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Internal Med > Exam 2 Flashcards > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ?

A

Stage I

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2
Q

A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers?
a) colorectal
b) pancreatic
c) breast
d) all of the above

A

All of the above; Colorectal, pancreatic, breast

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3
Q

_____ can be generated by translocations in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosome and recombines with another gene.

A

Fusion proteins

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4
Q

Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis?

A

30%

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5
Q

What is the first level of dysplasia?

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue?

A

liposarcoma

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7
Q

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has no distant metastasis?

A

M 0

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8
Q

What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation?

A

p53

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9
Q

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer?
a) lungs
b) colon
c) kidneys
d) heart

A

a) lungs

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10
Q

What are the most common of all metastatic tumors?

A

lung

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11
Q

What is the primary indication of theophylline?

A

bronchodilation

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12
Q

What is the drug class for albuterol?

A

bronchodilators (adrenergic)

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13
Q

What is the suffix for bronchodilators (adrenergic)?

A

-erol

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14
Q

What is the suffix for bronchodilators (xanthine derivatives)?

A

-phylline

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15
Q

normal cells

A

form different tissues to specialize in different functions

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16
Q

malignant cells

A

differentiation is altered and may be lost completely

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17
Q

anaplastic

A

completely lost identity with the parent tissue; considered undifferentiated

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18
Q

_______ (more / less) differentiated a tumor becomes, the faster metastasis occurs, and the worse the prognosis is

A

less

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19
Q

dysplasia

A

a disorganization of cells in which an adult cell varies from its normal size, shape, or disorganization

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20
Q

what is the most advanced form of metaplasia?

A

anaplasia

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21
Q

what is the hallmark feature of malignant disease

A

anaplasia

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22
Q

metaplasia

A

reversible and benign but abnormal change in which one adult cell changes from one type to another

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23
Q

hyperplasia

A

increased number of cells in tissue leading to increase tissue mass

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24
Q

neoplastic hyperplasia

A

increase in cell mass due to tumor formation and is an abnormal process

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25
Q

another word for neoplasms is……..

A

tumors

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26
Q

a localized, pre-invasive, and possible premalignant tumor of epithelial tissue

A

carcinoma in situ

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27
Q

_____________ (type of tumor) are contained within the host organ and have not broken through basement membrane

A

carcinoma in situ

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28
Q

what are the steps in cancer development?

A

cell with mutation, hyperplasia, dysplasia, in situ cancer, invasive cancer

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29
Q

What are the 5 main classification of neoplasms by cell type of origin?

A

epithelial tissue, connective tissue and muscle, nerve tissue, lymphoid tissue, hematopoietic tissue,

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30
Q

stage 0

A

carcinoma in situ (premalignant, preinvasive)

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31
Q

stage 1

A

early stage, local cancer (primary to one organ)

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32
Q

stage 2 cancer

A

increased risk of spread because of tumor size

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33
Q

stage 3

A

local cancer has spread but may not be disseminated to distant regions

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34
Q

stage 4

A

cancer has spread and disseminated to distant sites

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35
Q

Tx, Nx, Mx

A

cannot be assessed (each letter corresponds to different thing)

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36
Q

T0, N0, M0

A

none detected (for example T0 means no evidence of primary tumor)

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37
Q

What are the most commonly diagnosed cancers?

A

lung, breast, and colorectal

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38
Q

What is the most prevalent cancer in the world?

A

lung cancer

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39
Q

What are the most common cancers showing a familial pattern?

A

prostate, breast, ovarian, and colon

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40
Q

carcinogens

A

etiologic agents capable of initiating the malignant transformation of a cell (ie. carinogenesis)

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41
Q

oncogenes

A

have the ability to transform normal cells into malignant calls independently or incorporated with a virus

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42
Q

cancer stem cell hypothesis

A

targeting the abnormal stem cells in cancer cells that allow for the tumor to be initiated

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43
Q

carcinogenesis

A

process by which normal cell undergoes malignant transformation; multistep process with progressive changes after genetic damage to DNA

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44
Q

tumor-specific antigens

A

uniquely expressed by tumor cells and are not expressed by normal cells; t cells recognize different types of tumor antigens

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45
Q

tumor-associated antigens

A

expressed by tumors AND normal cells (ex: oncospermatogonal antigens, differentiation antigens, epidermal growth factor receptor

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46
Q

what are the three major immune responses against tumors?

