Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

these 2 systems share responsibility for maintaining homeostasis throughout the body.

A

The nervous system and the endocrine system

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2
Q

is specialized for rapid transmission of signals from one part of the body to another part of the body by way of nerves

A

nervous system

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3
Q

is specialized for sending chemical messengers from glands to target cells by way of blood stream

A

endocrine system

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4
Q

Sensory receptors

A

detect internal and/or external stimuli.

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5
Q

Incoming sensory information

A

gets processed and analyzed by neural integration.

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6
Q

Outgoing signals

A

are sent to effectors, which carry out the required response.

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7
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) consists of

A

the brain and the spinal cord.

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8
Q

The central nervous system (CNS)

A

integrates and correlates sensory information, generates thoughts and emotions, forms and stores memories, stimulates muscles to contract and glands to secrete

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9
Q

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of

A

cranial nerves and spinal nerves that are located outside of the central nervous system.

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10
Q

somatic nervous system (SNS)sensory (afferent) component

A

carry towards the CNS

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11
Q

somatic nervous system (SNS) motor (efferent) component

A

carry away from the CNS

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12
Q

autonomic nervous system (ANS) sensory (afferent) component

A

contains neurons that carry information from visceral receptors toward CNS

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13
Q

autonomic nervous system (ANS) motor (efferent) component

A

contains neurons that conduct nerve signals from CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands

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14
Q

autonomic nervous system (ANS) motor (efferent) component sympathetic division

A

controls processes that tend to arouse the body and involve the expenditure of energy

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15
Q

autonomic nervous system (ANS) motor (efferent) component parasympathetic division

A

controls processes that tend to have a calming effect on the body and restore/conserve energy

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16
Q

Excitability

A

describes the ability of a nerve cell to respond to environmental stimuli.

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17
Q

Conductivity

A

describes the ability of a nerve cell to transmit signals to another nerve cell.

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18
Q

Nerve cells (neurons)

A

highly specialized components of the nervous system. (they are long lived; they cannot divide, so they cannot be replaced; they have a high metabolic rate)

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19
Q

Functional Classification of Neurons

A

is based upon the direction that a nerve signal travels in reference to the central nervous system.

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20
Q

Sensory (afferent) neurons

A

transmit signals about light, heat, pressure, and/or chemicals from various receptors toward the cental nervous system.

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21
Q

Interneurons (association neurons)

A

within the cental nervous system carry out integrative function by transferring signals between sensory neurons and motor neurons.

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22
Q

Motor (efferent) neurons

A

send signals away from the cental nervous system to various effectors, such as muscles or glands.

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23
Q

the cell body (soma; perikaryon) contains

A

a single, centrally located nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm and most of the organelles.

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24
Q

cytoskeleton

A

contains microtubules and actin neurofibrils that form Nissl bodies, compartments in rough ER

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25
Q

Nissl bodies

A

dark staining regions involved in protein synthesis

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26
Q

mature neurons

A

lack centrioles, which renders them incapable of undergoing mitosis

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27
Q

Unspecialized cells in CNS

A

can develop new neurons

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28
Q

Dendrites

A

short, branching processes with enormous surface area that allows them to receive signals from adjacent neurons.

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29
Q

Axons

A

long and thin cylindrical processes that conduct signals away from a cell body.

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30
Q

axon originates

A

from a conical elevation of the soma called an axon hillock

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31
Q

axoplasm

A

lacks Nissl bodies and Golgi apparatus; surrounded by axolemma

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32
Q

distal end of an axon

A

branches extensively and each axon terminal ends in a synaptic knob

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33
Q

synaptic knobs

A

contain synaptic vesicles that store chemical neurotransmitters

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34
Q

Proteins that are needed for a neuron to function properly

A

are synthesized in the cell body and transported to the axon.

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35
Q

slow axonal transport

A

moves materials down the axon and supplies new axoplasm needed for developing or regenerating neurons

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36
Q

fast axonal transport

A

uses protein “motors” to move materials and organelles in both directions between soma and axon terminals

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37
Q

Some pathogens can invade nervous system

A

by entering synaptic knobs and using fast axonal transport to travel to soma (herpes simplex virus, rabies virus, polio virus, tetanus toxin)

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38
Q

Neurons can be classified structurally

A

according to number of processes that extend from the soma.

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39
Q

unipolar neurons

A

have a single axon that extends away from the soma

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40
Q

location of unipolar neurons

A

Usually found in nerves that carry sensory signals to spinal cord

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41
Q

bipolar neurons

A

have a single axon and a single dendrite

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42
Q

location of bipolar neurons

A

Found in retina of eye, inner ear, nose

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43
Q

multipolar neurons

A

have a single axon and many dendrites

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44
Q

location of multipolar neurons

A

Most common neurons in brain and spinal cord

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45
Q

anaxonic neurons

A

have no axon and multiple dendrites

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46
Q

location of anaxonic neurons

A

Found in retina of eye

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47
Q

Neuroglia (glial cells)

A

fill spaces between neurons and provide support for neurons.

