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Internal Med > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

quizzes and assignments

1
Q

Which region of the brain is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways?

A

Hypothalamus

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2
Q

Which of the following tissues can be classified as an endocrine gland?
A) Nervous tissue
B) Epithelial tissue
C) Adipose tissue
D) Muscle tissue

A

C) Adipose tissue

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3
Q

In response to the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes _________________ .

A

oxytocin and ADH

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4
Q

What is the basic action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

A

Stimulates secretory activity and synthesis of corticosteroids in adrenal cortex

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5
Q

The primary hormones produced by the thyroid are _______________.

A

thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin

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6
Q

Which of the following hormone’s basic action is calcium and phosphorus metabolism, construct bone, and reduce serum calcium?
A) Thyroxine
B) Calcitonin
C) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D) Glucocorticoids (cortisol)

A

B) Calcitonin

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7
Q

Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperparathyroidism
D) Hypoparathyroidism

A

A) Hyperthyroidism

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8
Q

Myxedema is the clinical manifestation of _____________.

A

hypothyroidism

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9
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that ____________.
A) creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system
B) slows down body metabolism (basal metabolic rate)
C) increases production of cortisol (a glucocorticoid)
D) disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

A

D) disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

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10
Q

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs because of a disorder within the adrenal gland itself, with insufficient cortisol release from the adrenal glands causing a wide range of problems?

A

Addison disease

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11
Q

Hypercortisolism resulting from adrenal gland oversecretion or from hyperphysiologic doses of corticosteroid medications is called _________________.

A

Cushing syndrome

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12
Q

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone, the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids?
A) Addison disease
B) Cushing disease
C) Conn syndrome
D) Acromegaly

A

C) Conn syndrome

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13
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Decreased bone resorption
B) Elevated serum calcium levels
C) Depressed serum phosphate levels
D) Hypercalciuria and hyperphosphaturia

A

A) Decreased bone resorption

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14
Q

Which of the following hormones is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress?
A) Triiodothyronine
B) Cortisol
C) Calcitonin
D) Oxytocin

A

B) Cortisol

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15
Q

What is the hallmark of Addison disease?

A

Decreased serum cortisol levels

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16
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic of hyperparathyroidism?
(increased / decreased bone resorption)

A

Increased bone resorption

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17
Q

In response to the hypothalamus, the anterior pituitary secretes _______________.

A

Andrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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18
Q

Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in every system?
A) hyperthyroidism
B) primary adrenal insufficiency
C) Adrenocortical hyperfunction
D) hyperparathyroidism

A

A) hyperthyroidism

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19
Q

Which of the following can be a cause for Cushing disease?
A) an excess of corticosteroid medication
B) an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone
C) excessive circulating of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D) calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystal deposition

A

A) an excess of corticosteroid medication

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20
Q

What is true for cortisol?
A) it is essential to norepinephrine induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress
B) It is secreted from the posterior lobe of the pituitary
C) It is essential for calcium and phosphorus metabolism and calcification of book
D) Is induces inflammation response

A

A) it is essential to norepinephrine induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress

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21
Q

Which lab (blood) tests is relevant to diagnose hyperthyroidism?

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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22
Q

Flexor tenosynovitis with stiffness can accompany carpal tunnel syndrome in persons with…..

A

hypothyroidism

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23
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that…

A

disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism.

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24
Q

What is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways?

A

hypthalamus

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25
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A) Hyposecretion of human growth hormone results in dwarfism
B) Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes gigantism in children
C) Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes acromegaly in adults
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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26
Q

Decreased levels of thyroid hormone lead to an overall slowing of the basal metabolic rate. This slowing of all body processes leads to:
A) Bradycardia
B) Decreased GI tract motility
C) Slowed neurologic functioning
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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27
Q

Which of the following occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone, the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids?

