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BIO 225 > EXAM 4 > Flashcards

EXAM 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperosmotic solution

A
  • solution has more solute
  • cell has less solute
  • water flows out of cell
  • cell shrinks, dries out, dies
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2
Q

hyposmotic solution

A
  • solution has less solute
  • water flows into cell
  • cell expands, explodes, lyses
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3
Q

The main contributors of osmolarity in blood and sea water are ____ & ____

A

sodium and chloride

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4
Q

In marine (saltwater) environments, animals tend to ___ salts and ___ water

A

gain salts, lose water

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5
Q

in freshwater environments, animals tend to ___ salts and ___ water

A

lose salts, gain water

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6
Q

because many animals move between environment they must be able to ___

A

alter their homeostatic mechanisms

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7
Q

Two strategies to meet osmotic challenges are ______

A
  • Osmoconformer

- Osmoregulator

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8
Q

characteristics of an osmoconformer

A
  • internal and external osmolarity are similar

- e.g.: marine invertebrates (clam)

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9
Q

two types of osmoconformers

A
  • ionoconformer

- ionoregulator

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10
Q

ionoconformer

A

same ions and same osomolarity

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11
Q

ionoregulator

A

different ions but same osmolarity

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12
Q

characteristics of an osmoregulator

A
  • osmolarity constant regardless of external environment

- most vertebrates

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13
Q

stenohaline

A
  • can tolerate a narrow range of external ion levels
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14
Q

euryhaline

A
  • can tolerate a wide range of external ion levels
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15
Q

three groups of solutes

A
  • perturbing solute
  • compatible solute
  • counteracting solutes
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16
Q

perturbing solute

A
  • damages enzyme activity
  • lowers enzyme binding affinity
  • increases Km
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17
Q

compatible solute

A
  • increase does not really effect enzyme activity or Km
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18
Q

counteracting solutes

A
  • Two solutes that balance each other’s activity out
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19
Q

Seawater fish…

A
  • hyperosmolar environment
  • lose water through osmosis through gills and other parts of body surface
  • drink water
  • gills to remove NaCl
  • urine - small volume
  • bony fish use gills to remove sodium chloride
  • expel ions in feces as well
  • Excretion of salt ions and small amounts of water in urine
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20
Q

Freshwater fish…

A
  • generate large amounts of diluted urine
  • lose ions
  • don’t drink more water
  • gills - uptake NaCl
  • urine - large volume, highly diluted
  • uptake of water and some ions in food
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21
Q

Apical Membrane faces____

A

faces environment

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22
Q

basolateral membrane faces___

A

faces internals

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23
Q

four features of transport epithelia

A
  • asymmetrical distribution of membrane transporters
  • cells interconnected, impermeable, little leaking
  • high cell diversity
  • abundant mitochondria
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24
Q

transcellular transport:

A

transport in, cross cell, leave other side

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25
Q

paracellular transport:

A

some transport that occurs in the tight junctions between cells

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26
Q

aquaporins allow ____ molecules per minute to pass

A

1 billion

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27
Q

Fish gill lamellae are composed of

A
  • mitochondria-rich chloride cells
  • pavement cells (m. rich)
  • pavement cells (m. poor)
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28
Q

fish that migrate between saltwater and freshwater

A

diadromous

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29
Q

____ functions change during migration of fish between environments

A

ion transport

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30
Q

ion transport changes in fish are controlled by____

A

hormones

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31
Q

land animals can reduce water with layers of ____

A

hydrophobic molecules

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32
Q

Three types of hydrophobic coatings on land animals

A
  • mucus
  • cornified stratum corneum with keratin (e.g.: amniotes)
  • cuticle with chitin (e.g.: arthropods)
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33
Q

Three sources of water - land animals

A
  • dietary water
  • metabolic water (oxidative phosphorylation)
  • drinking
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34
Q

mL water gain (rat)

A
  • food (0.2mL)

- metabolism (1.8mL)

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35
Q

mL water loss (rat)

A
  • feces (0.09mL)
  • urine (0.45mL)
  • evaporation (1.46mL)
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36
Q

mL water gain (human)

A
  • food (750mL)
  • liquid (1500mL)
  • metabolism (250mL)
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37
Q

mL water loss (human)

A
  • feces (100mL)
  • urine (1500mL)
  • Evaporation (900mL)
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38
Q