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48
Q

Neuroglia (glial cells) numbers

A

There may be 10 trillion neurons in body; glial cells may outnumber neurons 50 to 1 and they retain their ability to divide throughout life

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49
Q

gliomas

A

malignant brain tumors made of glial cells that actively undergo mitosis

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50
Q

Astrocytes

A

the most abundant glial cells in the cental nervous system.

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51
Q

Astrocytes description

A

star-shaped cells with many processes that cover the brain and form a support framework for nervous tissue

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52
Q

Astrocytes form

A

tight junctions with endothelial cells of blood capillaries to produce a blood-brain barrier that can regulate passage of materials into brain

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53
Q

Astrocytes maintain

A

the proper balance of potassium ions for generating nerve impulses

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54
Q

Astrocytes produce

A

scar tissue when neurons are damaged

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55
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

also found in the cental nervous system.

    possess fewer processes than astrocytes, but wrap around neurons to produce a myelin sheath, which forms insulating layer around neuron
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56
Q

Ependymal cells

A

also found in the cental nervous system.

    resemble cuboidal epithelial cells and line cavities in the brain and spinal cord where they secrete cerebrospinal fluid that circulates through CNS
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57
Q

Microglia

A

small macrophages scattered throughout the cental nervous system.

    phagocytize bacteria that invade the CNS and remove debris caused by tissue damage
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58
Q

Schwann cells

A

found in the PNS, where they form a neurilemma around neurons.

    produce a myelin sheath around neurons in the PNS

    assist in regenerating peripheral neurons
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59
Q

Satellite cells

A

found in the PNS around nerve cell bodies.

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60
Q

Myelin

A

a lipoprotein that forms an insulating sheath around an axon in order to increase the speed at which a nerve signal travels along a neuron.

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61
Q

myelin composition

A

20% protein and 80% lipid; fat intake is essential during childhood

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62
Q

In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells

A

wrap around the axons of neurons and form myelin sheaths that have multiple layers.

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63
Q

cytoplasm of the Schwann cell

A

gradually squeezed out, so the myelin sheath consists of many concentric layers of Schwann cell membranes with outermost forming a neurilemma that contains nucleus

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64
Q

Around neurilemma

A

endoneurium of fibrous connective tissue

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65
Q

nodes of Ranvier

A

narrow gaps in the myelin sheath between Schwann cells

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66
Q

In the cental nervous system, oligodendrocytes

A

spiral around axons to form myelin sheaths.

    Neither neurilemma nor endoneurium form around neurons in CNS
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67
Q

If a neuron in the peripheral nervous system gets damaged

A

it can be regenerated if its cell body and some of the neurilemma remain intact.

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68
Q

regeneration tube

A

formed by neurilemma and endoneurium across the damaged area, which guides growth of new axonal processes

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69
Q

If a neuron in the central nervous system gets damaged,

A

it is not likely to be regenerated because it lacks the neurilemma and the endoneurium that are needed to form the regeneration tube.

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70
Q

Neurons

A

excitable cells and they communicate with one another by using electrical potentials and electrical currents.

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71
Q

electrical potential

A

the difference in concentration of charged particles on either side of the membrane of a neuron

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72
Q

electrical current

A

involves a flow of charged particles from one point to another

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73
Q

When a neuron is stimulated,

A

the electrical potential can change suddenly and produce local potentials and/or action potentials.

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74
Q

Potentials occur because

A

of ion channels in membrane of neuron

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75
Q

Ion channels allow

A

electrolytes to flow across the membrane, which establishes a current.

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76
Q

leakage channels

A

always open and allow sodium and potassium ions to flow

    gated channels open and close in response to some stimulus
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77
Q

voltage-gated channels-

A

open and close in response to some kind of stimulus

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78
Q

ligand-gated channels

A

open and close in response to specific chemical stimulus

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79
Q

mechanically gated channels

A

open and close in response to vibration, pressure, or tissue stretching

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80
Q

There is a difference in electrical charges between extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid because

A

of an unequal distribution of ions on either side of the membrane of the neuron.

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81
Q

plasma membrane of the neuron is

A

selectively permeable

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82
Q

ions diffuse down their concentration gradient through the

A

plasma membrane

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83
Q

there is an electrical attraction between

A

cations and anions

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84
Q

The plasma membrane of a neuron

A

more permeable to potassium than any other ions.

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85
Q

concentration of potassium ions is higher in

A

the ICF than in the ECF

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86
Q

large organic anions

A

trapped inside the neuron and tend to draw some potassium ions back into neuron along electrical gradient

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87
Q

concentration of sodium ions is higher in

A

the ECF than in the ICF, so sodium ions tend to diffuse into neuron down their concentration and electrical gradients

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88
Q

inside of a neuron

A

is negative with respect to the outside and is polarized

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89
Q

Diffusion of sodium ions into the neuron and diffusion of potassium ions out of the neuron would

A

eventually eliminate the resting membrane potential.

