glutamate release
*Generally prevents seizure propagation*
44
What are the clinical indications for Phenytoin?
1) Gran mal seizures
2) Partial seizures
3) Status epilepticus
45
What is the MOA of Carbamazepine in regards to its anticonvulsant effects? What drug class does Carbamazepine fall into?
Carbamazepine is TCA that also:
| - Blocks Na+ channels --anticonvulsant
46
What is Oxcarbazepine?
Carbamazepine analog that has fewer side effects
47
List the clinical indications for Carbamazepine.
1) General (tonic-clonic) seizures
2) Partial seizures
3) Manic phase of bipolar phase (acute)
AND
4) TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA
48
What unique side effect is associated with Carbamazepine?
SIADH
49
What are the clinical indications for phenobarital?
1) Neonatal seizures
2) Seizures in pregnancy
3) Status epilepticus
50
What is the unique side effect associated with Valproate?
Hepatotoxicicty
51
What is the MOA of Lamotrigine?
Na+ and Ca++ channel antagonist
52
What is the MOA of Felbamate?
Na+ and Glutamate receptor antagnoist
53
What are the adverse effects associated with Felbamate?
1) Aplastic anemia
| 2) Liver failure
54
What is the MOA of Tiagabine?
Inhibits GABA uptake
55
What is the difference between GABA-A and GABA-B receptors?
GABA-A= Cl- ion channel
GABA-B= GPCR that increases K+ conductance on stimulation
56
What are the six characteristics of an ideal anesthetic?
1) Unconsciousness
2) Amnesia
3) Analgesia
4) Skeletal muscle relaxation
5) Areflexia
6) Good minute-to-minute control
57
What are the four phases of anesthesia?
1) Induction
2) Maintenance
3) Emergence
4) Recovery
58
What are the stages of anesthesia?
1) Analgesia
2) Excitement
3) Surgical anesthesia
4) Medullary depression
59
What are the three general mechanisms of action of general anesthetics?
1) Increased GABA-A activity
2) Activation of K+ channels
3) Inhibition of NMDA receptors
60
What clinical scenario will cause a decreased MAC value?
Presence of CNS depressants
61
What are the three major drawbacks to NO?
1) Lack of potency (110% MAC value)
2) Diffusion hypoxia
3) Increased risk of spontaneous abortion
62
List the halogenated anesthetic agents.
1) Halothane
2) Enflurane
3) Isoflurane
4) Desflurane
63
What major adverse effect is associated with Halothane?
Hepatitis
64
What major side effect is associated with Enflurane?
CNS stimulant effects
65
What drug class does Thiopental fall into?
Barbiturate (used for anesthesia induction)
66
What is the MOA of Ketamine?
NMDA antagonist
67
What type of local anesthetic, protonated (LAH) or non protonated (LA) is more lipophilic? Which binds the internal portion of Na+ channels with higher affinity?
```
LA= more lipophilic
LAH+= binds Na+ channels with higher affinity (internally)
```
68
Which type of LA has a longer half-life, amides or ester?
Amides have a longer half-life
69
Which type of LA is metabolized in the liver? Blood?
- AmIdes-- with 2x i's--are metabolized in the lIver
| - Esters-- with 1x i-- are metabolized in the blood
70
What is the Cm?
Minimum anesthetic concentration for standard block in 50% of the population
71
List the amide type LAs.
Lidocaine
Bupivicaine
Ropivacaine
Articaine
72
List the ester type LAs.
```
Cocaine
Procaine
Tetracaine
Benzocaine
Chloroprocaine
```
73
What is the clinical utility of Benzocaine?
This is an ester-LA that has enhanced lipid solubility--it can be used topically
74
What is the clinical utility of Chloroprocaine?
This is an ester-LA that is used as an epidural agent in labor b/c:
- Low risk of systemic toxicity
- Low risk of fetal exposure
75
What is Exparel-Liposome? What is it used for?