A

Conn syndrome

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28
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?
A) Impaired cognitive function
B) Infection
C) Balance and gait abnormalities
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

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29
Q

When a person has hypoglycemia episode, what clinical manifestation he/she may have?
A) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
B) Fruity breath odor
C) Tachycardia and shallow respirations
D) Feel energetic

A

C) Tachycardia and shallow respirations

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30
Q

What is TRUE about insulin resistance?
A) Commonly being seen in people with type 1 diabetes
B) Insulin binds to glucose transporter (GLUT4) in the pancreatic beta cell
C) The endogenous insulin levels can be high during the diagnosis, and it may become low as the diabetes progress
D) Glucose is stored in the liver instead of skeletal muscles.

A

C) The endogenous insulin levels can be high during the diagnosis, and it may become low as the diabetes progress

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31
Q

Which of the following is TRUE in a person with hyperglycemia?
A) High Ketones
B) Labile, irritable, nervous, weepy mood.
C) Normal urine output.
D) Tremors.

A

A) High Ketones

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32
Q

What will be an ideal A1C target for a person with type 2 diabetes?

A

< 7.0%

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33
Q

Which of the following is TRUE on diabetes?
A) Most people with diabetes are type 1.
B) The onset of type 2 diabetes is normally abrupt.
C) Only children will develop type 1 diabetes.
D) Type 2 diabetes can develop at any age.

A

D) Type 2 diabetes can develop at any age.

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34
Q

Which of the following decreases blood glucose levels?
A) Glucagon released by alpha cells in the islet of Langerhans.
B) Insulin released by beta cells in the islet of Langerhans.
C) ACTH released by the anterior pituitary gland.
D) Epinephrine released by the medulla of the adrenal gland.

A

B) Insulin released by beta cells in the islet of Langerhans.

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35
Q

If an individual has a fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dL, what can physical therapist infer from this information?
A) Normal fasting plasma glucose level
B) Diabetic fasting plasma glucose level
C) Prediabetic fasting plasma glucose level
D) This is a medical emergency.

A

A) Normal fasting plasma glucose level

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36
Q

The National Institutes of Health clinical guidelines and the WHO define overweight in adults as a BMI equal to or greater than ____________.

A

25 kg/m^2

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37
Q

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with an A1C greater than or equal to _____________ but less than or equal to __________.

A

5.7% ; 6.4%

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38
Q

In children, BMI greater than or equal to the _________ percentile signifies risk for being obese.

A

95th

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39
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?
A) Abdominal obesity and atherogenic dyslipidemia
B) Elevated blood pressure and insulin resistance
C) Prothrombotic and proinflammatory state of the blood
D) All the above

A

D) All of the above

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40
Q

Which of the following is precipitating causes of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Trauma
B) Medications i.e., Beta blockers
C) Pregnancy
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

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41
Q

In the United States, about ____________ have been diagnosed with diabetes.
A) 1 in every 3 people
B) 1 in every 5 people
C) 1 in every 10 people
D) 8 in every 10 people

A

C) 1 in every 10 people

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42
Q

In diabetes, ________ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _____________

A

polyuria; polydipisa

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43
Q

According to the natural history of type 2 diabetes, which of the following complications may already exist when people are diagnosed with diabetes?
A) Microvascular
B) Macrovascular
C) Autoimmune response
D) Osteoporosis

A

B) Macrovascular

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44
Q

Hulk checked his blood glucose levels two hours after eating a Chinese buffet last night. The glucometer showed 299 mg/dL. What would be the clinical indication from this information?
A) Hulk’s postprandial glucose is normal
B) Hulk may have developed hyperglycemia
C) Hulk might have an episode of hypoglycemia
D) This was a medical emergency

A

B) Hulk may have developed hyperglycemia

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45
Q

Releasing a series of multiple-function mediators, ______________ is involved in a wide spectrum of diseases, including not only cardiovascular and metabolic complications, such as atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes, but also inflammatory- and immune-related disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.

A

white fat

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46
Q

Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune type of diabetes that begins in middle to late adulthood, also referred to as latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)?