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90
Q

ATP-driven membrane pump

A

actively transports three sodium ions out of the neuron and two potassium ions into the neuron per molecule of ATP spent to keep the RMP at -70 millivolts

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91
Q

A local potential

A

a small change in the resting membrane potential of a neuron caused by a stimulus that opens a ligand-regulated sodium gate in the membrane of the neuron.

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92
Q

local potential typically begins

A

at a dendrite, spreads through soma, then travels from axonal trigger zone to synaptic knob

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93
Q

local potentials are useful …

A

only for short-distance communication

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94
Q

Local potentials are graded because

A

they vary in size according to the stimulus strength.

    strong stimulus causes a greater change in membrane potential and more gates open; allows current to flow further
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95
Q

Local potentials are decremental

A

because they become weaker as they spread away from the point of stimulation.

    Plasma membrane is permeable to ions, so charge is lost and current dies out
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96
Q

Local potentials are reversible

A

because the resting membrane potential gets restored if the stimulation ceases prematurely.

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97
Q

A local potential is excitatory

A

if it depolarizes the plasma membrane of the neuron, which makes the potential difference less negative.

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98
Q

A local potential is inhibitory

A

if it hyperpolarizes the plasma membrane of the neuron, which makes the potential difference more negative.

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99
Q

An action potential

A

a dramatic change in the membrane potential of a neuron resulting from opening and closing voltage-gated ion channels during an interval of 1 millisecond.

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100
Q

An excitatory stimulus applied to a neuron

A

will generate an excitatory local potential that depolarizes the membrane and causes resting membrane potential to be less negative.

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101
Q

if the excitatory local potential spreads to the “trigger zone” and remains strong enough,

A

it can open enough voltage-regulated gates to generate an action potential

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102
Q

If the plasma membrane reaches a critical threshold voltage of about -55 mV,

A

voltage-gated sodium channels open.

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103
Q

Sodium ions rush into the neuron

A

and establish positive feedback that depolarizes the membrane potential from -55 mV to zero to +35 mV.

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104
Q

Depolarization

A

causes slow sodium inactivation gates to close, which prevents any more sodium ions from entering the neuron.

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105
Q

At peak depolarization,

A

slow voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium ions rush out of the neuron to repolarize membrane potential from +30 mV to zero to -70 mV.

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106
Q

Voltage-gated potassium channels remain open longer than voltage-gated sodium channels,

A

so a loss of potassium ions may cause after-hyperpolarization; this makes membrane potential more negative than resting membrane potential until voltage gated potassium channels close and restore RMP

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107
Q

some of the characteristics of an action potential:

A

they follow an all-or-none principle because any stimulus that depolarizes membrane to threshold will generate action potential

    they do not become weaker as they spread away from the point of stimulation

    they are irreversible
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108
Q

The refractory period

A

a brief period of time during which a neuron may not be able to generate another action potential.

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109
Q

An absolute refractory period

A

lasts from threshold until repolarization is complete.

    a neuron cannot be restimulated by a stimulus of any strength because voltage gated sodium channels open and are then inactivated
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110
Q

A relative refractory period

A

lasts until hyperpolarization ends.

    a neuron can be restimulated if a stimulus is larger than threshold

    Supra threshold stimulus
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111
Q

If one neuron is to going to communicate with another neuron,

A

the nerve signal must travel the length of the axon.

    nerve signal is a traveling wave of excitation produced by a self-propagating chain of action potentials moving in only one direction
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112
Q

In unmyelinated fibers,

A

there is a step-by-step depolarization of each adjacent area of the plasma membrane, which produces continuous conduction; propagation is slow, but not decremental; last action potential generated at synaptic knob has same voltage as first action potential generated at trigger zone

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113
Q

In myelinated fibers

A

the nerve signal appears to “leap” along the neuron from one node of Ranvier to the next node of Ranvier by saltatory conduction.

    propagation is much faster, but it is decremental
        Signal gets weaker, but reaches next node of Ranvier just in time to open voltage-gated sodium channels to generate new action potential
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114
Q

Propagation speed

A

not determined by the strength of a stimulus, but by the presence or absence of myelin, by the diameter of the fiber, and by the temperature.

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115
Q

large diameter fibers

A

conduct signals faster than small diameter fibers because large fibers tend to be myelinated and small fibers tend to be unmyelinated; large diameter fibers conduct signals faster because there is more surface area
nerve fibers conduct signals faster when the temperature is warm

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116
Q

A synapse

A

a junction between two neurons across which a nerve signal is conducted.