3 kinds of nitrogen excretion

A
  • ammonium
  • uric acid
  • urea
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39
Q

3 categories of animals based on nitrogen excretion method

A
  • ammonioteles (ammonium) [invertebrates, molluscs, aq)
  • uricoteles (uric acid) [arthropods, reptiles, birds]
  • ureoteles (urea) [all mammals, some bony fish]
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40
Q

ammonia excretion advantages

A
  • deamination of amino acids

- requires little energy (1 ATP)

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41
Q

ammonia excretion disadvantages

A
  • highly toxic

- requires large volumes of water to store and excrete

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42
Q

uric acid excretion advantages

A
  • few toxic effects

- can be excreted in small volume of water

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43
Q

uric acid excretion disadvantages

A
  • energetically expensive (7 ATP)
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44
Q

urea excretion advantages

A
  • only slightly toxic

- relatively inexpensive to produce

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45
Q

urea excretion disadvantages

A
  • perturbing solute
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46
Q

6 roles of vertebrate kidneys in homeostasis

A
  • ion balance
  • osmotic balance
  • blood pressure
  • pH balance
  • excretion of metabolic wastes and toxins
  • hormone production
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47
Q

nephron is composed of

A
  • renal tubule

- vasculature (system of blood vessels)

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48
Q

4 processes of urine production

A
  • filtration (at glomerulus)
  • reabsorption (specific molecules in filtrate removed)
  • secretion (specific molecules added to the filtrate)
  • excretion (urine excreted from body)
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49
Q

kidney filtration

A
  • liquid components of blood filtered into bowman’s capsule
  • water and small solutes cross glomerular wall
  • blood cells and large macromolecules are not filtered
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50
Q

glomerular capillaries are very _____

A

leaky

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51
Q

___ with ____ form filtration structure

A

podocytes with foot processes

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52
Q

_________ control blood pressure and filtration within glomerulus

A

mesangial cells

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53
Q

filtrate flows from Bowman’s capsule into ______

A

proximal tubule

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54
Q

primary urine

A

initial filtrate filtered in bowman’s capsule (is isosomotic to blood)

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55
Q

most ___ and ___ in primary urine is reabsorbed using ___ and ____

A

water, salt

transport proteins, energy

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56
Q

renal threshold

A

concentration of a specific solute that will overwhelm reabsorptive capacity

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57
Q

rate of reabsorption is limited by _______

A

number of transporters

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58
Q

each zone of the nephron has ________ for ____ solutes

A

transporters for specific solutes

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59
Q

kidney secretion

A
  • reverse of reabsorption

- molecules are removed from blood and transported into filtrate

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60
Q

secreted molecules in the kidney

A

K+, NH4+, H+, pharmaceuticals, water-soluble vitamins

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61
Q

secretion requires _______ and ______

A

transport proteins, energy

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62
Q

Tubule regions of the kidney

A
  • proximal tubule
  • loop of henle
  • distal tuble
  • collecting duct
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63
Q

proximal tubule

A
  • most of solute and water reabsorption
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64
Q

loop of henle

A
  • descending limb

- ascending limb

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65
Q

distal tubule

A
  • reabsorption completed for most solutes
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66
Q

collecting duct

A
  • drains multiple nephrons

- carries urine to renal pelvis

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67
Q

Descending limb is permeable to ____

A

H2O

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68
Q

Descending limb…

A
  • water is reabsorbed
  • volume of primary urine decreases
  • primary urine becomes more concentrated
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69
Q

Ascending limb is impermeable to ____

A

H2O

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70
Q

Ascending limb…

A
  • ions are reabsorbed

- primary urine becomes dilute

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71
Q

reabsorbed ions accumulate in the _______

A

interstitial fluid (creates osmotic gradient in the medulla)

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72
Q

blood vs. filtrate in loop of henle runs ______

A

countercurrent

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73
Q

Distal tubule can reabsorb ____ and ____

A

salts and water

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74
Q

distal tubule can secrete _______

A

potassium

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75
Q

Transport function in distal tubule controlled by _____

A

hormones

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76
Q

____________ increases Ca2+ reabsorption

A

parathormone

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77
Q

____________ increases K+ secretion

A

aldosterone

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78
Q

after urine is produced, it leaves____ and enters _____ via _____

A

kidney, urinary bladder, ureters

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79
Q

urine leaves bladder via ______

A

urethra

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80
Q

opening and closing of urethra sphincters controlled by _________

A

spinal cord reflex arc (micturition reflex) (can be influenced by voluntary controls)