A

Type 1.5

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47
Q

Which of the following diseases is considered a microvascular complication for diabetes?
A) Retinopathy
B) Stroke
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Arthritis

A

A) Retinopathy

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48
Q

What is TRUE about insulin resistance?
A) Insulin cannot bine to insulin receptor, but it binds to glucose transporter (GLUT4) in the muscle cells
B) Commonly being seen in people with type 2 diabetes
C) The endogenous insulin levels normally remain high as diabetes progresses
D) Glucose is stored into fat tissue instead of liver

A

B) Commonly being seen in people with type 2 diabetes

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49
Q

Which of the following are participating causes of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Trauma
B) Inadequate insulins under stressful conditions
C) Medications such as beta blockers
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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50
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?
A) Numbness of the limbs
B) Low blood pressure
C) Decreased appetite
D) All of the above

A

A) Numbness of the limbs

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51
Q

What clinical manifestation may a patient have if his/he blood glucose is 62 mg/dL?
A) high ketones
B) Deep and rapid respirations
C) Convulsion/coma
D) All of the above

A

C) Convulsion/coma

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52
Q

What is the A1C recommendation for non-pregnant adults with diabetes?
A) Less than 5.5%
B) Less than 5.7%
C) Less than 7.0%
D) Less than 9.0%

A

C) Less than 7.0%

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53
Q

Fat accumulated in the lower body (subcutaneous fat) results in a ___________ figure, whereas fat in the abdominal area (visceral fat) produces more of an _______________ figure

A

pear-shaped; apple-shape

54
Q

_________________ is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity

A

Bariatrics

55
Q

Which of the following islet cells produce insulin in the pancreas?
A) Alpha cells
B) Beta cells
C) Delta cells
D) Epsilon cells

A

B) Beta cells

56
Q

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with a fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to _________, but less than or equal to ________
A) 100 mg/dL; 125 mg/dL
B) 126 mg/dL; 135 mg/dL
C) 5.5%; 6.0%
D) 5.7%; 6.4%

A

A) 100 mg/dL; 125 mg/dL

57
Q

In the united states about ____ in ________ people have been diagnosed with diabetes

A

1 in every 10

58
Q

what is the suffix for proton pump inhibitors?

A

-prazole

59
Q

what is the primary indication of proton pump inhibitors?

A

gastric ulcers

60
Q

what is the suffix for histamine H2-receptor blockers?

A

-idine

61
Q

what is the primary indication for histamine H2-receptor blockers?

A

gastric ulcers

62
Q

What is the suffix for oral antidiabetics (sulfonylurea group)?

A

-amide

63
Q

what is the primary indication for oral antidiabeteics (sulfonylurea group)?

A

Antidiabetic (type 2 diabetes)

64
Q

What is the suffix for bisphosphonates?

A

-dronate

65
Q

What is the primary indication for biphosphonates?

A

osteoporosis

66
Q

The term ____________ was often applied to opioid compounds because when taken, they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects, and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.

A

narcotic

67
Q

The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic) analgesics is from………

A

the opium poppy

68
Q

Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as:
A) glucocorticoids (cortisol)
B) endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)
C) the catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
D) anabolic steroids (testosterone)

A

B) endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)

69
Q

Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the:
A) alpha adrenergic receptor
B) alpha opioid receptor
C) mu opioid receptor
D) beta opioid receptor

A

C) mu opioid receptor

70
Q

Drugs such as butorphanol, nalbuphine, and pentazocine may stimulate certain opioid receptors while blocking or only partially activating other receptors. These drugs:
A) may have fewer addictive qualities than strong opioids such as morphine
B) all the above are true
C) are known as mixed agonist-antagonists
D) may produce more psychotropic effects (hallucinations, vivid dreams) than other opioids
E) may produce adequate analgesia with less risk of side effects such as respiratory depression

A

B) all the above are true

71
Q

By blocking all opioid receptors, opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to:
A) treat severe chronic pain
B) treat severe, acute postoperative pain
C) treat diarrhea
D) treat opioid overdose

A

D) treat opioid overdose

72
Q

Opioid drugs exert their effects on afferent pain pathways by binding to neuronal receptors that in turn:
A) increase excitability (depolarize) postsynaptic neurons
B) decrease production of endogenous chemicals known as catecholamines
C) decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals
D) all the above are true

A

C) decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals

73
Q

Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g., injected into an inflamed joint) because:
A) opioids decrease the production of inflammatory substances in peripheral tissues
B) opioids cause vasoconstriction in peripheral tissues
C) opioids increase vasodilation in peripheral tissues
D) opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.