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117
Q

pre-synaptic neuron

A

conducts information towards a synapse and a post-synaptic neuron conducts information away from the synapse

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118
Q

Synaptic knob of presynaptic neuron

A

separated from postsynaptic neuron by a narrow synaptic cleft

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119
Q

single neuron in the cerebellum of the brain

A

may have 100,000 synapses

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120
Q

synapse may be

A

axodendritic or axosomatic or axoaxonic

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121
Q

At an electrical synapse,

A

a nerve signal is transmitted by the flow of ions from one cell to another through gap junctions.

    these synapses allow fast communication, synchronization among multiple neurons or muscle fibers, and two-way transmission of signals
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122
Q

At a chemical synapse,

A

a nerve signal is transmitted by small organic neurotransmitters.

    neurotransmitter is synthesized by the pre-synaptic neuron and stored in vesicles

    neurotransmitters are released from a pre-synaptic neuron in response to a stimulus

    neurotransmitters bind to specific receptors on the post-synaptic neuron

    neurotransmitters alter the physiology of the post-synaptic neuron
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123
Q

There are more than 100 substances that have been classified as

A

neurotransmitters

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124
Q

acetylcholine (ACh)

A

the most familiar and it can be excitatory or inhibitory

        Responsible for neuromuscular activity
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125
Q

amino acids

A

can be excitatory or inhibitory

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126
Q

Glutamate

A

excitatory neurotransmitter involved in learning and memory (amino acid)

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127
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain (amino acid)

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128
Q

biogenic amines

A

modified amino acids that may be excitatory or inhibitory

        Serotonin or catecholamines (dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine ) play roles in emotional behavior or operation of ones 'biological clock'
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129
Q

neuropeptides

A

amino acid chains that may be excitatory or inhibitory

        Some neuropeptides are neuromodulators because they function like hormones
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130
Q

Neuropeptides may be responsible for

A

craving fat and/or sugar and may be a cause of some eating disorders

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131
Q

Substance P

A

mediates pain

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132
Q

Endorphins and enkephalins

A

act as natural opiates to reduce perception of pain (‘runners euphoria’; placebo effect)

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133
Q

Acetylcholine

A

the neurotransmitter at an excitatory cholinergic synapse. (Neuromuscular junction)

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134
Q

GABA

A

the neurotransmitter at an inhibitory synapse.

    GABA  works like acetylcholine, except it opens chloride channels and hyperpolarizes the post-synaptic membrane making it harder to generate action potential
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135
Q

Norepinephrine

A

the neurotransmitter at an excitatory adrenergic synapse.

    norepinephrine operates through a second-messenger system that activates a transmembrane G protein and binds it to adenylate cyclase

    adenylate cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP)

    cAMP binds to a ligand-regulated ion gate on the inside of the membrane and opens it to depolarize the membrane

    cAMP activates cytoplasmic enzymes that catalyze changes in metabolic reactions

    cAMP also induces transcription
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136
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

must be removed from synaptic cleft to stop the transmission of nerve signals.

    they can diffuse out of the synaptic cleft into the extracellular fluid where they get absorbed by astrocytes to be returned to pre-synaptic neuron

    they can be actively transported back into the neuron that released them

    acetylcholine can be degraded in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase
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137
Q

Postsynaptic potentials

A

graded potentials, so their size varies according to the strength of the stimulus and the amount of neurotransmitter that was released.

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138
Q

If a neurotransmitter causes depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane,

A

an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) occurs because sodium ions flow into the cell.

    membrane potential approaches threshold so neuron is easier to stimulate
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139
Q

If a neurotransmitter causes hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic membrane,

A

an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs because chloride ions flow into the cell or potassium ions flow out of the cell.

    membrane potential moves away from threshold so neuron is harder to stimulate
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140
Q

A typical neuron receives signals from thousands of pre-synaptic neurons and integrates them at the trigger zone through a process known as

A

summation

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141
Q

Whether post synaptic neuron fires depends on

A

NET input of EPSPs and IPSPs

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142
Q

a typical EPSP is too weak and too short-lived to

A

depolarize the membrane to threshold

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143
Q

Temporal summation

A

occurs at a single synapse because each EPSP is generated at such a short interval that the previous EPSP hasn’t decayed.
if enough EPSPs are generated to depolarize the post-synaptic membrane to threshold, an action potential is generated

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144
Q

Spatial summation

A

occurs when several pre-synaptic neurons generate EPSPs at the same time.

    a single synapse only allows a small number of sodium ions into the post-synaptic membrane, but if multiple synapses allow enough sodium ions to enter and the post-synaptic membrane is depolarized to threshold, an action potential can be generated
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145
Q

Several neurons may cooperate through _____________ to enhance the effects of one another.

A

facilitation

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146
Q

One pre-synaptic neuron may suppress another pre-synaptic neuron by

A

pre-synaptic inhibition in order to halt the transmission of a nerve signal.

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147
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

characterized by reduced attention span, progressive memory loss, disorientation, and a dramatic change in personality, resulting in dementia.

