EXAM #2: ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three major cell cycle checkpoints?

A

G1/S
G2/M
Metaphase/Anaphase

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2
Q

What are the specific criteria necessary to proceed through the G1/S checkpoint?

A

1) Cell nutrition, size, and environment must be favorable for replication
2) DNA must be intact

This check ensures the cell is prepared for DNA replication and to enter S-phase.

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3
Q

What are the specific criteria necessary to proceed through the G2/M checkpoint?

A

DNA must be completely replicated

This is the checkpoint that ensures the cell is ready to enter mitosis.

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4
Q

What are the specific criteria necessary to proceed through the metaphase/anaphase checkpoint?

A

1) DNA intact must be intact
2) Chromosomes must be attached to the mitotic spindle

This check ensure that the cell is ready for chromatid separation and is prepared for cytokinesis.

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5
Q

What are the three mechanisms of oncogene formation?

A

First, an oncogene is a mutated form of a normal gene that supported cellular proliferation i.e. “proto-oncogenes”

1) Point mutations
2) Chromosomal translocation
3) Proto-oncogene duplication/ amplification

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6
Q

How can point mutations lead to the development of an oncogene?

A
  • Change in an amino acid regulatory region in the proto-oncogene product
  • Amino acid change that makes the proto-oncogene resistant to degradation
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7
Q

How do chromosomal translocations result in oncogenes? Give an example.

A

Chromosomal translocation that causes the fusion of two genes, the product of which is the “fusion gene”

E.g. “Philadelphia” chromosome (9 x 22) ABL and BCR in CML

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8
Q

What is a major oncogene that is found in roughly 30% of all cancers?

A

Ras

Ras in involved in cell signaling/ GPCR signaling; mutations leave Ras permanently turned on.

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9
Q

Define first order killing of cancer cells i.e. what is the cell kill hypothesis?

A

This is the chemotheraputic elimination of a FIXED percentage of cancer cells.

This is first order kinetics*

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10
Q

What are the four goals of cancer drug therapy?

A

1) Curative intent
2) Adjuvant therapy
3) Neoadjuvant therapy
4) Palliation

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11
Q

List the general characteristics of chemotheraputic drug therapy.

A
  • Drugs are cytotoxic and only PARTIALLY selective
  • Low TI

Thus, adverse effects are common.

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12
Q

What are the general mechanisms of resistance to chemotherapeutic agents?

A

1) Genetic instability
2) Drug efflux pumps/ mutated drug transporters
3) DNA damage repair
4) Cell death inhibition
5) Drug inactivation
- Up-regulation of enzymes that metabolize drugs
6) Drug target alteration
7) Epithelial-Mesenchymal Transition

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13
Q

What types of tumors are easiest to treat with chemotherapy?

A

Tumors that are RAPIDLY growing

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14
Q

Define curative intent.

A

Drug therapy is intended to CURE the disease

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15
Q

Define adjuvant therapy.

A
  • Drug given AFTER primary treatment e.g. surgery

- Prevent recurrence

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16
Q

Define neoadjuvant therapy.

A

Drug given FIRST to SHRINK tumor, making it amenable to surgery

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17
Q

Define palliative therapy.

A

Therapy intended to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life.

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18
Q

Do most cancers follow the cell-kill hypothesis? Why or why not?

A

NO

B/c of the cytotoxicity of chemotherapeutic, it is not possible to dose patients in a manner necessary to achieve 1st order kill.

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19
Q

What is a drug efflux pump?

A

A cellular transporter than “pumps” drugs out

E.g. MDR-2

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20
Q

What is Epithelial- Mesenchymal Transition (EMT)?

A
  • Cell loses adhesive properties and becomes motile

- Changes can also cause drug resistance

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21
Q

What are the three general cytotoxic mechanisms to kill cancer cells?

A

1) Perturb normal DNA replication
2) Perturb mitosis
3) Starve cells of amino acids

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22
Q

What are the three targeted mechanisms to kill cancer cells?

