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Internal Med > Exam 4 Assignments/Quizzes > Flashcards

Exam 4 Assignments/Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Skin is the largest body organ, constituting ________ of the body weight.
A) 5% to 10%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 25% to 30%
D) 35% to 40%

A

B) 15% to 20%

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2
Q

What is the primary function of fibroblasts in the dermis?
A) Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing
B) Synthesis of keratin
C) Perception of heat, cold, pain, itching
D) Production of apocrine sweat

A

A) Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing

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3
Q

Which of the following is true about skin lesions?
A) Ulcer and scaly skin are considered primary lesions.
B) Wheal and vesicle are considered secondary lesions.
C) Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.
D) Most birthmarks require treatment.

A

C) Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.

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4
Q

Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?
A) AST and ALT
B) Prealbumin and hematocrit
C) Albumin and bilirubin
D) TSH and ACTH

A

B) Prealbumin and hematocrit

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5
Q

Which of the following is true about aging and the integumentary system?
A) For women, excessive facial hair may occur along the upper lip and around the chin.
B) Gray hair and balding are visible indications of skin changes associated with aging.
C) With aging, blood vessels within the dermis are reduced in number, and the walls are thinned.
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about skin infection?
A) Herpes zoster is bacterial infection.
B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.
C) Cellulitis is a viral infection.
D) Warts (Verrucae) are parasitic infections.

A

B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.

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7
Q

Which of the following is true for first-degree burn?
A) Normally with little or no pain.
B) Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.
C) Large thick-walled blisters covering extensive area.
D) Superficial partial-thickness burn heals in 14-21 days.

A

B) Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.

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8
Q

You are working in an ICU and treating a 34-year-old female patient who has sustained second- and third-degree burns over her front chest, abdomen, and front left upper extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 22.5%
D) Over 36%

A

C) 22.5%

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9
Q

_____________ account for approximately 75% (43% flame or fire; 34% scalding) of all burn center admissions
A) Chemical burns
B) Electrical burns
C) Thermal burns
D) Radiation burns

A

C) Thermal burns

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10
Q

Extensive burns result in generalized body ______ in both burned and nonburned tissues and a ______ in circulating intravascular blood volume
A) inflammation; decrease
B) erythema; increase
C) edema; decrease
D) pain; increase

A

C) edema; decrease

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11
Q

_______________ is the most common and life-threatening complication of burn injuries.
A) Abscess
B) Gangrene
C) Infection
D) Hypertrophic scarring

A

C) Infection

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12
Q

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?
A) Autograft are usually cadaver skin.
B) Allografts are typically pigskin.
C) Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics.
D) Xenografts are the person’s own skin.

A

C) Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics.

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13
Q

What are the three classic determinants of burn mortality?
A) TBSA, age, and inhalation injury
B) Location, depth, and age
C) Temperature, source of energy, and duration
D) Family history, degree-burn, and sec

A

A) TBSA, age, and inhalation injury

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14
Q

Which of the following are the common medical complications of gastrointestinal system on a person with burn?
A) Paralytic ileus
B) Appendicitis​
C) Diverticulosis
D) Peptic ulcer

A

A) Paralytic ileus

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15
Q

Which of the following body parts would get pressure injuries the most easily?
A) Clavicle and sternum
B) Scapula and elbow
C) ASIS and pubic tubercles
D) Medial epicondyle and medial malleolus

A

B) Scapula and elbow

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16
Q

Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is considered ______ pressure injury.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) stage 4

A

B) stage 2

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17
Q

Which of the following patient populations may have higher risk of infection if they develop pressure injuries on the skin, because they are unable to mount a sufficient inflammatory response to start the healing?
A) Type 2 diabetes
B) Eczema
C) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D) Low back pain

A

A) Type 2 diabetes

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18
Q

Which of the following is appropriate medical management for a patient with pressure injuries?
A) Negative pressure wound therapy
B) Adequately redistribute the pressure
C) Electrical stimulation
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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19
Q

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?
A) Heterografts are usually cadaver skin
B) Biosynthetic grafts are usually pigskin
C) Homografts are a combination of collagen and synthetics
D) Autograft are the person’s own skin

A

D) Autograft are the person’s own skin

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20
Q

The two primary causative factors for the development of pressure injuries are ______________________.
A) depth and duration
B) interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces
C) location and moisture
D) activity levels and levels of confidence