A

1) NK cells
2) macrophages
3) cytotoxic CD8+ T cells

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47
Q

What are the five most common sites of metasis?

A

lymph nodes, liver, lung, bone, and brain

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48
Q

T/F metastasis is more likely to occur via the arteries

A

False; the veins

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49
Q

what is the key factor to cancer cure?

A

eradicating metastases

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50
Q

Which 4 types of cells are most prone to metastatic spread due to there nutrition rich environment?

A

lungs, liver, bone, and central nervous system

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51
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from cartilage?

A

chondrosarcoma

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52
Q

Which of the following is the most likely location of primary metastasis of colorectal cancer via blood?
a) liver
b) ileum
c) breast
d) stomach

A

A) liver

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53
Q

_________ also called cancer-causing genes, have the ability to transform normal cells into malignant cells, independently or incorporated with a virus and there are more than 100 of them that have been identified

A

oncogenes

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54
Q

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has increasing degree of involvement of regional lymph nodes?

A

N1

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55
Q

Which of the following medication is bronchodilator?
a) pirbuterol
b) Nicardipine
c) Simvastain
d) Captopril

A

A) Pirbuterol

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56
Q

Which cells can recognize different types of tumor antigens?

A

T cells

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57
Q

Which of the following is the common tumor evasion strategy?
A) antigenic modulation
B) Induction of immune suppression
C) Loss of immunogenicity
D) All of the above

A

D) all of the above

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58
Q

In what stage of cancer is it described that increased risk of spread because of tumor size?

A

Stage II

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59
Q

If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas, what would be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor?

A

shoulder, midthoracic, or low back

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60
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the phase

A

G2

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61
Q

What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division?

A

G2

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62
Q

Which chemotherapy agents bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication?

A

alkylating agents

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63
Q

Tamoxifen in an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in ___________ to block estrogen receptors in tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive.

A

breast cancer

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64
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs……. (what is the mechanism?)

A

bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells.

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65
Q

A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as _______________.

A

angiogenesis inhibitors

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66
Q

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because………….

A

most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells.

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67
Q

Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g., cytokines) are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they……….(mechanism of how they work)

A

encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells.

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68
Q

The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis

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69
Q

Which healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient?

A

Radiation oncologist

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70
Q

What is an example of a therapy option that is considered as nonpharmacologic modality for cancer pain?

A

relaxation training

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71
Q

What is the name of the theory that hypothesizes each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapeutic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor?

A

cell kill hypothesis

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72
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a serious complication of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the ______________.

A

kidney

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73
Q

A 37-year-old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Fluorouracil, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?

A

antimetabolites

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74
Q

What is the trade name of doxorubicin?

A

Adriamycin

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75
Q

What is the drug class of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

Alkylating Agents

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76
Q

What are the common adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

Blood disorders (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia), GI distress (nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite), and Bladder irritation; hair loss; cardiotoxicity; pulmonary toxicity

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77
Q

A 68-year-old man presents with a history of chronic cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer.
Question:
Given the patient’s diagnosis, which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis?

A

positron emission tomography (PET) scan

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78
Q

Follow-up Case:
The patient in the previous case receives chemotherapy, which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD).
Question:
To help the patient recover from chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, which medication might the physician consider?

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

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79
Q

Which of the following is a secondary prevention of cancer?
A) rehabilitation
B) epigenetics
C) chemoprevention
D) pap test for cervix

A

D) Pap test

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80
Q

Which of the following tests are useful for early detection of tumors?
A) CT scan and MRI
B) tissue biopsy
C) laboratory values
D) All of the above

A

D) all of the above

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81
Q

In the mitotic phase, when are cells more susceptible to chemotherapy?

A

Synthesis and mitosis

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82
Q

What is irradiation therapy (radiotherapy) used for?

A

it can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor, making it operable, while preventing further spread of the disease

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83
Q

Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupts cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubule assembly or disassembly?

A

microtubule targeting agents

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84
Q

Bevacizumab (avastin) is approved by FDA to treat cancer. It binds and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEFF) to prevent the formation of new blood, thus impairing the cancer growth by starving the tissue of oxygen and nutrients. What drug class is Bevacizumab (avastin)?