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81
Q

osmotic concentration of final urine depends on ________

A

permeability (aquaporins) in collecting duct

82
Q

collecting duct permeability is regulated by ______-

A

vasopressin

83
Q

when collecting duct is impermeable…

A
  • water not reabsorbed

- dilute urine excreted

84
Q

when collecting duct is permeable…

A
  • water reabsorbed from collecting duct

- concentrated urine excreted

85
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) determined by____

A

pressure across glomerular wall

86
Q

three main forces determining GFR

A
  • glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
  • Oncotic pressure - osmotic pressure due to protein concentration in blood
87
Q

Intrinsic regulators of GFR

A
  • Myogenic regulation
  • tubuloglomuerular feedback
  • mesangial control
88
Q

Myogenic regulation

A
  • constriction/dilation of afferent arteriole
89
Q

tubuloglomerular feedback

A
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus
90
Q

________ cells in distal tubule

A

macula densa

91
Q

________ cells in afferent arteriole

A

juxtaglomerular

92
Q

_______ cells of distal tubule control diameter of ____________

A

macula densa cells, afferent arteriole

93
Q

extrinsic regulators of GFR

A
  • hormones
    vasopressin (ADH)
    Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (RAA)
94
Q

Vasopressin increases ___________

A

cell permeability

95
Q

Aldosterone Stimulates ________-

A

Na+ reabsorption

96
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells secrete enzyme ____

97
Q

3 ways secretion of renin is controlled

A
  • baroreceptors in jux. cells responding to low BP
  • sympathetic neurons in CV control center of medulla oblongata trigger renin (resp. to low BP)
  • macula densa in distal tubule respond to decreases in flow by releasing paracrine signal inducing Jux. cell release
98
Q

Renin is secreted when ___________ or ________

A

BP, GFR is lower than normal

99
Q

Renin converts ________ to __________

A

angiotensinogen, angiotensin I

100
Q

_________ converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

A

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

101
Q

Diet Energy Flowchart

A

Gross energy > Digestible energy > metabolizable energy > net energy

102
Q

four categories of essential nutrients

A
  • essential amino acids
  • essential fatty acids
  • vitamins
  • minerals
103
Q

an adequate diet must supply…

A
  • chemical energy
  • organic molecules as building blocks
  • essential nutrients
104
Q

there are ____ essential amino acids

105
Q

animal proteins are ______

A

complete (include all 8 essential AAs)

106
Q

plant proteins are ______

A

incomplete (lacking 1 or more essential AA)

107
Q

Animals can make almost all fatty acids from ____

A

Acetyl CoA

108
Q

Omega 3s must be ingested as ____________

A

linolenic (18:3 omega 3) (plant seeds/fish oils)

109
Q

Omega 6s must be ingested as _________

A

linolenic (18:2 omega 6) (plant seeds)

110
Q

Primary function of Vitamin B complex

A

coenzymes in key metabolic processes

111
Q

primary function of vitamin C

A

production of connective tissue

112
Q

Four fat-soluble vitamins

113
Q

Vitamin A:

A

visual pigments of eye

114
Q

Vitamin D:

A

aids in calcium absorption, bone formation

115
Q

Vitamin E:

A

protect membrane phospholipids from oxidation

116
Q

Vitamin K:

A

blood-clotting

117
Q

Excessive amounts of fat-soluble vitamins are deposited in ________

118
Q

Primary Minerals

A
  • calcium (nerves and muscles)
  • phosphorus (cytochromes, cell. respiration)
  • iron (cell. resp, oxygen binding in blood cells)
  • iodine (thyroid hormones)
  • sodium, potassium, chloride (nerve function, osmol. balance)
119
Q