A

B) interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces

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21
Q

Which of the following is true about the clinical manifestations of pressure injuries?
A) Proteolytic enzymes from bacteria and macrophages dissolve necrotic tissues, which can result in a foul-smelling discharge
B) Pressure injuries usually occur over bony prominence
C) Pressure injuries often manifest with a circular pattern shaped like an inverted volcano, with the greatest tissue ischemia at the apex next to the bone
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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22
Q

Which of the following are intrinsic factors most associated with pressure injury development?
A) hemoglobin, hematocrit, prealbumin, total protein, and lymphocytes
B) impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, and impaired nutritional status
C) Pressure, shear, friction, and moisture
D) All of the above

A

B) impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, and impaired nutritional status

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23
Q

Which of the following is true about treatment for pressure injuries?
A) Therapeutic modalities such as ultrasound and electrical stimulation can be used
B) Eliminating or limiting associated risk factors as much as possible is the first step in preventing the occurrence of pressure injuries
C) In stage 3 pressure injuries, undamaged tissue near the wound can be rotated to cover the ulcer
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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24
Q

What is the primary function of mast cells in the dermis?
A) Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors for inflammatory responses
B) Antigen prevention
C) Production of apocrine sweat
D) Energy storage and balance

A

A) Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors for inflammatory responses

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25
Q

Which of the following lab values are most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?
A) Hemoglobin and total protein
B) Calcium and Vitamin D
C) Triiodothyronine and thyroxine
D) Triglycerides and glucocorticoids

A

A) Hemoglobin and total protein

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26
Q

Which of the following is true about integumentary system?
A) Hormonal abnormalities may result in excessive facial and body hair in women (androgen-related) and male pattern baldness (alopecia) in men
B) Wrinkling signifies loss of elastin fibers, weakened collagen, and decreased subcutaneous fat
C) The epidermis is one of the body’s principal suppliers of vitamin D
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

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27
Q

Which of the following is true about skin infection?
A) Impetigo is bacterial infection
B) Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is viral infection
C) Pediculosis (Lousiness) is fungal infection
D) Ringworm (Tinea Corporis) is parasitic infection

A

A) Impetigo is bacterial infection

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28
Q

Which of the following is true for partial-thickness burn?
A) Also called third-degree burn
B) Painful
C) Desquamation in 3-7 days
D) No blisters

A

B) Painful

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29
Q

A 42-year old male, with a history of schizophrenia, suffered extensive burns after pouring gasoline down his pants, and lighting a match. The self-inflicted injury resulted in full-thickness burns on his bilateral lower extremities. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 27%
D) Over 30%

A

D) Over 30%

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30
Q

Why do children have a higher risk of burns?
A) Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries
B) Diminished pain perceptions
C) Weakened inflammatory response
D) All of the above

A

A) Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries

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31
Q

Obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss is considered _______________ pressure injury
A) stage 4
B) stage 3
C) stage 2
D) unstageable

A

D) unstageable

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32
Q

For bedbound and chairbound patients with impaired ability to reposition themselves, which of the following tools can be used for risk assessment evaluating both sensation and physiologic risk of pressure injuries?
A) Lund and Browder method
B) Wallace rule of nines
C) Braden scale
D) Wagner scale

A

C) Braden scale

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33
Q

Which of the following are the common medical complications in a burn-injured adult?
A) stress-induced gastric ulcer
B) Stasis dermatitis
C) herpes zoster
D) actinic keratosis

A

A) stress-induced gastric ulcer

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34
Q

What is the suffix for Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

A

-pril

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35
Q

What is the primary indication for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

A

antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

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36
Q

What is the suffix for angiotensin-II receptor blockers?

A

-sartan

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37
Q

What is the primary indication of angiotensin-II receptor blockers?

A

antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

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38
Q

What is the suffix for beta blockers?

A

-olol

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39
Q

What is the primary indication for beta blockers?

A

Antihypertensive, antianginal, antiarrhythmic, congestive heart failure

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40
Q

What is the suffix for calcium channel blockers?

A

-ipine

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41
Q

What is the primary indication for calcium channel blockers?