A

angiogenesis inhibitor

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85
Q

Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy?
A) patient might develop anemia due to high number of RBC
B) patient may easily get bleeding due to high number of platelets
C) patient may easily get infected due to fewer WBC
D) All of the above

A

C) patient may easily get infected due to fewer WBC

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86
Q

What can be the cause of cancer-related fatigue?

A

emotional distress

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87
Q

When tumors produce signs and symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastasized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as _______________

A

paraneoplastic syndromes

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88
Q

Which of the following is the adverse effect of chemotherapy?
A) fatigue
B) pulmonary toxicity
C) renal toxicity (nephrotoxicity)
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

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89
Q

Which of the following are large granular lymphocyte cells that do not express antigen-specific receptors?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Natural killer cells
D) Mast cells

A

C) Natural killer cells

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90
Q

Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigenic peptides for recognition by T cells?
A) immunoglobins
B) Antibodies
C) Major histocompatibility complex molecules
D) Natural killer cells

A

C) Major histocompatibility complex molecules

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91
Q

What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize, eliminate, and establish long-term memory against a threat?

A

Acquired immunity

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92
Q

What is an example of active artificial acquired immunity?

A

Vaccination

93
Q

Which of the following cells live the longest?
A) Basophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Monocytes

A

D) Monocytes

94
Q

Which immunoglobin is the predominant immunoglobin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva, breast milk, urine, and tears?

A

IgA

95
Q

What type of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized, pinocytosed, or endocytosed from the extracellular environment?

A

MHC class II

96
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the humoral immune response?
A) Blood
B) Vaginal secretions
C) Saliva
D) Urine

A

D) Urine

97
Q

Which of the following is true for antibodies?
A) The light chain determines the type of the antibody (immunoglobulin) encoded by a gene segment.
B) They are produced by B monocytes.
C) The fragment antigen-binding (Fab fragment) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens.
D) IgM functions during allergic reactions.

A

C) The fragment antigen-binding (Fab fragment) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens.

98
Q

Which cells are called CD8+ T cells?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

99
Q

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms?

A

Effector phase

100
Q

After intense exercise of long duration, the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values. Maximal reduction in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cell activity occur _____ hours after exercise.

A

2 to 4 hours

101
Q

When HIV enters the body, what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus, allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells?

A

CD4 cells and macrophages

102
Q

At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Advanced HIV disease

103
Q

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?
A) Invasive devices are infectious agents
B) Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs
C) Tubes, needles, and dressings are direct mode of transmission
D) Bacteria, fungi, and viruses are infection control strategies

A

B) Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs

104
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen?

A

Type IV (Cell-Mediated Immunity) Hypersensitivity

105
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis?

A

Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitivity

106
Q

Which of following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) It is primarily a disease of old men
B) Arthritis of SLE is usually erosive or destructive of bone, and symptoms are usually severe and cause joint deformities
C) Mild symptoms can be managed with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation
D) Kaposi sarcoma over the nose and cheeks is common

A

C) Mild symptoms can be managed with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation

107
Q

Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission?
A) Sexual activity (anal, vaginal, very rarely oral)
B) Maternal to child (either through pregnancy, during delivery, or breastfeeding)
C) Contaminated blood
D) All the above

A

D) All of the above

108
Q

CD4+ T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it to mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells?
A) Helping CTLs to proliferate and destroy virally infected cells
B) Activating macrophages and helping them to destroy bacterial pathogens
C) Produce antibody
D) Helping NK cells kill infected cells
E) Neutrophil recruitment
F) Helping B cells augment the production of antibodies
G) Downregulation of the adaptive immune response.

A

C) Produce antibody

109
Q

In human defense mechanisms, which of the following acts as the body’s first line of defense?
A) T cells
B) Neutrophils
C) B cells
D) Monoblast

A

B) neutrophils

110
Q

What type of cell development begins with a progenitor cell from the bone marrow and migrates to the thymus gland, which is a primary lymphoid organ?

A

T cell

111
Q

What phase of immune response is characterized by generation of long-lived T and B lymphocytes?

A

Memory phase

112
Q

Which immunoglobin is the first secreted antibody and is predominant in a primary or initial immune response?

A

IgM

113
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity is characterized by releasing histamine?

A

Type I (IgE- mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitivity

114
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause lupus erythmatosus?

