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Internal Med > Exam 4 Assignments/Quizzes > Flashcards

Exam 4 Assignments/Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Skin is the largest body organ, constituting ________ of the body weight.
A) 5% to 10%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 25% to 30%
D) 35% to 40%

A

B) 15% to 20%

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2
Q

What is the primary function of fibroblasts in the dermis?
A) Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing
B) Synthesis of keratin
C) Perception of heat, cold, pain, itching
D) Production of apocrine sweat

A

A) Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing

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3
Q

Which of the following is true about skin lesions?
A) Ulcer and scaly skin are considered primary lesions.
B) Wheal and vesicle are considered secondary lesions.
C) Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.
D) Most birthmarks require treatment.

A

C) Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.

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4
Q

Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?
A) AST and ALT
B) Prealbumin and hematocrit
C) Albumin and bilirubin
D) TSH and ACTH

A

B) Prealbumin and hematocrit

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5
Q

Which of the following is true about aging and the integumentary system?
A) For women, excessive facial hair may occur along the upper lip and around the chin.
B) Gray hair and balding are visible indications of skin changes associated with aging.
C) With aging, blood vessels within the dermis are reduced in number, and the walls are thinned.
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about skin infection?
A) Herpes zoster is bacterial infection.
B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.
C) Cellulitis is a viral infection.
D) Warts (Verrucae) are parasitic infections.

A

B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.

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7
Q

Which of the following is true for first-degree burn?
A) Normally with little or no pain.
B) Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.
C) Large thick-walled blisters covering extensive area.
D) Superficial partial-thickness burn heals in 14-21 days.

A

B) Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.

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8
Q

You are working in an ICU and treating a 34-year-old female patient who has sustained second- and third-degree burns over her front chest, abdomen, and front left upper extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 22.5%
D) Over 36%

A

C) 22.5%

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9
Q

_____________ account for approximately 75% (43% flame or fire; 34% scalding) of all burn center admissions
A) Chemical burns
B) Electrical burns
C) Thermal burns
D) Radiation burns

A

C) Thermal burns

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10
Q

Extensive burns result in generalized body ______ in both burned and nonburned tissues and a ______ in circulating intravascular blood volume
A) inflammation; decrease
B) erythema; increase
C) edema; decrease
D) pain; increase

A

C) edema; decrease

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11
Q

_______________ is the most common and life-threatening complication of burn injuries.
A) Abscess
B) Gangrene
C) Infection
D) Hypertrophic scarring

A

C) Infection

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12
Q

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?
A) Autograft are usually cadaver skin.
B) Allografts are typically pigskin.
C) Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics.
D) Xenografts are the person’s own skin.

A

C) Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics.

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13
Q

What are the three classic determinants of burn mortality?
A) TBSA, age, and inhalation injury
B) Location, depth, and age
C) Temperature, source of energy, and duration
D) Family history, degree-burn, and sec

A

A) TBSA, age, and inhalation injury

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14
Q

Which of the following are the common medical complications of gastrointestinal system on a person with burn?
A) Paralytic ileus
B) Appendicitis​
C) Diverticulosis
D) Peptic ulcer

A

A) Paralytic ileus

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15
Q

Which of the following body parts would get pressure injuries the most easily?
A) Clavicle and sternum
B) Scapula and elbow
C) ASIS and pubic tubercles
D) Medial epicondyle and medial malleolus

A

B) Scapula and elbow

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16
Q

Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is considered ______ pressure injury.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) stage 4

A

B) stage 2

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17
Q

Which of the following patient populations may have higher risk of infection if they develop pressure injuries on the skin, because they are unable to mount a sufficient inflammatory response to start the healing?
A) Type 2 diabetes
B) Eczema
C) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D) Low back pain

A

A) Type 2 diabetes

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18
Q

Which of the following is appropriate medical management for a patient with pressure injuries?
A) Negative pressure wound therapy
B) Adequately redistribute the pressure
C) Electrical stimulation
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

19
Q

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?
A) Heterografts are usually cadaver skin
B) Biosynthetic grafts are usually pigskin
C) Homografts are a combination of collagen and synthetics
D) Autograft are the person’s own skin

A

D) Autograft are the person’s own skin

20
Q

The two primary causative factors for the development of pressure injuries are ______________________.
A) depth and duration
B) interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces
C) location and moisture
D) activity levels and levels of confidence