A

antihypertensive, antianginal

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42
Q

What is the suffix for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

-statin

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43
Q

What is the primary indication for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol)

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44
Q

Which of the following is the common cardiovascular sign or symptom in integumentary system?
A) Cyanosis
B) Intermittent claudication
C) Syncope
D) Myalgias

A

A) Cyanosis

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45
Q

Which of the following is true about aging and the cardiovascular system?
A) The hearts of older persons pump more blood to peripheral organs than that of a younger person.
B) Vascular aging involves epithelial dysfunction and increase in arterial wall thickness and stiffness.
C) Age-related decline in steroid hormones triggers a feedback loop to elevate cholesterol concentrations.
D) Aerobic capacity, measured as peak oxygen uptake (VO2), is increased in aging.

A

C) Age-related decline in steroid hormones triggers a feedback loop to elevate cholesterol concentrations.

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46
Q

Which of the following lab results can be mostly identified on a person with metabolic syndrome?
A) Blood pressure 115/75 mm Hg
B) Fasting blood glucose 95 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride 200 mg/dL
D) HDL (high-density lipoprotein) 55 mg/dL

A

C) Triglyceride 200 mg/dL

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47
Q

When athero mas (plaques of fatty deposits) form in the inner layer (intima) of the arteries, it is called _____.
A) Mönckeberg arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Arteriolosclerosis
D) Arteriolar sclerosis

A

B) Atherosclerosis

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48
Q

Which of the following surgical management is primarily for atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries?
A) Ambulatory electrocardiography
B) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)
C) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
D) Echocardiogram (Echo)​

A

B) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)

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49
Q

Which of the following medications can treat hypertension?
A) α-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists and Direct Renin Inhibitors
B) Calcium Channel Blockers and Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors
C) Diuretics and β-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists (β Blockers)​
D) All of the above

A

B) Calcium Channel Blockers and Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors

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50
Q

What is true for angina pectoris?
A) Any condition that decrease the blood (oxygen) supply or increase blood (oxygen) demand of the myocardium can cause myocardial ischemia.
B) Pain that spreads to the throat, neck, back, jaw, shoulder or arms is one of the most common warning signs of heart attack.
C) Anemia can cause myocardial ischemia.
D) All of the above.

A

D) All of the above.

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51
Q

Which of the following is modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension?
A) Personality traits (hostility, sense of hopelessness)​
B) Age (>55 years)​
C) Family history
D) Ethnicity

A

A) Personality traits (hostility, sense of hopelessness)​

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52
Q

_________ is a disturbance of heart rate or rhythm caused by an abnormal rate of electrical impulse generation by the sinoatrial (SA) node or the abnormal conduction of impulses​.
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Heart failure
C) Arrhythmia (dysrhythmia)
D) Pericarditis​

A

C) Arrhythmia (dysrhythmia)

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53
Q

Which of the following is the risk factor for deep venous thrombosis?
A) Neurologic disorder (e.g., spinal cord injury, stroke)
B) Prolonged air travel
C) Childbirth and delivery
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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54
Q

Which of the following is true about lymphatic system?
A) The thoracic duct carries far less lymph than the left lymphatic duct, draining mainly the right arm and head, the heart and lungs, and the anterior chest wall.
B) It is designed to absorb macromolecules (protein and fatty acids); help maintain fluid balance in the tissues; fight infection; and assist in the removal of cellular debris and waste products from the extracellular spaces.
C) Superficial vessels generally parallel the venous system.
D) Deep vessels generally parallel the nervous system.

A

B) It is designed to absorb macromolecules (protein and fatty acids); help maintain fluid balance in the tissues; fight infection; and assist in the removal of cellular debris and waste products from the extracellular spaces.

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55
Q

Which of the following body region contain more lymph nodes?
A) Anterior knee
B) Axillary
C) Calcaneus
D) Scalp

A

B) Axillary

56
Q

What is true about lymph nodes?
A) As lymph flows from the periphery to the root of the limbs and on to the central circulation, it passes through many lymph nodes, which act as filters to cleanse the lymph of waste products and cellular debris.
B) Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and macrophages.
C) Lymph nodes offer 100 times the normal resistance to flow of lymph within the lymphatic vessels themselves, which explains why they are often the sites of obstruction in lymphatic dysfunction.
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

57
Q

What is lymphadenopathy?
A) Enlargement of the lymph nodes
B) Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel
C) An increased amount of lymph fluid in the soft tissues
D) Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

A

A) Enlargement of the lymph nodes

58
Q

What is true for lymphedema?
A) Most commonly seen in the axillary and inguinal areas.
B) In advanced cases of lymphedema, loss of skin integrity allows portals of entry for bacteria to invade the skin and cause recurrent infection​
C) The most common cause of secondary lymphedema in the US is ​filariasis.
D) Stage I (one) lymphedema is referred to as lymphostatic elephantiasis.