- Encased Bupivacaine (amide LA) w/ extended half-life
| - Provides up to 72 hours of post-op pain relief
76
What are the four clinical indications for antipsychotic medications?
1) Schizophrenia
2) Psychotic behavior
3) Severe mania
4) Antiemetic
77
List the typical antipsychotics.
Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine
Fluphenazine
Haloperiodol
78
List the atypical antipsychotics.
```
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Risperiodone
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine
Zisprasidone
```
79
What is the difference between the metabolism of the typical and atypical antipsychotics?
Typical= metabolism into an INACTIVE metabolite
Atypical= metabolism into an ACTIVE metabolite
80
What receptor/s is primarily antagonized by typical antipsychotics? Atypical?
Typical= D2
| Atypical D2 + 5-HT2A
81
What antipsychotic is associated with high 5-HT2A affinity?
Clozapine
82
List the subtypes of extrapyramidal symptoms.
1) PD-like Syndrome
2) Akathesia
3) Dystonia
4) Tardive Dyskinesia
83
List the four most common reasons that patients will stop taking antipsychotics.
1) Lack of efficacy
2) Cannot tolerate side effects in general
3) Weight gain
4) Sexual dysfunction
84
List the five hallmark cognitive symptoms of AD.
1) Loss of short-term memory
2) Disorientation
3) The A's
- Aphasia
- Apraxia
- Agnosia
85
Describe the pathologic changes that underly the development of the AD phenotype specifically in regards to Beta-amyloid.
1) ABPP or Amyloid Precursor Protein is cleaved into Beta-Amyloid
2) There is an IMBALANCE between Beta-Amyloid production and clearance
3) Beta-amyloid accumulates and is TOXIC to neurons
86
What is the function of "Presenilin?"
Presenilin cleaves Amyloid Precursor Protein
87
What are the consequences of neurofibrillary tangles in AD?
1) Microtubular disintegration and instability
2) Collapse of the neuronal transport system
3) Altered neurotransmitter release
4) Cell death
88
List the four drugs that are used as first line agents in AD. What drug class do they belong to?
Cholinesterase inhibitors:
1) Tacrine
2) Donepezil
3) Rivastigmine
4) Galantamine
89
What adverse effect of Tacrine limits its clinical use today?
Hepatotoxicity
*Also has a v. short half-life and had to be dosed 4x per day
90
Which first line agent for AD can be given as a transdermal patch? What are the clinical implications?
Rivastigmine can be given transdermally
| - Limits the adverse GI disturbances
91
What is the MOA of Memantine?
Non-competitive NMDA antagonist
92
What class of antidepressants are contraindicated in the treatment of depression in AD patients?
TCAs--alpha-1 effects have an increased risk for orthostatic hypotension and falls
93
What are the four cardinal symptoms of PD?
1) Bradykinesia
2) Muscular rigidity
3) Resting tremor
4) Postural instability
94
What are the adverse effects associated with L-DOPA administration in PD?
1) Dyskinesia
2) Response fluctuations
3) Postural hypotension/tachycardia
4) Behavioral disturbance
5) GI disturbances
95
What is the drug interaction between L-DOPA and the antipsychotics?
- L-DOPA is aiming to increase DA concentrations
- Antipsychotics are D2 ANTAGONISTS
Thus, the drugs counteract each other.
96
List three DA receptors agonists that are used to treat PD.
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
Apomorphine
97
List the two MAO-B receptor antagonists used to treat PD.
Rasagiline
| Selegiline
98
List the two COMT inhibitors used to treat PD.
Entacapone
| Tolcapone
99
What is the MOA of Amantadine to treat PD?
Increased DA release
100
What adverse effect is associated with Amantadine?
Livedo Reticularis
101
List the two anticholinergic agents used to treat PD.
Benztropine
| Trihexyphenidyl
102
Name the three endogenous opioids.
Endorphins
Enkephalins
Dynorphins
103
What is the difference between Mu1 and Mu2 receptors?