Malnourishment

A

diet lacking in essential nutrients

120
Q

rice diet leads to

A

vitamin A deficiency

121
Q

4 layers of GI track cells

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • circular smooth muscle
  • longitudinal smooth muscle
122
Q

mucous neck cells

A

secrete mucous to protect cells from acidic content

123
Q

parietal cells

A

secrete hydrochloric acid

124
Q

chief cells

A

secrete the protease pepsin

125
Q

enteroendrocrine cells

A

secrete hormones into the blood

126
Q

________ is the major site of digestion and nutrient absorption

A

small intestine

127
Q

three primary segments of the small intestine

A
  • duodenum (primary site of digestion)
  • jejunum
  • ileum
128
Q

cell types in the villi of the intestine

A
  • enterocytes
  • goblet cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • paneth cells
129
Q

two ways to increase surface area in the small intestine

A
  • increasing gut length

- increasing surface undulations

130
Q

exocrine pancreas secretes

A

bicarbonate

131
Q

digestion enzymes

A
  • lipases (breaks down triglycerides/phospholipids into fatty acids)
  • proteases (proteins into shorter poly peptides)
  • amylases (polysacc. into oligosacc.)
  • nucleases (break down DNA into nucleotides)
132
Q

digestion starts in _______

133
Q

saliva in the mouth produces ______

A

amylase (enzyme that degrades carbohydrates)

134
Q

functions of saliva

A
  • lubricates food
  • dissolves food so nutrients can bind to gustatory receptors
  • cleanses the mouth with antimicrobial properties
  • contain enzymes that initiate digestion
  • salivation is controlled by nerve signals (Para: stimulates, sympathetic: inhibits)
135
Q

Bile

A
  • exocrine secretion into intestine
  • digestive chemicals/liver waste products
  • produced in liver
  • stored in gallbladder
136
Q

bile is made up of

A
  • phospholipids (aid in the uptake of lipids)

- bile salts (emulsify fats)

137
Q

____ breaks proteins into large polypeptides

138
Q

_______ breaks large polypeptides into dipeptides and amino acids

A

trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase

139
Q

carbohydrate transport changes

A

high glucose levels cause GLUT transporters to be attached to apical side of cell (by enterocytes), increasing glucose uptake

140
Q

3 hormones that control appetite

A
  • leptin (secreted by white adipose tissue when high lipid content)
  • ghrelin (secreted by stomach when empty, stims. appetite)
  • peptide YY (secreted by colon when full, suppress appetite)
141
Q

neurotransmitters that stimulate appetite

A
  • neuropeptide Y
  • agouti-related peptide
  • gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
142
Q

neurotransmitter that suppresses appetite

A
  • proopiomelanocortin (POMC)
143
Q

Gut motility is controlled by_______

A

nerves and hormones

144
Q

pacemaker cells controlling gut motility

A

interstitial cells of Cajal

145
Q

resting muscle tone

A
  • controls lumen diameter

- regulated by intrinsic pathways and NT release

146
Q

nerve network between smooth muscle layers in intestine

A

Myenteric plexus (receives signals from CNS)

147
Q

optimal speed of gut motility

A
  • fast enough to minimize amount of indigestible material in the GI tract
  • slow enough to allow time for digestion and assimilation
  • rate varies according to diet
148
Q

period immediately after feeding is called

A

postprandial period

149
Q

Starvation response

A
  • conserve glucose to protect glucose-dependent tissues (example: nervous tissue)
  • muscles shift to lipid metabolism
  • after lipid and glucose stores used up, protein breakdown accelerates
  • amino acids are converted to fatty acids and carbs
  • degradation of skeletal muscle
150
Q

Hyperphagy

A

animals experiencing phases where they eat more than usual

151
Q

BMI calculation

A

body weight (kg)/body length^2 (m^2)

152
Q

2 types of asexual reproduction

A
  • clones

- parthenogenesis

153
Q

clones

A
  • buds form from somatic tissue

- single individual can produce a colony

154
Q

parthenogenesis

A
  • ova and the female reproductive system

- no male gamete required (e.g. whiptail lizard)

155
Q

hermaphroditism

A
  • capacity to produce both eggs and sperm
  • simultaneous hermaphrodites
  • serial hermaphrodites
156
Q

simultaneous hermaphrodites

A
  • can produce eggs and sperm
157
Q

serial hermaphrodites

A
  • change sex in response to environmental cues
158
Q

protogynous

A
  • females becoming males
159
Q

proandrous

A
  • males becoming females
160
Q

why sexual reproduction?