A

B) In advanced cases of lymphedema, loss of skin integrity allows portals of entry for bacteria to invade the skin and cause recurrent infection​

59
Q

In what type of anemia would one see red blood cells of various sizes?
A) Microcytic
B) Anisocytosis
C) Poikilocytosis
D) Macrocytic

A

B) Anisocytosis

60
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by autoantibodies that block the formation of the _____.
A) sodium
B) B12-intrinsic factor complex
C) folate
D) iron

A

B) B12-intrinsic factor complex

61
Q

Lack of clotting factor _____ causes hemophilia A.
A) I
B) IX
C) V
D) VIII

A

D) VIII

62
Q

Which of the following could be the cause of hemolytic (destruction of erythrocytes) anemia?
A) Excessive menstruation
B) Bone marrow failure
C) Hemoglobinopathies (e.g., sickle cell diseases)
D) Nutritional deficiency

A

C) Hemoglobinopathies (e.g., sickle cell diseases)

63
Q

Which of the following is true for complete blood count (CBC)?
A) Decreased hematocrit (Hct) may indicate there is an anemia caused by blood loss.
B) Increased erythrocyte (rec cell count) may indicate there is a dietary insufficiency of iron and vitamins.
C) Hemoglobin (Hb) measures the percentage of whole blood occupied by red blood cells (RBCs).
D) A patient with thrombocytopenia may have platelets count above 400,000 / mm3

A

A) Decreased hematocrit (Hct) may indicate there is an anemia caused by blood loss.

64
Q

Which of the following lab results on lipid panel might be a concern in an adult patient at high risk for heart disease?
A) Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL
B) Low-density lipoprotein LDL 50 mg/dL
C) High-density lipoprotein 85 mg/dL
D) Triglycerides 100 mg/dL

A

A) Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL

65
Q

What is true for lymphedema?
A) Physical impairments can lead to functional limitations and disability along with the potential for psychosocial morbidity
B) Stage IV (four) lymphedema is the most severe type and referred to as lymphostatic elephantiasis
C) Most seen in the cervical areas
D) The most common cause of primary lymphedema worldwide is filariasis

A

A) Physical impairments can lead to functional limitations and disability along with the potential for psychosocial morbidity

66
Q

Which of the following is true about aging and the cardiovascular system?
A) The maximal heart rate or the highest heart rate during exercise declines with age
B) The hearts of older persons pump more blood to peripheral organs than that of a young person
C) Vascular aging involves epithelial dysfunction and increase in arterial wall thickness and stiffness
D) The hearts of older persons have higher capillary density than that of a younger person

A

A) The maximal heart rate or the highest heart rate during exercise declines with age

67
Q

Which of the following could be the cause of anemia associated with decreased production of erythrocytes?
A) Diverticulosis
B) Bleeding peptic ulcer
C) Bone marrow failure (ie. leukemia)
D) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

C) Bone marrow failure (ie. leukemia)

68
Q

Which of the following are non-modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension?
A) Obesity and diabetes
B) High sodium intake
C) White coat hypertension
D) Age and sex

A

D) Age and sex

69
Q

1) What is lympadenitis?
A) Enlargement of the lymph nodes
B) Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel
C) An increased amount of lymph fluid in the soft tissues
D) Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

A

D) Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

70
Q

Which of the following is a disorder or hemostasis?
A) Von Willebrand Disease
B) Anemias
C) Lyme disease
D) Arrythmia

A

A) Von Willebrand Disease

71
Q

Which of the following is a localized region of necrosis caused by reduction of arterial perfusion?
A) Infarction
B) Thrombus
C) Edema
D) Embolus

A

A) Infarction

72
Q

Pernicious anemia is anemia caused by a loss of ___________.
A) Potassium
B) Vitamin B6
C) iron
D) B12-intrinsic factor complex

A

D) B12-intrinsic factor complex

73
Q

Which of the following medical technologies can be used to evaluate your heart valves are working correctly?
A) Electrocardiogram
B) External cardiac monitoring
C) Echocardiogram
D) Electromyography

A

C) Echocardiogram

74
Q

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the ______________.
A) right subscapular (posterior) axillary nodes
B) right deep inguinal nodes
C) right deep popliteal nodes
D) lumbar nodes