A

B) interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces

21
Q

Which of the following is true about the clinical manifestations of pressure injuries?
A) Proteolytic enzymes from bacteria and macrophages dissolve necrotic tissues, which can result in a foul-smelling discharge
B) Pressure injuries usually occur over bony prominence
C) Pressure injuries often manifest with a circular pattern shaped like an inverted volcano, with the greatest tissue ischemia at the apex next to the bone
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

22
Q

Which of the following are intrinsic factors most associated with pressure injury development?
A) hemoglobin, hematocrit, prealbumin, total protein, and lymphocytes
B) impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, and impaired nutritional status
C) Pressure, shear, friction, and moisture
D) All of the above

A

B) impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, and impaired nutritional status

23
Q

Which of the following is true about treatment for pressure injuries?
A) Therapeutic modalities such as ultrasound and electrical stimulation can be used
B) Eliminating or limiting associated risk factors as much as possible is the first step in preventing the occurrence of pressure injuries
C) In stage 3 pressure injuries, undamaged tissue near the wound can be rotated to cover the ulcer
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

24
Q

What is the primary function of mast cells in the dermis?
A) Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors for inflammatory responses
B) Antigen prevention
C) Production of apocrine sweat
D) Energy storage and balance

A

A) Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors for inflammatory responses

25
Q

Which of the following lab values are most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?
A) Hemoglobin and total protein
B) Calcium and Vitamin D
C) Triiodothyronine and thyroxine
D) Triglycerides and glucocorticoids

A

A) Hemoglobin and total protein

26
Q

Which of the following is true about integumentary system?
A) Hormonal abnormalities may result in excessive facial and body hair in women (androgen-related) and male pattern baldness (alopecia) in men
B) Wrinkling signifies loss of elastin fibers, weakened collagen, and decreased subcutaneous fat
C) The epidermis is one of the body’s principal suppliers of vitamin D
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

27
Q

Which of the following is true about skin infection?
A) Impetigo is bacterial infection
B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is viral infection
C) Pediculosis (Lousiness) is fungal infection
D) Ringworm (Tinea Corporis) is parasitic infection

A

A) Impetigo is bacterial infection

28
Q

Which of the following is true for partial-thickness burn?
A) Also called third-degree burn
B) Painful
C) Desquamation in 3-7 days
D) No blisters

A

B) Painful

29
Q

A 42-year old male, with a history of schizophrenia, suffered extensive burns after pouring gasoline down his pants, and lighting a match. The self-inflicted injury resulted in full-thickness burns on his bilateral lower extremities. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 27%
D) Over 30%

A

D) Over 30%

30
Q

Why do children have a higher risk of burns?
A) Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries
B) Diminished pain perceptions
C) Weakened inflammatory response
D) All of the above

A

A) Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries

31
Q

Obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss is considered _______________ pressure injury
A) stage 4
B) stage 3
C) stage 2
D) unstageable

A

D) unstageable

32
Q

For bedbound and chairbound patients with impaired ability to reposition themselves, which of the following tools can be used for risk assessment evaluating both sensation and physiologic risk of pressure injuries?
A) Lund and Browder method
B) Wallace rule of nines
C) Braden scale
D) Wagner scale

A

C) Braden scale

33
Q

Which of the following are the common medical complications in a burn-injured adult?
A) stress-induced gastric ulcer
B) Stasis dermatitis
C) herpes zoster
D) actinic keratosis

A

A) stress-induced gastric ulcer

34
Q

What is the suffix for Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

A

-pril

35
Q

What is the primary indication for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

A

antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

36
Q

What is the suffix for angiotensin-II receptor blockers?

A

-sartan

37
Q

What is the primary indication of angiotensin-II receptor blockers?

A

antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

38
Q

What is the suffix for beta blockers?

A

-olol

39
Q

What is the primary indication for beta blockers?

A

Antihypertensive, antianginal, antiarrhythmic, congestive heart failure

40
Q

What is the suffix for calcium channel blockers?

A

-ipine

41
Q

What is the primary indication for calcium channel blockers?

A

antihypertensive, antianginal

42
Q

What is the suffix for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

-statin

43
Q

What is the primary indication for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol)

Internal Med (4 decks)

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