A

Type III (Immune Complex-Mediated) Hypersensitivity

115
Q

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?
A) Clean/sterile techniques are altered defense mechanisms
B) Bacteria, fungi, and viruses are direct mode of transmission
C) Invasive devices are reservoirs
D) hand and broken skin are infectious agents

A

C) Invasive devices are reservoirs

116
Q

In Immunology, the term ________ refers to lack of recognition and responsiveness to one’s own tissue antigens

A

self-tolerance

117
Q

CD4+ T cells are also called……

A

Helper T lymphocytes

118
Q

Which of the following systems will be affected by HIV?
A) integumentary
B) cardiopulmonary
C) Neuromuscular
D) All of the above

A

D) all of the above

119
Q

Which of the following is one of the main avenues for HIV transmission?
A) Aerosol (airborne) transmission
B) Fomite Transmission
C) Contaminated Food
D) Contaminated Blood

A

D) Contaminated Blood

120
Q

Which of the following belongs to the second line of defense?
A) Adaptive immunity
B) Tears and saliva contain lysosomes
C) The inflammatory response
D) Hydrochloric acid found in stomach

A

C) The inflammatory response

121
Q

_____________ refers to the emergence of HIV antibodies in the bloodstream (ie. the person becomes positive for HIV antibodies) and usually takes places 3-6 weeks after infections

A

seroconversion

122
Q

What is the primary indication of azole antifungals?

A

fungal infections

123
Q

What is the drug class for the suffix -azole?

A

azole antifungals

124
Q

What drug class are fluconazole and miconazole?

A

azole antifungals

125
Q

What is the primary indication of HIV protease inhibitors?

A

HIV infection

126
Q

What is the drug suffix for HIV protease inhibitors?

A

-avir

127
Q

What drug class is ritonavir and saquinavir?

A

HIV protease inhibitors

128
Q

What is the primary indication for penicillin antibiotics?

A

bacterial infection

129
Q

What is the drug suffix for penicillin antibiotics?

A

-cillin

130
Q

What drug class is penicillin, ampicillin, and amoxicillin?

A

penicillin antibiotics

131
Q

What is the primary indication for tetracycline antibiotics?

A

bacterial infection

132
Q

What is the suffix for tetracycline antibiotics?

A

-cycline

133
Q

What drug class is tetracycline, and doxycycline?

A

bacterial infection

134
Q

Microbiology definition

A

the study of microscopic organisms such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi, and protozoa

135
Q

Leukocytosis definition

A

elevated WBC count (infection or other inflammatory response)

136
Q

Leukopenia definition

A

decreased WBC count (result of bone marrow disease, radiation, or medications, including chemotherapy)

137
Q

What is the most abundant type of WBC?

A

The neutrophil

138
Q

What are nosocomial infections?

A

health-care associated infections

139
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

5000-10,000/mm3

140
Q

What is a normal sustained temperature for a non-older person? Are these values higher or lower in older people?

A

96.8 degrees- 99.5 degrees; lower in older people

141
Q

What is the temperature regulating center in the body?

A

hypothalamus

142
Q

What are pyrogens and their role in temperature change?

A

certain protein substances (cytokines) and toxins (endotoxin of some bacteria) that cause the set-point of the hypothalamic thermostat to rise (conserve heat and increase heat production)

143
Q

What is the intermittent fever pattern? What is an example of a infection that causes this?

A

fluctuates from high then back to normal body temperature; pneumonia, UTI, malaria, influenza

144
Q

What is the remittent fever pattern? Example of an infection that causes this?

A

fluctuates, but remains above normal temperatures; viral upper respiratory infection

145
Q

What is sustained fever pattern?

A

no change throughout the day; stays one temperature

146
Q

What is recurring or relapsing fever pattern?

A

spikes again after days/weeks of having a normal body temperature

147
Q

The number of naive T cells _________ (increases/decreases) in older adults

A

decreases

148
Q

The number of memory T cells _________ (increases/decreases) in older adults

A

increases

149
Q

What temperatures are considered a fever in an older adult?

A

99-100

150
Q

infectious disease definition

A

clinically apparent infection in which the host-parasite interaction causes obvious injury and is accompanied by one or more clinical symptoms

151
Q

Incubation period

A

the period between the pathogen entering the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms

152
Q

latent infection

A

occurs after a microorganism has replicated but remains dormant or inactive in the host, sometimes for years

153
Q

the time period when an organism can be shed is called the _________________________

A

period of communicability

154
Q

T/F: An asymptomatic host cannot transmit a pathogen

A

false; an asymptomatic host can still transmit a pathogen

155
Q

What is the chain of transmission (order of events)?