A

A) right subscapular (posterior) axillary nodes

75
Q

Hemophillia A results from a lack of clotting factor _______ and constitutes 80% of all cases of hemophillia.
A) V
B) VIII
C) XII
D) IX

A

B) VIII

76
Q

In what type of anemia would one see red blood cells of various shapes?
A) Hyperchromic
B) Poikilocytosis
C) Ansiocytosis
D) Macrocytic

A

B) Poikilocytosis

77
Q

Which of the following medications can be primarily used to treat angina?
A) Hemostatics
B) Antiarrhythmics
C) b-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists (b blockers)
D) Antibiotics

A

C) b-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists (b blockers)

78
Q

Which of the following clinical magnifications can be seen on a person with orthostatic (postural) hypotension?
A) Fall
B) Organ ischemia
C) Syncope
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

79
Q

What is the most common renal cell carcinoma?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Papillary carcinoma
D) Clear cell cancer

A

D) Clear cell cancer

80
Q

Pain in the _____ during the early days of dialysis is referred to as “first use syndrome.”
A) pelvis and hip
B) shoulder and back
C) chest and back
D) pelvis and chest

A

C) chest and back

81
Q

What is the suffix for barbiturates?

A

-barbital

82
Q

What is the primary indication of barbiturates?

A

sedative-hypnotic, antiseizure, anesthetic

83
Q

What is the suffix of benzodiapines?

A

-epam or -olam

84
Q

What is the primary indication of benzodiapines?

A

sedative-hypnotic, antianxiety, antiseizure, anesthetic

85
Q

What is the suffix of local anesthetics?

A

-caine

86
Q

What is the primary indication of local anesthetics?

A

local anesthetic, antiarrhythmics

87
Q

What is the suffix of low-molecular-weight heparins?

A

-parins

88
Q

What is the primary indications of low-molecular-weight heparins?

A

anticoagulants

89
Q

A urinary tract infection (UTI) that has spread to the kidneys is referred to as _____.
A) pyelonephritis
B) nephritis
C) uncomplicated UTI
D) kidney-dominated UTI

A

A) pyelonephritis

90
Q

What bacterium is most often responsible for urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Klebsiella
D) Enterococcus

A

A) Escherichia coli

91
Q

Pyuria is evidenced by what type of cell in the urine?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Leukocytes
D) Red blood cells

A

C) Leukocytes

92
Q

What type of kidney stones are common in people with gout?
A) Cystine stones
B) Uric acid stones
C) Calcium stones
D) Struvite stones

A

B) Uric acid stones

93
Q

Which of the following is the least common cause of chronic kidney disease?
A) Hypertension
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Cystic kidney disease
D) Diabetes

A

C) Cystic kidney disease

94
Q

In what stage of chronic kidney disease does uremia develop?
A) Stage 2
B) Stage 3
C) Stage 4
D) Stage 5

A

D) Stage 5

95
Q

With impairment of the glomerular filtration rate, the body is unable to excrete _____ or synthesize _____.
A) calcium; vitamin B
B) phosphate; vitamin B
C) phosphate; calcitriol
D) sodium; calcitriol

A

C) phosphate; calcitriol

96
Q

Which of the following is not a common site for extraskeletal calcification associated with chronic kidney disease?
A) Bladder
B) Skin
C) Peripheral arteries
D) Lungs

A

A) Bladder

97
Q

What type of prostatitis is diagnosed when a man does not complain of pain or discomfort but has white blood cells in his semen?
A) Chronic bacterial prostatitis
B) Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
C) Acute bacterial prostatitis
D) Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome

A

B) Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

98
Q

Which of the following pathogens is associated with acute prostatitis?
A) Proteus mirabilis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

B) Escherichia coli

99
Q

Why does the prostate increase in weight as a man ages?
A) It fills with old red blood cells
B) It fills with urine
C) It begins to fibrose
D) Cells die at a slower rate

A

D) Cells die at a slower rate

100
Q

What does a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test measure?
A) Protein in the bloodstream secreted by cells in the prostate gland
B) Protein in the urine secreted by cells of the prostate gland
C) Flow rate of urine
D) The weight of the prostate gland

A

A) Protein in the bloodstream secreted by cells in the prostate gland

101
Q

____________ urinary incontinence is often related to detrusor instability, a condition in which the bladder contracts at small volumes, often in response to triggers such as running water or arriving home.
A) Functional
B) Stress
C) Urgency
D) Overflow