A

D) opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.

74
Q

When used to treat pain, opioids can be administered by all the following routes EXCEPT
A) intravenously
B) inhalation
C) transdermally
D) intrathecally

A

B) inhalation

75
Q

In addition to their use as analgesics, opioid drugs can also be administered:
A) as a cough suppressant
B) as a preoperative medication
C) to treat severe diarrhea
D) all the above are true
E) as a general anesthetic

A

D) all the above are true

76
Q

Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?
A) mood changes (euphoria)
B) constipation
C) orthostatic hypotension
D) sedation
E) increased respiration

A

E) increased respiration

77
Q

Certain patients can develop “tolerance” to opioid analgesics, which is indicated by:
A) the onset of withdrawal symptoms if the drug is suddenly discontinued
B) the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods
C) the fact that the patient may still crave the drug several years after he/she has ceased taking it
D) all the above are true

A

B) the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods

78
Q

Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone:
A) has opioid-like effects even though methadone is not an opioid
B) has mild withdrawal symptoms
C) methadone does not cross the blood-brain barrier
D) is a strong opioid antagonist

A

B) has mild withdrawal symptoms

79
Q

The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches, shivering, sweating, and so forth) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of
A) psychological dependence
B) anaphylaxis
C) physical dependence
D) drug tolerance

A

C) physical dependence

80
Q

Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia) when given opioid drugs. This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due to _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.
A) decreased activity of acetylcholine
B) increased activity of GABA
C) decreased activity of substance P
D) increased activity of glutamate

A

D) increased activity of glutamate

81
Q

NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT:
A) the ability to decrease inflammation
B) the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma
C) the ability to decrease the elevated body temperature associated with fever (antipyresis)
D) the ability to decrease blood clotting by inhibiting platelet aggregation (anticoagulation)
E) the ability to relieve mild-to-moderate pain (analgesia)

A

C) the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma

82
Q

Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of
A) catecholamines
B) leukotrienes
C) endogenous opioids
D) prostaglandins

A

D) prostaglandins

83
Q

Prostaglandins are
A) a group of lipidlike compounds that exhibit a wide range of physiological activities
B) carbohydrates that regulate cell division
C) steroids that increase cellular metabolism
D) a specific type of lymphocyte involved in the inflammatory process

A

A) a group of lipidlike compounds that exhibit a wide range of physiological activities

84
Q

NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
B) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; cyclooxygenase

A

B) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase

85
Q

The _____ form of the cyclooxygenase enzyme seems to be responsible for producing beneficial prostaglandins that help maintain or protect function in specific tissues such as the stomach and kidneys.
A) COX-3
B) COX-2
C) COX-1
D) COX-4

A

C) COX-1

86
Q

In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent
A) Ischemic strokes
B) Heart attacks
C) All the above are true
D) Colorectal cancer

A

C) All the above are true

87
Q

In theory, a COX-2 selective drug such as celecoxib will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because
A) COX-2 drugs are coated so that the drug does not dissolve until it reaches the small intestine.
B) patients taking COX-2 drugs are older than patients taking traditional NSAIDs.
C) COX-2 drugs are less acidic than traditional NSAIDs.
D) COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach.

A

D) COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach.

88
Q

Aspirin ______ be used to treat fever in children because this drug may cause _____.
A) should; elevated body temperature
B) should not; elevated body temperature
C) should; Reye syndrome
D) should not; Reye syndrome

A

D) should not; Reye syndrome

89
Q

It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.
A) should not; enhance bone healing
B) should; inhibit bone healing
C) should not; inhibit bone healing
D) should; enhance bone healing

A

C) should not; inhibit bone healing

90
Q

Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx) and valdecoxib (Bextra) have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as
A) liver failure
B) skeletal muscle inflammation and myopathy
C) heart attack and stroke
D) brain tumors
E) kidney failure