A

1) pathogen or agent
2) reservoir
3) portal of exit
4) mode of transmission
5) portal of entry
6) host susceptibility

156
Q

Pathogenicity definition

A

The ability of the organism to induce disease (depends on the organisms speed of reproduction in host, extent of damage it causes to tissues, and strength of any toxin released by pathogen)

157
Q

Virulence definition

A

the potency of the pathogen in producing severe disease and is measured by the case fatality rate

158
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

do not causes disease in people with intact defense systems, but cause devastating disease in people with severe defects in defense mechanisms (ex: immunocompromised)

159
Q

Reservoir definition

A

An environment in which an organism can live and multiply (ex: animal, plant, soil, food, humans)

160
Q

portal of exit definition and example

A

the place from which the parasite leaves the reservoir (ex: excretions, open lesions, exudates)

161
Q

fomite definition

A

form of indirect contact transmission through inanimate and intermediate objects (telephone, bedside rails, tray tables etc); a mode of transmission

162
Q

airborne transmission

A

small particles that are capable of floating on air currents within a room and remain suspended in the air for several hours (ex: tuberculosis, chicken pox)

163
Q

droplet transmission

A

larger particles than airborne particles; do not remain suspended in air but fall out within 3 feet of the source travel only a short distance

164
Q

vehicle transmission definition

A

occurs when infectious organisms are transmitted through a common source (contaminated food, water, and IV fluid) to many susceptible hosts

165
Q

vector-borne transmission definition

A

involves insects and/or animals that act as intermediaries between two or more hosts

166
Q

Portal of entry definition and 3 examples

A

how the pathogen enters the host (ex: ingestion, inhalation, bites or injury of the skin, mucous membranes)

167
Q

What is the first line of defense for infectious diseases?

A

microbial antagonism of normal flora of microorganisms

168
Q

What is the second-line defense against infectious diseases?

A

inflammatory process

169
Q

What is the third line of defense against infectious diseases?

A

the immune response

170
Q

standard precautions for all patient care (infectious diseases) assume that any person may be ________________

A

contagious

171
Q

central line-associated bloodstream infections, catheter-associated urinary tract infections, ventilator-associated pneumonia, and surgical site infections are all examples of ______________

A

Health care-associated infections (HAI)

172
Q

What is the most effective means of preventing HAIs?

A

Hand hygiene

173
Q

_____________ are single-celled microorganisms with well-defined cell walls that can grow independently on artificial media without the need for other cells

A

bacteria

174
Q

___________ multiply, competing with host (human cells for essential nutrients and may directly harm human cells by releasing toxic substances

A

bacteria

175
Q

enterobacteriaceae, clostricial myonecrosis (gas gangrene), streptococcal infection, and staphyloccal infections are all examples of _____________ (bacterial, viral, fungal) infections

A

bacterial

176
Q

What body system does clostridiodes difficile infections impact?

A

GI system

177
Q

What body system do staphylococcal infections impact?

A

integumentary

178
Q

What age group does strep throat most commonly impact?

A

children ages 5-10 years old

179
Q

Group A streptococci (GAS) is typically transmitted via contact with _____________________

A

respiratory droplets

180
Q

Neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis are all apart of group _______ (A/B) streptococci

A

B

181
Q

__________ is the death of body tissue, usually associated with loss of vascular supply and followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction

A

gangrene

182
Q

what are the three major types of gangrene?

A

dry, moist, and gas gangrene

183
Q

Under what conditions does gas gangrene develop?

A

anaerobic conditions

184
Q

What body system does gas gangrene impact?

A

integumentary

185
Q

In what setting are pseudomonas most common in?

A

hospital and nursing home

186
Q

What body systems do pseudomonas impact?

A

integumentary, circulatory, and respiratory

187
Q

bactericidal drugs mechanism

A

kill or destroy bacteria

188
Q

bacteriostatic drug mechanism

A

do not actually kill bacteria but limit their growth and proliferation

189
Q

What are three specific mechanisms of antibacterial drugs that inhibit the cell wall synthesis and function?