A

1) Perturb hormone and growth factor signaling
2) Inhibit blood supply to tumor e.g. VEGF
3) Target activating proteins

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23
Q

What are cell-cycle non-specific drugs?

A

DNA alkylating agents that kill cells in ANY stage

Preferentially kill replicating cells

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24
Q

What are the S-phase specific drugs?

A

DNA synthesis inhibitors

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25
What is the mechanism of action of the "antimetabolites?"
Inhibiting de novo nucleotide biosynthesis and generally target cells in S-phase
26
What is the function of ribonucleotide reductase?
Turning ribonucleotides into deoxyribnucleotides
27
What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
- Anti-metabolite that targets s-phase - Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase i.e. the enyzme that makes THF from dihydrofolate - THF is crucial in the action of thymidylate synthetase (dUMP-->dTMP), which is required for DNA synthesis *****Essentially, inhibiting DNA synthesis by preventing the action of folate*****
28
Why can extremely high does of Methotrexate be administered to pateints?
Leucovorin rescue (folinic acid) Leucovorin is a reduced form of folic acid. Administration within the proper window can allow for nearly fatal doses of methotrexate do be administered (hopefully targeting cancerous/ rapidly dividing cell), followed by Leucovorin rescue to prevent harmful toxic effects of such a high dose to normal tissue.
29
What are the mechanisms of Methotrexate resistance?
1) Impaired transport 2) Altered DHFR (isozyme) that decrease the affinity of methotrexate's target 3) Elevated DHFR expression DHFR= dihydrofolate reductase
30
What are the unique toxicities seen with Methotrexate?
- Interstitial pneumonitis | - Nephrotoxicity
31
What is the mechanism of action of 5-fluorouracil?
- Pyrimidine analog - Anti-metabolite that targets s-phase - 5-FU is metabolized: 1) 5dUMP, which INHIBITS THYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE and prevents DNA synthesis 2) FUTP that is falsely incorporated into RNA 3) FdUTP that is falsely incorporated into DNA *****False incorporation causes defects in RNA/DNA function and sturucture leading to cell death.******
32
What are the unique adverse effects seen with 5-FU administration?
Oral and GI ulcers
33
What is Capecitabine?
- Antimetabolite - Targets S-phase This Prodrug of 5-FU that can be given orally; same mechanism of action as 5-FU (inhibition of thymidylate synthase etc.
34
What is Cytarabine used to treat?
This is the most important antimetabolite for AML ****It is only used to treat HEMATOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES*****
35
What is the mechanism of action of Cytarabine?
- Pyrimidine analog/ anti-metabolite - Targets cells in S-phase 1) Cytarabine or Ara-C is transported into the cell and converted to Ara-CMP by DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE 2) Ara-CMP is converted to Ara-dCTP 3) Ara-dCTP is incorporated into DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis
36
What is the specific toxicity that is associated with Cytarabine?
Cerebellar Syndrome *****Note that inactivation of Ara-C required CYTIDINE DEAMINASE; there are low levels of this enzyme in the brain, making brain more susceptible to adverse effects of drug.
37
What are the symptoms of Cerebellar Syndrome?
1) Dysarthria 2) Nystagumus 3) Ataxia
38
What are the major mechanisms of cytarabine resistance?
1) Loss of DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE 2) Inability of tumor cells to transport Ara-C into cells 3) Cytidine demainase upregulation
39
What is the mechanism of action of Gemcitabine?