A

C) heart attack and stroke

91
Q

Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with
A) Drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec])
B) Histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium)
D) All the above

A

D) All the above

92
Q

Which of the following is a commonly encountered problem with the use of corticosteroids?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Increased bone growth
C) Depressed mood
D) Hypoglycemia

A

A) Hyperglycemia

93
Q

The lower GI tract includes the __________________.
A) large intestines only
B) stomach, duodenum, small and large intestines
C) small and large intestines
D) duodenum, small and large intestines

A

C) small and large intestines

94
Q

____________ occurs when nerve endings in the stomach and other parts of the body are irritated and usually precedes vomiting.
A) Nausea
B) Malaise
C) Anorexia
D) Dysphagia

A

A) Nausea

95
Q

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal sign or symptom associated with strenuous exercise?
A) Abdominal cramping
B) Diaphoresis
C) Anorexia
D) Constipation

A

A) Abdominal cramping

96
Q

Which of the following is the most common neurogenic cause of diarrhea?
A) Central nervous system lesions (e.g., multiple sclerosis, Parkinson disease)
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Dementia
D) Spinal cord tumors or lesions

A

B) Hyperthyroidism

97
Q

Which of the following medications is a common cause of constipation?
A) Magnesium (often found in antacids)
B) Antibiotics
C) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
D) Diuretics and opioids

A

D) Diuretics and opioids

98
Q

What drugs are the most common causes of reactive gastritis?
A) Hypertensive medications and aspirin
B) Aspirin and peptides
C) Aspirin and NSAIDs
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and peptides

A

C) Aspirin and NSAIDs

99
Q

Which of the following is a failure to relax the smooth muscle fibers of the gastrointestinal tract?
A) Vomiting
B) Achalasia
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhea

A

B) Achalasia

100
Q

Which of the following is least likely to refer pain to the left shoulder?
A) Ruptured spleen
B) Perforation of the viscus
C) Liver cancer
D) A laparoscopic procedure

A

C) Liver cancer

101
Q

What type of hiatal hernia is the most common?
A) Paraesophageal
B) Paraspinal
C) Sliding
D) Gliding

A

C) Sliding

102
Q

What types of exercise would increase intraabdominal pressure?
A) Lifting
B) All of the above
C) Bending over
D) Straining

A

B) All of the above

103
Q

One of the most common symptoms of a hiatal hernia is _____________.
A) internal hemorrhoids
B) heartburn or reflux
C) ulcerative colitis
D) peptic ulcer

A

B) heartburn or reflux

104
Q

Which of the following exercises is contraindicated for an individual with a known hiatal hernia?
A) Bicycling
B) Any exercise that causes Valsalva in the supine position
C) Swimming
D) Squats

A

B) Any exercise that causes Valsalva in the supine position

105
Q

What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Nicotine or cigarette smoke
B) Peppermint, fatty foods, citrus products (including tomatoes), spicy foods, garlic, onions
C) Carbonated drinks, alcohol and coffee
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

106
Q

What type of medication is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, blocks acid pumps and prevent stomach acid production?
A) Antacid
B) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
C) NSAID
D) Histamine 2-receptor blocker

A

B) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

107
Q

Which of the following is not considered an extraesophageal manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Laryngitis
B) Heartburn
C) Cough
D) Asthma

A

B) Heartburn

108
Q

__________ occurs when the peptic ulcer erodes into adjacent organs such as the small bowel, pancreas, or liver.
A) Perfusion
B) Obstruction
C) Perforation
D) Penetration

A

D) Penetration

109
Q

_______________ is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the mucosa of the colon, typically involving the rectum, which can then advance proximally in a continuous manner to involve the entire colon.
A) Appendicitis
B) Ulcerative colitis
C) Crohn disease
D) Diverticular disease

A

B) Ulcerative colitis

110
Q

In ulcerative colitis, intestinal lesions are usually found in which locations?
A) Rectum and left colon
B) Small intestine and left colon
C) Small intestine and rectum
D) Right and left colon

A

A) Rectum and left colon

111
Q

What is the most common extraintestinal finding in inflammatory bowel disease?
A) Butterfly rash
B) Acromegaly
C) Paget disease
D) Arthritis