A

Drugs cause inadequate production of peptidoglycans, punch holes in cell membrane, or act as detergents to break apart phospholipid bilayer

190
Q

What is the specific mechanisms of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

A

drugs enter the bacterial cell and bind to specific ribosomal subunits which blocks protein synthesis

191
Q

What is the specific mechanism of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial DNA/RNA synthesis and function?

A

inhibit the production of folic acid (folic acid is usually an enzyme in reactions needed for synthesis)

192
Q

A ___________ is a subcellular organism made up of only an RNA or a DNA nucleus covered with proteins and are the smallest known organisms

A

virus

193
Q

T/F: Viruses do not need a host cell to replicate

A

False; Viruses cannot replicate without invading a host cell

194
Q

Hepatitis B and herpesviridae are ___________ (DNA/RNA) viruses

A

DNA

195
Q

Coronaviridae, orthomyxoviridae, picornaviridae, and retroviridae are ____________ (DNA/RNA) viruses

A

RNA

196
Q

What are the two ways that the virus is released from a cell during viral replication?

A

1) exocytosis (host cell still infected)
2) the host cell is destroyed so virus is released

197
Q

How long is the intubation period for Hepatitis C?

A

6 to 7 weeks; nearly all individuals with acute infection will have chronic HCV infection

198
Q

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is a type ______ virus

A

type 3

199
Q

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis virus (EBV) is a type ______ virus

A

type 4

200
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type _______ virus

A

type 5

201
Q

Approximately ______% of Americans older than 12 years harbor HSV-1 (responsible for cold sores)

A

70

202
Q

How is HSV-2 most often acquired?

A

sexual contact

203
Q

What is the period of communicability for varicella zoster virus (chickenpox)?

A

from 1-2 days before the onset of the rash through the first 4-5 days or until all lesions have formed crust

204
Q

HSV-3 is also known as _______

A

chicken pox/ shingles (or varicella zoster virus)

205
Q

HSV-4 is ______________ an acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

infectious mononucleosis

206
Q

T/F: A patient with infectious mononucleosis does not need any restrictions for strenuous activity

A

False; they should be cautioned against engaging in excessive activity (could result in splenic rupture)

207
Q

What is the mode of transmission for influenza A and B?

A

from person to person by inhalation of aerosolized virus or direct contact

208
Q

____________ are endogenous substances that exert nonspecific antiviral activity. These substances enable healthy cells to resist infection from a wide array of viruses. Type I, II, and III are examples of these.

A

Interferons

209
Q

What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?

A

Incubation period

210
Q

______ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector.

A

Rickettsia

211
Q

Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease?
A) Diptheria
B) Adenovirus
C) Measles
D) Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

A

C) Measles

212
Q

_______ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.

A

mycoplasmas

213
Q

What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air?

A

Any particle smaller than 5μm

214
Q

Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room?
A) Droplet precautions
B) Airborne precautions
C) contact precautions
D) Standard precautions

A

D) Standard precautions

215
Q

What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years?
A) Tetanus and diphtheria
B) Hepatitis B
C) Chickenpox
D) Influenza

A

A) tetanus and diphtheria

216
Q

What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles?
A) No restrictions
B) Restrict from high-risk client contact
C) Exclude from duty
D) Restrict from normal client contact

A

Exclude from duty

217
Q

What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B?

A

3 to 7 days

218
Q

Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of
A) bacterial intracellular calcium release
B) bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
C) bacterial protein synthesis
D) bacterial nucleic acid synthesis

A

A) Bacterial intracellular calcium release

219
Q

Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.

A

penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans

220
Q

Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.

A

ribosome; messenger RNA translation

221
Q

Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells.

A

folic acid

222
Q

Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by:
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true

A

E) all the above are true

223
Q

Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because
A) viruses contain organelles (ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.) that are naturally resistant to antiviral drugs
B) virus particles are much larger in size than other infectious microorganisms such as bacteria
C) viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
D) all the above are true

A

D) all the above are true

224
Q

Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they
A) prevent adsorption/penetration of HIV into T4 lymphocytes
B) inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA
C) inhibit insertion of viral DNA into host-cell chromosomes
D) all the above are true

A

B) inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA

225
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true

A

D) all the above are true

226
Q

Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true

A

E) all the above are true

227
Q

Which of the following medications is an antibiotic?
A) Miconazole
B) Ampicillin
C) Ritonavir
D) Saquinavir

A

B) Ampicillin

228
Q

What is the drug class of Doxycycline?

A

tetracycline antibiotics

Internal Med (4 decks)

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