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148
Q

Alzheimer disease is due to

A

the degeneration of cholinergic neurons causing a deficiency in acetylcholine

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149
Q

Alzheimer disease treatment modalities include

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and nerve growth factor

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150
Q

Alzheimer disease diagnosis

A

can only be confirmed by an autopsy that detects beta-amyloid plaques around neurons and neurofibrillary tangles inside brain neurons

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151
Q

Parkinson disease

A

involves a progressive loss of motor function that leads to involuntary tremors, facial rigidity, “gawking”, shuffling gait, slurred speech, and illegible handwriting.

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152
Q

Parkinson disease is due to

A

the degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons in the brain; might be caused by exposure to environmental toxins

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153
Q

Parkinson disease treatment modalities include

A

drugs or dopamine-rich tissue transplants or surgery to remove brain tissue that might be responsible for the tremors

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154
Q

Gray matter contains

A

cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, and neuroglia.

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155
Q

Gray matter nuclei

A

clusters of nerve cell bodies

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156
Q

gray matter is

A

the main site of synaptic contact between neurons

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157
Q

White matter contains

A

myelinated axons.

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158
Q

White matter tracts

A

bundles of myelinated axons that carry nerve signals within the CNS

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159
Q

The brain is divided into several principal _________

A

REGIONS

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160
Q

brainstem-

A

continuous with spinal cord; components include medulla oblongata, pons, mid brain, reticular formation

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161
Q

cerebellum-

A

posterior to brainstem; divided into hemispheres

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162
Q

diencephalon-

A

components include thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

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163
Q

cerebrum-

A

occupies most of cranium; divided into hemispheres; components include basal nuclei and limbic system

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164
Q

Meninges

A

fibrous connective tissue coverings surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

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165
Q

The outermost meninx is the

A

dura mater, which consists of dense irregular connective tissue that lines the cranial cavity and surrounds the spinal cord.

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166
Q

between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal is an ___________________________filled with blood vessels, adipose tissue, loose connective tissue

A

epidural space

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167
Q

cranial dura mater

A

lies tightly against the cranial bones and consists of two layers

        Extensions of dura mater separate major parts of brain
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168
Q

The middle meninx is the

A

arachnoid mater, which consists of delicate collagen fibers and some elastic fibers.

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169
Q

arachnoid mater is separated from the dura mater by a fluid-filled

A

subdural space

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170
Q

The inner meninx is the

A

pia mater, which is a thin layer of transparent collagen and elastic fibers that adhere to the spinal cord and brain.

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171
Q

between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater is a _____________________ filled with cerebrospinal fluid

A

subarachnoid space

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172
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the arachnoid mater and/or pia mater caused by bacteria and/or viruses that invade the central nervous system via the nose or throat.

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173
Q

Meningitis extremely serious disease among

A

infants and children between ages of 3 months and 2 years

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174
Q

in bacterial meningitis,

A

brain swells, ventricles enlarge, and brainstem may start to hemorrhage

        Symptoms include go fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, intense headache, coma

        Death may occur within hours of onset
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175
Q

Ventricles

A

four fluid-filled chambers in the brain.

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176
Q

What are the four ventricles in the brain?

A

two lateral ventricles extend into the cerebral hemispheres

    third ventricle is located along the midline of the brain and it connects to the lateral ventricles by way of an interventricular foramen

    fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the cerebral aqueduct
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177
Q

cerebral aqueduct

A

forms a central canal that extends through the spinal cord

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178
Q

These ventricles and canals are lined with

A

ependymal cells and capillary networks to form choroid plexuses that produce and secrete up to 500 mL of cerebrospinal fluid each day.

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179
Q

cerebrospinal fluid is constantly reabsorbed, so circulating volume is

A

100-160 mL

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180
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A

a clear, colorless liquid containing proteins, glucose, urea, salts, and various ions that serves several useful purposes.

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181
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) provides

A

provides buoyancy so the brain “floats” in the cranial cavity; a medium for exchanging nutrients and wastes between blood and nerve tissue

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182
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) functions

A

a shock absorber to protect the brain and spinal cord from jolts

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183
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal of the spinal cord, and into the subarachnoid space where it is gradually

A

reabsorbed into the blood.

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184
Q

Any obstruction or inflammation of the brain that interferes with the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid can cause

A

hydrocephalus

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185
Q

hydrocephalus

A

an accumulation of fluid in the ventricles that can compress delicate nervous tissue and damage the brain.

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186
Q

The brain must be well-supplied with oxygen and nutrients because it is

A

one of the most metabolically active organs of the body.

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187
Q

10 second interruption of blood flow can cause

A

loss of consciousness

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188
Q

1-2 minute interruption of blood flow can

A

impair neurological function

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189
Q

4 minute interruption of blood flow can

A

produce irreversible brain damage

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190
Q

There is a brain barrier system that is

A

highly permeable to water, glucose, oxygen, carbon dioxide, alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, and anaesthesia, but it blocks the delivery of most drugs.