```
Mu1= outside the CNS
Mu2= inside the CNS
```
104
How does agonism of Mu opioid receptors produce analgeisa?
1) Mu opioid receptors are GPRCs coupled to Gi subunits
2) Activation causes decreased adenylyl cyclase
3) Decreased adenylyl cyclase causes decreased cAMP
The final result is LESS intracellular Ca++ and increased K+ conductance i.e. INHIBITION
105
List five clinical indications for opioids.
1) Analgesia
2) Anesthesia
3) Anti-tussive
4) Anti-diarrheal
5) Acute pulmonary edema
106
What class of drugs are contraindicated with opioids?
MAOIs
107
List the "strong" opioids.
```
Morphine
Hydromorphone
Oxymorphone
Methadone
Fentanyl
Sufentanil
Meperidine
Heroin
```
108
List the mixed opioid agonist-antagonists.
Bupreneorphine
Butorphanol
Nalbuphine
Pentazocine
109
List the "other" opoid agonists.
Dextromethorphan
Diphenoxylate
Loperamide
Tramadol
110
What effects will CNS stimulants produce?
1) Alterness
2) Productivity and motivation
3) Arousal
4) Euphoria
5) Nervousness and anxiety
111
What is Methylxanthine?
- CNS/ Respiratory stimulant
| - Derivative of xanthine
112
What are the clinical indications for Theophylline?
- COPD
- Asthma
*Note that this drug has bronchodilator properties*
113
List the sympathomimetic amide stimulants.
1) Amphetamine analogs including:
- Methamphetamine
- Dexamphetamine
- Methylphenidate
2) Cocaine
3) Modafinil
4) Atomoxetine
114
How are the amide psychomotor stimulants metabolized?
1) MAO
| 2) CYP p450
115
What classes of drugs will have adverse interactions with CNS stimulants?
MAOIs
| SSRIs
116
List the CNS related side effects seen with the psychomotor stimulants.
```
Euphoria
Dysphoria
Insomnia
Irritability
Tremor
Headache
Anorexia
```
117
List the stimulant drugs that are used to treat ADHD.
Methylphenidate
Amphetamine salts (adderall)
Dextroamphetamine
118
List the non-stimulant drugs that can be prescribed for ADHD.
1) Atomoxetine
2) Clonidine
3) Modafininl
4) Antidepressants
- TCAs
- MAOIs
- Bupropion
119
List the psychological manifestations of drug withdrawal.
- Dysphoria
- Depression
- Anxiety
- Craving
- Psychosis
120
What are the three drugs "targets" of the VTA?
1) Gi GPCRs that inhibit GABA
2) Inonotropic DA receptors
3) DA uptake transporter
121
What drugs act on ionotropic DA receptors in the VTA?
1) Benzodiazepines
2) Nicotine
3) Alcohol
122
What is the MOA of GHB?
Disinhibition of GABA-B receptors in the VTA
123
What are the side effects associated with Methamphetamine use?
Methamphetamine is sympathomimetic, thus:
- Mydriasis
- Tachycardia
- Hypertension
124
What is the MOA of MDMA?
1) SERT Antagonism
| 2) Increases the release of 5-HT
125
Wha toxicity is associated with MDMA?
Acute hyperthermia and dehydration
126
List the Psychedelcis.
1) LSD
2) Psilocybin
3) Ketamine
4) Phecyclidine
127
What is the MOA of LSD and Psilocybin?
- Increase glutamate release
| - 5-HT2A agonist
128
What is the MOA of Ketamine and PCP?
NMDA antagonists
129
What is the RR of opioid addiction?
4
130
List the four most commonly abused opioids.
1) Codeine
2) Heroin
3) Morphine
4) Oxycodone
131
What is the MOA of euphoria seen in opioid use?
1) Activation of Mu opioid receptors
2) Inhibition of GABAnergic neurons in the VTA
Result in disinhibition of VTA DA neurons
132
What is the MOA of THC?
Blocks GABA-A receptors on DA neurons in the VTA