- Pyrimidine analog/ anti-metabolite that targets S-phase 1) Converted to active form by DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE, like Cytarabine 1) Incorporated into DNA--inhibits DNA synthesis 3) Inhibits RIBONUCLEOTIDE REDUCTASE, which also inhibits DNA synthesis
40
What are the mechanisms of Gemcitabine resistance?
1) Reduced activity of DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE | 2) Increased production of deoxycytidine b/c of inhibitive effect on deoxycytidine kinase
41
What is the mechanism of action of 6-MP and 6-TG?
- Purine analogs/ antimetabolites that inhibit s-phase of the cell cycle 1) Activated by HGPRT into thio-IMP and thio-GMP respectively 2) thio-IMP converted into thio-GMP 3) thio-GMP blocks BOTH SALVAGE and DE NOVO purine synthesis i.e. inhibits DNA replication
42
What is the common mechanism of resistance in 6-MP and 6-TG?
Decreased HGPRT activity
43
What enzymes inactivates 6-MP? Why is this important?
Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) *****Polymorphism causes reduced TPMT activity that can lead to life-threatening toxicity and need for lower doses*****
44
What is the mechanism of action of Fludarabine?
- Purine analog/ antimetabolite that targets cells in s-phase 1) Activated by DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE and incorporated into DNA and RNA 2) Inhibits RIBONUCLEOTIDE REDUCTASE and DNA POLYMERASE 3 Inhibits RNA function and mRNA translation
45
What is the common mechanism of Fludarabine resistance?
Decreased of DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE
46
What is the mechanism of action of Cladribine?
- Purine analog/ antimetabolite that targets cells in s-phase 1) Activated by DEOXYCYTIDINE KINASE and incorporated into DNA 2) Causes DNA strand breaks 3) Inhibitor of RIBONUCLEOTIDE REDUCTASE
47
List the alkylating agents.
Nitrogen mustards - Mechlorethamine - Cyclophosphamide Nitrosureas - Carmustine (BCNU)
48
What is the general mechanism of action of the alkylating agents? What phase of the cell cycle do they target?
- Alkylation of the N7 position on guanine to cause DNA cross-linking and strand breakage - Cytotoxic to the WHOLE cell cycle
49
What is the mechanism of action of Cyclophosmphamine?
- Prodrug that is metabolized to active form - Alkylating agent *****Note that the active drug can be converted to another drug, "Acrolein" which is specifically cytotoxic to the bladder*****
50
What are the specific toxicities associated with Cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis Recall, it is a prodrug that is converted to an active form; active form is converted to ACROLEIN, which is specifically toxic to the bladder.
51
What drug can be administered with Cyclophosphamine to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis?
Mensa *****This drug INACTIVATES ACROLEIN*****
52
What is Carmustine (BCNU) commonly used to treat? Why?
- Alkylating agent - Used to treat BRAIN TUMORS b/c it is highly lipophilic ****Often included in wafers that are placed post-op*****
53
List the general adverse effects of alkylating agents.
1) Mutagenic, teratogenic, myelosuppressive 2) Dose-limiting factor is bone marrow suppression and damage to intestinal mucosa 3) Cause Leukemia 4) Strong vesicant/ blistering properties
54
What are the mechanisms of resistance to the alkylating agents?
- Inactivation by GLUTATHIONE/ increased production of - Reduced uptake - Accelerated DNA repair/ double strand break repair - Increased expression of MGMT, which removes alkyl groups from guanine before cross-links form
55
What is the function of MGMT?
Prevention of DNA damage by removing alkly groups from guanine i.e. prevents drugs from "alkylating"
56
List the non-classical alkylating agents.
Platinum compounds - Cisplatin - Carboplatin - Oxaliplatin
57
What is the mechanism of action of the platinum compounds?
- Generally, these drugs cause DNA cross-linking WITHOUT actually alkylating DNA - Active throughout the whole cell cycle Note that these compounds are actively transported into the cell via the Cu++ transporter