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191
Q

blood-brain barrier forces

A

materials that leave the blood to pass through cells rather than pass between them, because brain capillaries are less permeable than most other capillaries

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192
Q

blood-CSF barrier regulates

A

the passage of materials from cerebrospinal fluid into the brain

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193
Q

medulla oblongata

A

the inferior brainstem continuous with the spinal cord.

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194
Q

The anterior surface of the medulla oblongata

A

exhibits two large, bulging pyramids.

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195
Q

pyramids

A

contain large motor tracts that connect the brain to the spinal cord

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196
Q

Fibers from left pyramid

A

cross to body’s right side i n phenomenon of decussation

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197
Q

fibers from right pyramid

A

cross to body’s left side in phenomenon of decussation

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198
Q

Lateral to each pyramid

A

an oval olive that contains nuclei to relay sensory information from the brain and/or spinal cord to the cerebellum.

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199
Q

The medulla oblongata contains

A

several control centers that are vital to homeostasis.

    cardiac center regulates heart rate

    vasomotor center adjusts the diameter of blood vessels to regulate blood pressure

    respiratory centers adjust the rate and depth of breathing; Other centers control reflexes associated with coughing, sneezing, swallowing, vomiting.
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200
Q

The pons lies…

A

lies superior to the medulla oblongata and anterior to the cerebellum.

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201
Q

The pons is

A

a “bridge” with tracts and nuclei that connect the brain with the spinal cord and also connect parts of the brain with each other.

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202
Q

some pontine nuclei

A

nuclei work with the medullary respiratory center to control respiration

    other pontine nuclei are associated with equilibrium/posture, taste/swallowing, and hearing
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203
Q

The midbrain

A

extends from the pons to the lower portion of the diencephalon.

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204
Q

A pair of cerebral peduncles

A

anchor the cerebrum to the brainstem and contain tracts that run through the midbrain to carry motor signals to the medulla oblongata.

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205
Q

The main mass of the midbrain contains

A

a highly vascular red nucleus, which connects with the cerebellum to permit fine motor control.

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206
Q

The substantia nigra

A

is a darkly pigmented nucleus that controls subconscious muscle actions by relaying inhibitory signals to various parts of the brain.

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207
Q

Degeneration of neurons in substantia nigra produces

A

muscle tremors characteristic of Parkinson’s disease

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208
Q

The posterior portion of the midbrain is the

A

tectum

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209
Q

tectum contains _______ corpora quadrigemina that protrude from its roof

A

four

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210
Q

superior colliculi

A

serve as reflex centers for blinking, focusing eyes, moving head and neck to visually track moving objects

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211
Q

inferior colliculi

A

serve as reflex centers for movements of head in response to auditory stimuli (sudden loud sounds)

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212
Q

The reticular formation contains

A

more than 100 small areas of gray matter interspersed throughout the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain.

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213
Q

Somatic motor control maintains

A

balance and posture in response to sensory signals from the eyes and ears about body position and the position of nearby objects.

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214
Q

The reticular formation contributes to

A

cardiovascular control by integrating the cardiac center and the vasomotor center in the medulla oblongata.

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215
Q

The reticular formation plays a central role in

A

maintaining consciousness and awakening from sleep.

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216
Q

The reticular formation allows us to

A

ignore traffic sounds or other inconsequential noises, but causes us to respond quickly to an alarm clock or a flash of lightning

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217
Q

The reticular formation transmits

A

pain signals from the lower body to the cerebral cortex.

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218
Q

Damage to the reticular formation can

A

produce an irreversible coma.

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219
Q

The cerebellum is

A

the second-largest portion of the brain, comprising about 11% of the brain’s mass, and it occupies the inferior and posterior region of the cranial cavity.

    Contains about 100 billion neurons
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220
Q

The right and left cerebellar hemispheres are linked by a

A

medial vermis.

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221
Q

surface of the cerebellum consists of

A

leaf-like folia consisting of gray matter

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222
Q

arbor vitae

A

a deeper “tree-like” mass consisting of white matter

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223
Q

The cerebellum attaches to

A

the brainstem by three pairs of cerebellar peduncles.

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224
Q

inferior pair of cerebellar peduncles

A

connects with the medulla oblongata to facilitate muscle performance

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225
Q

middle pair of cerebellar peduncles

A

transmits signals from the pons to coordinate muscle responses

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226
Q

superior pair of cerebellar peduncles

A

transmits motor signals through the midbrain and the thalamus

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227
Q

The cerebellum serves mainly as

A

a reflex center to coordinate subconscious movements of skeletal muscle that are necessary for muscle coordination, balance, and posture.

    also involved in time-keeping and the perception of elapsed time
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228
Q

The cerebellum receives

A

sensory information about the position of limbs, joints, and other body parts in order to maintain unconscious control over walking, dancing, or catching a ball.

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229
Q

The thalamus is

A

the largest component of the diencephalon and it contains paired oval masses of gray matter located beneath each cerebral hemisphere.