A

D) Arthritis

112
Q

What is the primary indication or desired effect of Omeprazole?
A) To treat diabetes
B) To treat osteoporosis
C) To treat gastric ulcers
D) To treat inflammation

A

C) To treat gastric ulcers

113
Q

Which of the following is Bisphosphonates that can treat osteoporosis?
A) Alendronate
B) Lansoprazole
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Cimetidine

A

A) Alendronate

114
Q

The most common presenting symptoms of acute appendicitis occur in a classic sequence of abdominal pain over _______________.
A) left upper quadrant
B) right upper quadrant
C) left lower quadrant
D) right lower quadrant

A

D) right lower quadrant

115
Q

Why is the stool normally brown?

A

Bile converted from bilirubin causes brown coloration of the stool

116
Q

What do light-colored stools and urine the color of tea or cola most likely indicate?
A) Colon dysfunction
B) Liver dysfunction
C) Kidney dysfunction
D) Small intestine dysfunction

A

B) Liver dysfunction

117
Q

Which of the following is one of the most common signs and symptoms of hepatic disease?
A) Light urine
B) Left upper quadrant abdominal pain
C) Hepatic osteodystrophy
D) All of the above

A

C) Hepatic osteodystrophy

118
Q

What is the cause of jaundice?
A) Insufficient bilirubin production
B) Defects in bilirubin metabolism (in uptake by the liver or conjugation)
C) Normal bile flow
D) All of the above

A

B) Defects in bilirubin metabolism (in uptake by the liver or conjugation)

119
Q

Progressive loss of normal tissue that is replaced with fibrosis and nodular regeneration is a characteristic of ______________.
A) Cirrhosis
B) Diverticular disease
C) Appendicitis
D) Hepatic encephalopathy

A

A) Cirrhosis

120
Q

Bile helps in alkalinizing the intestinal contents and plays a role in the emulsification, absorption, and digestion of _______________.
A) carbohydrates
B) fat
C) protein
D) vitamins and minerals

A

B) fat

121
Q

What is the treatment of choice for tense ascites?
A) Semi-Fowler position and antibiotics
B) Diuretics and bed rest
C) Paracentesis and diuretics
D) Dialysis and diuretics

A

C) Paracentesis and diuretics

122
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for compensated cirrhosis?
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) Less than 20%
D) Greater than 90%

A

D) Greater than 90%

123
Q

Which of the following occur in association with jaundice?
A) Dark urine and light stools
B) Dark urine and dark stools
C) Light urine and light stools
D) Light urine and dark stools

A

A) Dark urine and light stools

124
Q

The liver is the major site of production proteins that are associated with _____.
A) manufacture of plasma
B) chronic infection control
C) manufacture of red blood cells
D) acute inflammatory reactions

A

D) acute inflammatory reactions

125
Q

Which of the following is associated with overproduction of bilirubin?
A) Chronic hepatic disease
B) Viral hepatitis
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) Gilbert syndrome

A

C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

126
Q

What type of hepatitis virus currently has no vaccine available?
A) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
C) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
D) Hepatitis D virus (HDV)

A

A) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

127
Q

What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatitis?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Hypertension
C) Acetaminophen toxicity
D) Alcohol abuse

A

C) Acetaminophen toxicity

128
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests are both for liver function?
A) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
B) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and hemoglobin A1C
C) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and creatinine
D) All of the above

A

A) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) and lactate

129
Q

Which of the following is true when a person ages?
A) Increase gastric juice production in the stomach
B) Diarrhea is more common than constipation
C) Liver requires more time to process medications
D) Liver becomes more tolerant to damage

A

C) Liver requires more time to process medications

130
Q

What is also called flapping tremors or liver flap?
A) Ataxia
B) Aphasia
C) Asterixis
D) Apoptosis

A

C) Asterixis

131
Q

What is Cholecystitis?
A) Inflammation of bile duct
B) Inflammation of gallbladder
C) Stones in common bile duct
D) Stoppage or suppression of bile flow

A

B) Inflammation of gallbladder

Internal Med (4 decks)

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