A

C) Urgency

102
Q

What is the primary indication for dalteparin?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Antiseizure
C) Antianxiety
D) Antiarrhythmics

A

A) Anticoagulants

103
Q

__________ nerves originate in the spinal cord at the level of S2, S3, and S4, and innervate the bladder wall via the ______________ nerve.
A) Parasympathetic; pelvic
B) Sympathetic; hypogastric
C) Somatic; pudendal
D) Sensory; pelvic

A

A) Parasympathetic; pelvic

104
Q

Urination is initiated with voluntary relaxation of the __________ followed by relaxation of the __________ and contraction of the ___________ to squeeze the urine out of the bladder.
A) detrusor muscle; external urethral sphincter; pelvic floor muscle
B) abdominal muscle; pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter
C) pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter; detrusor muscle
D) detrusor muscle; abdominal muscle; pelvic floor muscle

A

C) pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter; detrusor muscle

105
Q

There are three layers of the pelvic floor muscles from superficial to deep. The levator ani muscle (the deepest layer) is made up of
A) external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernous and ischiocavernous), and the transverse perineal muscles
B) sphincter urethra and urethrovaginal sphincter
C) puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, and ischiococcygeus muscles
D) All of above

A

D) All of above

106
Q

Which of the following is the symptom when the pelvic floor muscles are over activity?
A) Obstructive voiding
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Fecal incontinence
D) Pelvic organ prolapse

A

A) Obstructive voiding

107
Q

What is true about urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A) The symptoms may include pain at the shoulder
B) Men have higher incidence than women
C) Virus accounts for most of pathogens
D) Exposure to asbestos and/or cadmium have been linked to increased risk for developing UTI

A

A) The symptoms may include pain at the shoulder

108
Q

What is true about bladder function?
A) The pontine micturition reflex center is located in the spinal cord
B) Parasympathetic nerves originate in the spinal cord at the level of S2, S3, S4 and innervate the bladder wall via the pudendal nerve
C) Normal voiding is a minimum of 2 hours (often in the elderly) and usually 3 to 5 hours between voids for others
D) The internal urethral sphincter is a voluntary skeletal muscle

A

C) Normal voiding is a minimum of 2 hours (often in the elderly) and usually 3 to 5 hours between voids for others

109
Q

What type of kidney stone is the most common?
A) Cystine stones
B) Uric acid stones
C) Calcium stones
D) Struvite stones

A

C) Calcium stones

110
Q

Which of the following is considered part of the lower urinary tract?
A) Kidney
B) Renal pelvis
C) Ureter
D) Bladder

A

D) Bladder

111
Q

Which of the following types of urinary incontinence occurs during activities that increase intraabdominal pressure?
A) Overflow
B) Stress
C) Urge (urgency)
D) Functional

A

B) Stress

112
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for urinary incontinence?
A) Taking diuretics or narcotic analgesics
B) Diabetes mellitus and depression
C) Cystocele or uterine prolapse
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

113
Q

What is the primary indication for lidocaine?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Local anesthetic
C) Antianxiety
D) Sedative-hypnotic

A

B) Local anesthetic

114
Q

There are three layers of the pelvic floor muscles from superficial to deep. The most superficial later of the PFMs includes
A) Obturator internus, obturator externus, superior gemellus, inferior gemellus, puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and ischiococcygeus
B) external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus), and the transverse perineal muscles.
C) spincter urethre and urethrovaginal sphincter
D) puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, and ischiococcygeus

A

B) external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus), and the transverse perineal muscles.

115
Q

In chronic kidney disease, proteinuria is the hallmark of ________.
A) stage 2
B) stage 3
C) stage 4
D) stage 5

A

C) stage 4

116
Q

What type of prostatitis is most commonly seen in the PT clinic?
A) Acute bacterial prostatitis
B) Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome
C) Chronic bacterial prostatitis
D) Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

A

B) Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome

117
Q

Where are metastases of prostate tumors most located?
A) Femur
B) Spine
C) Humerus
D) Tibia

A

B) Spine

118
Q

Deficient oxygenation of arterial blood is called .
A) hypoxia
B) hypoglycemia
C) hyponatremia
D) hypoxemia

A

D) hypoxemia

119
Q

A productive cough with purulent sputum (___________) may indicate infection, whereas a productive cough with nonpurulent sputum (______________) is nonspecific and indicates airway irritation.
A) clear or white; red or yellow
B) yellow or green; clear or white
C) yellow or green; red or black
D) red or blue; yellow or green

A

B) yellow or green; clear or white

120
Q

Which of the following is true for aging and the pulmonary system?
A) Reduced ciliary action combined with the other changes noted predisposes the older client to increased respiratory infections.
B) Chest wall compliance increases with aging.
C) Diminished gas exchange is primarily due to decreased physiologic dead space.
D) Elastic recoil is increased by intermolecular collagen crosslinks.