A
  • generates genomic variation at three levels

- creates population of distinct genotypes

161
Q

5 elements of sexual reproduction

A
  • sex determination
  • gametogenesis
  • mating
  • fertilization
  • development and growth
162
Q

sex determination - mammals

A
  • presence of Y chromosome
  • male: XY
  • female: XX
163
Q

sex determination - birds/butterflies

A
  • female: ZW

- male: ZZ

164
Q

sex determination - honeybee

A
  • fertilized become: females

- unfertilized become: males

165
Q

Sex determination can be impacted by ______

A

temperature

166
Q

in TSD, cold weather causes more _______ offspring, warm weather causes more_______ offspring

A

Cold:
Warm:

167
Q

3 reproductive strategies (determined by fate of Ova)

A
  • ovipary
  • vivipary
  • ovovivipary
168
Q

ovipary

A
  • ova expelled from body
  • all dev. occurs externally using egg for resources
  • external fert: fish
  • internal fert: birds/reptiles
169
Q

vivipary

A
  • young develop within female
  • fertilization internal
  • mammals and sporadically in others
170
Q

ovo-vivipary

171
Q

reproductive hormones are responsible for

A
  • development
  • sexual maturation
  • gametogenesis
  • mating
172
Q

GnRH synthesized/released from ________

A

hypothalamus

173
Q

GnRH delivered to ________

A

anterior pituitary

174
Q

GnRH regulates _____________ synthesis and release

175
Q

Gonadotropins are _____ hormones that control _____ hormone synthesis in ____

A

protein, steroid, gonads

176
Q

3 examples of gonadotropins

A

FSH,LH,hCG

177
Q

______ steroid hormones produced in male gonads

A

androgens (example: testosterone)

178
Q

_______ steroid hormones produced in female gonads

A

estrogens (example: estradiol)

179
Q

Male Reproductive tract pathway

A
  • seminiferous tubules
  • efferent ductules
  • epididymis
  • vas deferens
  • seminal vesicle
  • prostate gland
  • bulbourethral gland
180
Q

________ are interstitial cells that produce testosterone

A

leydig cells

181
Q

__________ are spermatoza in various stages of development

A

spermatogenic cells

182
Q

______- cells that fill gaps between spermatogenic cells and serve many purposes

A

sertoli cells

183
Q

3 things that happen when spermatids become sperm

A
  • lose much of their cytoplasm
  • develop an axoneme at base of flagellum
  • condense DNA in nucleus
184
Q

sperm mature and gain capacity to swim in the _______

A

epididymis

185
Q

things added to sperm during ejaculation

A
  • alkaline seminal fluid (seminal vessicles)
  • nutrients, mainly citrate (prostate)
  • mucus for lubricant (bulbourethral gland)
186
Q

Erection control pathway

A
  • Nitrous Oxide from neuron
  • Guanylate cyclase activates
  • GTP to cGMP
  • PKG activates
  • vascular smooth muscles relax
187
Q

two ways to affect sperm activity

A
  • chemokinetic molecules

- chemotaxic molecules

188
Q

chemokinetic molecules stimulate ______

A

sperm to swim faster

189
Q

chemotaxic molecules stimulate ______

A

sperm to swim towards high concentrations of the molecule

190
Q

_________ stores sperm long-term in female

A

spermatheca

191
Q

Chorion:

A

outermost layer; gas exchange

192
Q

Amnion:

A

surrounds embryo; fluid that acts as cushion, provides favorable ionic/osmotic environment

193
Q

Allantois:

A

vascularized, toilet, nitrogenous waste

194
Q

yolk sac:

A

surrounds yolk, secretes digestive enzymes

195
Q

yolk:

A

provides nutrients, proteins/lipids

196
Q

estrous cycle

A
  • reproductivity coincides with specific phase of cycle

- minimal uterine tissue lost

197
Q

menstrual cycle

A
  • reproductivity coincides with many phases of cycle

- substantial uterine tissue lost

198
Q

4 cycles of estrous cycle

A
  • estrus (in heat)
  • metestrus (CL forms, U-line begins appearing)
  • diestrus (CL regression, U-line reorganized)
  • proestrus (follicles grow, duration of 1-21 days depending on species)
199
Q

3 phases of menstrual cycle

A
  • follicular (increasing GnRH/FSH/estrogen)
  • ovulation (oocyte breaks off)
  • luteal (CL forms, increased progesterone)
200
Q

two types of gestation

A
  • altricial

- precocial

201
Q

altricial gestation

A
  • short period
  • large litters
  • young not fully developed
202
Q

precocial gestation

A
  • long period
  • fewer offspring
  • young fully developed

BIO 225 (4 decks)

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