58
What are the side effects that are specific to Cisplatin?
- Neurotoxicity i.e. peripheral motor and sensory neuropathy - Nephrotoxicity - Anaphylaxis
59
What are the side effects that are specific to Carboplatin?
Less nausea, neuropathy and nephrotoxicity, but can induce anaphylaxis like Cisplatin
60
How is the nephrotoxicity of Cisplatin decreased?
Coadministration of IV saline
61
What is Procarbazine used to treat?
This is a non-classical alkylating agent used to treat Hodgkin's Disease
62
What is Dacarbazine used to treat?
This is a non-classical alkylating agent used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma, melanoma, and sarcoma
63
What is Temozolamide used to treat?
This is a non-classical alkylating agent used to treat Glioblastomas and metastatic melanoma
64
Describe microtubule dynamic instability.
- Equilibrium between forming and falling apart | - MTs need to be able to do BOTH function normally
65
List the antimicrotubule agents.
Vinblastine Vincristine Paclitaxel Docetaxel
66
What is the mechanism of action of Vinblastin and Vinctistine? What cell cycle phase do they kill in?
- Vinblastine and Vincristine prevent MT polymeratiztion | - Without properly forming MTs, the mitotic spindle cannot form; thus, these compounds kill in MITOSIS
67
What is the major adverse effect of vincristine?
Neurotoxicity *****Note that this is NOT seen with Vinblastine but does have myelosuppression******
68
What is the mechanism of action of the Taxanes? What cell cycle phase do they kill in?
- Prevent MT destruction/ depolymerization | - Thus, the mitotic spindle can form in MITOSIS, but the PULLING phase is inhibited
69
What is the major adverse effect of Paclitaxel?
1) Peripheral neuropathy 2) Mylosuppression 3) Anaphylaxis in ~5% of patients
70
What drugs are commonly given with Paclitaxel?
1) Filgrastim= G-CSF to reduce myelosuppression | 2) Dexamethasone and antihistamines that prevent hypersensitivity reactions
71
What is the normal function of Topoisomersase in the cell?
- Recall that DNA is normally stored in a condensed form | - TOPOISOMERASE cuts DNA for replication, unwinds it, and repairs the cut
72
List the Topoisomerase I inhibitors.
Irinotecan | Topotecan
73
List the Topoisomerase II inhibitors.
Etoposide
74
What is the mechanism of action of Doxorubicin?
Anthracycline antibiotic - Intercalates with DNA and inhibits DNA polymerase - Inhibits topoisomerase II
75
What is the major adverse effect seen with Doxorubicin?
- Binds iron and generates ROS | - Causes irreversible CARDIOMYPOATHY
76
What can reduce the cardiotoxicity of Doxorubicin?
Dexrazoxane ****This is an iron chelator that reduces the formation of free radical formation****
77
What is the mechanism of action of Bleomycin?
This is a small peptide that binds DNA and causes single and double strand breaks
78
What phase of the cell cycle does Bleomycin target?
G2
79
What is unique about the toxicity of Bleomycin?
Cumulative, irreversible PULMONARY toxicity *****Only minimally myelosuppressive******
80
What is the clincal utility of Glucocorticoids in cancer treatment?
1) Inhibit lymphocyte proliferation 2) Reduce ICP w/ brain tumors 3) Reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy
81
What is the mechanism of action of Tamoxifen?
Partial estrogen receptor antagonist
82
What cancer is Tamoxifen used to treat?
Breast cancer
83
How is estrogen synthesized in post-menopausal women?
In post-menopausal women, AROMATASE converts testosterone into estrogen in peripheral tissues
84
What is the mechanism of action of Anastrazole? What cancer is it used to treat?
Anaztrazole is an aromatase antagonist used to treat breast cancer that is estrogen receptor positive in post-menopausal women
85
What are androgen receptor inhibitors used to treat? What is the mechanism of action?