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230
Q

is a “gateway to the cerebral cortex” and it filters sensory impulses arriving from the spinal cord, brainstem, or cerebellum before relaying them to the cerebral cortex.

A

thalamus

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231
Q

Nuclei within the thalamus carry out a variety of functions:

A

some nuclei receive and integrate auditory, visual, and taste information

    some nuclei receive and integrate information about pain, temperature, light touch, pressure

    some nuclei relay signals to motor control areas in the cerebrum

    some nuclei are involved in emotion, memory, and cognition
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232
Q

The hypothalamus is

A

inferior to the thalamus and also contains many nuclei.

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233
Q

there are two small, round ____________________ that play a role in memory

A

mammillary bodies

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234
Q

stalk-like __________ attaches the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus

A

infundibulum

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235
Q

supraoptic and preoptic regions

A

are involved in autonomic and endocrine activities (hypothalamus)

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236
Q

The hypothalamus maintains

A

homeostasis by regulating internal processes through the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system.

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237
Q

Nuclei within the hypothalamus- integrating center for the autonomic nervous system regulates

A

heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, urination, and other visceral activities

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238
Q

some nuclei within the hypothalamus produce and release

A

hormones to control the pituitary gland

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239
Q

hypothalamic thermostat

A

monitors the blood in order to control body temperature

        “heat-losing center” controls vasodilation in skin and sweating

        “heat-producing center” controls vasoconstriction, shivering, "goose bump" formation
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240
Q

“hunger” and “satiety” centers within the hypothalamus

A

monitor levels of glucose and amino acids in the blood in order to regulate food intake

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241
Q

“thirst” center within the hypothalamus

A

monitors osmolarity and dehydration to regulate fluid intake

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242
Q

hypothalamus connection with the reticular formation

A

regulates circadian rhythms associated with sleeping/waking

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243
Q

some nuclei within the hypothalamus

A

control anger, aggression, fear, pain, pleasure, sexual behavior

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244
Q

Epithalamus- A pineal gland

A

involved in maintaining the body’s biological clock.

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245
Q

Habenular nuclei (Epithalamus)

A

involved in emotional response to odors.

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246
Q

The cerebrum

A

the largest region of the brain and accounts for 83% of total brain mass.

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247
Q

Cerebrum- There is a superficial layer of gray matter called the

A

cerebral cortex.

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248
Q

all neurons in the cerebral cortex are

A

interneurons

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249
Q

gyri

A

folds or ridges at the surface of the cerebrum

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250
Q

Gyri function

A

increase surface area to improve information processing capabilities

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251
Q

sulci

A

shallow grooves between gyri

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252
Q

fissures

A

deep grooves between gyri

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253
Q

The cerebrum is divided into

A

left and right hemispheres by the longitudinal fissure.

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254
Q

two hemispheres are connected internally by the

A

corpus callosum

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255
Q

Each hemisphere can be subdivided into

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes.

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256
Q

central sulcus separates

A

the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe

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257
Q

precentral gyrus

A

anterior to central sulcus

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258
Q

postcentral gyrus

A

posterior to central sulcus

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259
Q

lateral sulcus separates

A

parietal lobe from the temporal lobe

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260
Q

insula

A

a small mass of cortex located deep to the lateral sulcus

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261
Q

Most of the cerebrum is located

A

beneath the cerebral cortex and comprised primarily of white matter.

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262
Q

association tracts

A

transmit nerve signals between gyri in the same hemisphere

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263
Q

commissural tracts

A

transmit nerve signals from gyri in one hemisphere to the corresponding gyri in the opposite hemisphere by way of the corpus callosum

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264
Q

projection tracts

A

form ascending tracts to carry nerve signals up to the cerebrum and form descending tracts to carry motor signals to the brainstem and spinal cord

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265
Q

The basal nuclei

A

masses of gray matter located lateral to the thalamus.

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266
Q

The basal nuclei receive

A

input from the red nuclei and the substantia nigra of the midbrain in order to control muscle tone required for gross voluntary movements (walking).

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267
Q

Damage to the basal nuclei

A

can produce the involuntary muscle movements that are associated with Parkinson disease.

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268
Q

The limbic system

A

a ring of structures around the corpus callosum and the thalamus.

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269
Q

The limbic system includes

A

the amygdala and hippocampus nuclei, the fornix tract, and the cingulate gyrus

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270
Q

The amygdala

A

involved in emotion and behavior associated with pleasure and pain.

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271
Q

The hippocampus

A

involved in memory storage and may facilitate links between memory and emotions, particularly those memories associated with pleasure or pain or smell.

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272
Q

The cerebrum interprets

A

sensory impulses, controls voluntary motor responses, directs intellectual processes, stores memories, and governs personality traits.