A

A) Reduced ciliary action combined with the other changes noted predisposes the older client to increased respiratory infections.

121
Q

_____________ pneumonia refers to pneumonia that occurs due to fluids or other material from the oral cavity or GI tract is aspirated into the lower respiratory tract
A) Bacterial
B) Aspiration
C) Fungal
D) Viral

A

B) Aspiration

122
Q

______________ is almost always caused by exposure to environmental irritants, especially smoking.
A) Acute bronchitis
B) Pulmonary tuberculosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Pneumoconiosis

A

C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

123
Q

_____________ is defined as an enlargement of the air spaces beyond the terminal bronchiole, and is associated with a loss of elasticity in the distal airways, airway collapse, and gas trapping.
A) Asthma
B) Edema
C) Emphysema
D) Pneumonitis

A

C) Emphysema

124
Q

In terms of types of asthma and its classifications, which of the following is extrinsic causative factor for asthma?
A) Indoor and outdoor pollutants, including ozone, smoke, exhaust
B) Alteration in airway temperature and humidity
C) Metal salts (platinum, chrome, nickel)
D) Aspirin and other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

A

A) Indoor and outdoor pollutants, including ozone, smoke, exhaust

125
Q

Which of the following is true for chronic bronchitis and emphysema?
A) They both are typically caused by viral infection.
B) Cough is uncommon, with little sputum production in emphysema.
C) Chronic bronchitis is diagnosed more frequently in children.
D) Obesity is a risk factor for both chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

A

B) Cough is uncommon, with little sputum production in emphysema.

126
Q

Which of the following lab results can be seen on a patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome?
A) Decrease in BUN/creatinine
B) Decrease in lactate
C) Decrease in procalcitonin
D) Leukocytosis

A

D) Leukocytosis

127
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for respiratory alkalosis?
A) It occurs as a result of a loss of acid without compensation and most commonly when the lungs excrete excessive amounts of CO2
B) It can be a result of hypoventilation and subsequent retention of CO2
C) Some drugs such as narcotics may cause respiratory alkalosis
D) It occurs as a result of excess CO2 production due to sepsis or burns

A

A) It occurs as a result of a loss of acid without compensation and most commonly when the lungs excrete excessive amounts of CO2

128
Q

What is the major cause of death after septic, traumatic, and burn injuries?
A) Critical illness, myopathy
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
D) Critical illness, polyneuropathy

A

C) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

129
Q

Which of the following is the sign of septic shock?
A) Increased urine output
B) Increased BUN/creatinine
C) Hypertension
D) Blood pH reveal alkalosis

A

B) Increased BUN/creatinine

130
Q

In cases of lung cancer, hypercalcemia can be caused by the secretion of peptide with ________.
A) parathyroid hormone
B) thyroid hormone
C) testosterone
D) estrogen

A

A) parathyroid hormone

131
Q

What is defined as injury, physical and/or mental, caused from the use of medication?
A) Severe reaction
B) Lethal dose
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Adverse drug events

A

D) Adverse drug events

132
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of severe sepsis?
A) Increased creatinine level
B) Elevated serum lactate level
C) Elevated white blood cell count
D) Increased urine output

A

D) Increased urine output

133
Q

Advanced cancers produce ___________ as a result of tissue destruction and the body’s nutrients being used by the malignant cells for further growth.
A) cachexia
B) anorexia
C) anemia
D) hypoxemia

A

A) cachexia

134
Q

A (an) __________ occurs when medications interact unfavorably, possibly adding to the pharmacologic effects
A) overdosage toxicity
B) side effect
C) drug–disease interaction
D) drug–drug interaction

A

D) drug–drug interaction

135
Q

Which of the following can be a limitation of lab testing?
A) Different individual’s tolerances for the alterations in homeostasis implied by abnormal lab test results.
B) Lab samples are mislabeled.
C) People’s sex and age.
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

Internal Med (4 decks)

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