Prostate cancer *****These drugs prevent DHT from binding to androgen receptors, which normally drives prostate cancer growth*****
86
What are Leuprolide and goserelin?
- GnRH AGONISTS - Causes DESENSITIZATION of the GnRH receptor in the pituitary in the long-term - Decreases LH and FSH - Decreases Testosterone ****Used to treat prostate cancer*****
87
What is the mechanism of Degarelix?
GnRH ANTAGONIST used to treat prostate cancer
88
What is the mechanism of action of Trastuzumab?
Monoclonal antibody that targets HER-2 (EGFR TRK amplified in invasive breast cancer) and prevents signaling *****Used to treat HER-2+ breast cancer*****
89
What is the major toxicity associated with Trastuzumab?
Cardiotoxicity
90
What is the mechanism of Cetuximab?
Monocolonal antibody used to treat EGFR+ COLORECTAL tumors
91
What is a mechanism of Cetuximab resistance?
Activating mutations in Ras ****Thus, Ras activity is tested prior to use of this drug*****
92
What is Bevacizumb's mechanism of action?
Monoclonal antibody for VEGF i.e. prevent angiogenesis
93
What are the adverse effects assocaited with Bevacizumb?
- HTN - Increased risk of bleeding/ thrombosis - Increased risk of GI perforation - Decreased wound healing
94
What is the mechanism of action of Lapatinib?
Small molecule that inhibits EGFR and HER-2 kinase activity in THE CELL ****Used specifically with capecitabine to treat HER-2+, Trastuzumab refractory breast cancer*****
95
What is the mechanism of action of Erlotinib?
Small molecule EGFR inhibitor as a first line treatment for NON-SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA
96
What is Imatinib used to treat?
CML caused by Philadelphia chromsome translocation
97
What is Imatinib's mechanism of action?
Small molecular inhibitor BCR-ABL constitutively active Tyrosine Kinase
98
What are the mechanisms of resistance to Imatinib?
Point mutations in BCR-ABL that causes reduced drug affinity
99
What is the mechanism of action of Asparaginase?
- This is an enzyme used to treat childhood ALL - Hydrolyzes plasma L-asparagine into L-aspartate *****Tumor cells cannot synthesize enough L-asparagine, but normal cells can; thus, this drug starves the tumor of essential nutrients*****
100
What is the unique toxicity assocaited with Asaparaginase?
Anaphylaxis
101
What is the mechanism of action of Bortezomib?
Proteasome inhibitor that elevates levels of p53 (important tumor suppressor) *****p53 causes apoptosis in cancer cells******
102
What is the major toxicity seen with Bortezomib?
Peripheral neuropathy
103
What is the mechansim of action of Temsirolimus?
- Inhibition of mTOR complex 1 (mTORC1) - mTORC1 is normally involved in protein translation - Thus, this drug it inhibits protein translation in rapidly dividing cells
104
What are the unique side effects of Temsirolimus?
Hyperglycemia | Hypertriglyceridemia
105
What is the resistance mechansim of Temsirolimus?
- There are two mTORs, mTORC1 and mTORC2 | - Temsirolimus inhibits mTORC1, which can cause an upregulation of mTORC2
106
Which antineoplastic agents are nephrotoxic?
Cisplastin | Methotrexate
107
Which antineoplastic agents are neurotoxic?
``` Vincristine Cytarabine Cisplastin Bortezomib Paclitaxel ```
108
Which antineoplastic agents are cardiotoxic?
Doxorubicin | Trastuzumab
109
Which antineoplastic agents cause bladder toxicity?
Cyclophosmphamide
110
Which antineoplastic agents cause hypersensitivity reactions/ anaphylaxis?
Asparaginase | Paclitaxel
111
What are 6-mercaptopurine and 6-thiguanine commonly used to treat?
These are purine analogs/ antimetabolites that inhibit s-phase; commonly used to treat AML and ALL
112
What is Fludarabine commonly used to treat?
This is a purine analog/ antimetabolite that inhibits s-phase; it is commonly used to treat CLL
113
What is Cladribine commonly used to treat?
This is a purine analog/ antimetabolite that inhibits s-phase; it is commonly used to treat Hairy Cell Leukemia