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273
Q

Although the two cerebral hemispheres appear identical,

A

anatomical and functional differences between them lead to cerebral lateralization. ( highly correlated with “handedness” and somewhat correlated with gender

    prone to change as a person grows older)
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274
Q

The left hemisphere

A

appears to be more important for right-hand control, spoken and written language, numerical and scientific skills, and logic.

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275
Q

The right hemisphere

A

appears to be more important for left-hand control, musical and artistic awareness, perception of patterns and spatial relationships, insight, imagination, and mental imagery of sights, sounds, smells, and tastes.

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276
Q

The primary somatosensory area

A

is located in the postcentral gyrus of each parietal lobe.

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277
Q

The primary somatosensory area receives

A

sensory information about joint and muscle position

    also receives sensory information about touch and pain and temperature from skin and muscle receptors to determine exact point of origin
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278
Q

The primary visual area

A

located in the posterior occipital lobe.

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279
Q

The primary visual area receives

A

signals from the eyes about shape, color, and movement of visual stimuli

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280
Q

The primary auditory area

A

located in the superior temporal lobe and partly in the insula.

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281
Q

The primary auditory area interprets

A

basic characteristics of sound, such as pitch and rhythm

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282
Q

The primary olfactory area

A

located on the medial surface of the temporal lobe and the inferior surface of the frontal lobe.

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283
Q

The primary olfactory area receives

A

signals related to smell

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284
Q

The primary gustatory area

A

located at the base of the postcentral gyrus.

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285
Q

The primary gustatory area receives

A

signals related to taste

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286
Q

Motor areas

A

control voluntary movement of skeletal muscles.

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287
Q

The primary motor area

A

located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

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288
Q

The primary motor arealarge pyramidal neurons

A

project to spinal cord and form pyramidal motor tracts, which control voluntary contractions of specific muscles or groups of muscles on opposite side of body

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289
Q

Broca’s area

A

located in the left frontal lobe and contains the motor speech area.

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290
Q

Broca’s area coordinates

A

complex muscle actions of the tongue, mouth, and larynx that enable a person to translate his/her thoughts into spoken words

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291
Q

injury to Broca’s area can cause

A

aphasia

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292
Q

word deafness

A

inability to understand spoken words

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293
Q

word blindness

A

inability to recognize written words

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294
Q

The somatosensory association area

A

located in the parietal lobe behind the postcentral gyrus.

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295
Q

The somatosensory association area functions

A

integrates and interprets sensory information about the shape and/or texture of an object

    makes us aware of the orientation of one object to another object and makes us aware of the position of our limbs

    stores memories of past sensory experiences
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296
Q

The visual association area

A

located in the occipital lobe.

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297
Q

The visual association area function

A

allows us to recognize and evaluate what we see and what we have seen

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298
Q

The auditory association area

A

located in the superior temporal lobe.

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299
Q

The auditory association area functions

A

it helps us determine whether sound is speech or music or noise
it enables us to recall a song or melody; enables us to recognize a person’s voice

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300
Q

The premotor area

A

located in the frontal lobe, anterior to the primary motor area.

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301
Q

The premotor area function

A

enables us to “plan” the degree and sequence of muscle actions needed for learned motor activities that are complex and sequential (writing, typing, speaking)

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302
Q

Wernike’s area

A

located in the left temporal lobe, posterior to the lateral sulcus.

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303
Q

Wernike’s area function

A

responsible for recognizing speech and written language

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304
Q

Brain cells generate

A

considerable amount of electrical activity from nerve signal transmission and an electroencephalogram (EEG) can provide a record of the brain waves that result.

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305
Q

alpha waves

A

occur in individuals who are awake or resting with closed eyes

        They disappear when person becomes mentally engaged or falls asleep
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306
Q

beta waves

A

present when a person is alert and mentally active

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307
Q

theta waves

A

normally occur in children or in sleeping adults

Presence in adults who are awake indicate emotional stress or brain disorders

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308
Q

delta waves

A

present in alert infants and in adults during deep sleep

Presence in adults who are awake may indicate serious brain damage

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309
Q

Sleep

A

a state of temporary unconsciousness from which an individual can be aroused.

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310
Q

cycle of sleep and waking

A

one of our circadian rhythms that repeats at 24 hour intervals
Timing of this cycle is controlled by nuclei in hypothalamus and brainstem

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311
Q

non-rapid eye movement (NREM).

A

One type of sleep in the sleep cycle

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312
Q

NREM Stage 1

A

a transition between wakefulness and sleep when we relax and close our eyes and let our mind wander

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313
Q

NREM Stage 2

A

(“light sleep”) is characterized by sleep spindle brain waves; more difficult to arouse individual

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314
Q

NREM during Stage 3

A

(“moderate sleep”), body temperature and blood pressure decrease and pulse and breathing rate slow down

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315
Q

NREM during Stage 4

A

(“deep sleep”), muscles are very relaxed

Nightmares, night terrors, bed-wetting, sleepwalking may occur in this stage

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316
Q

rapid eye movement (REM)

A

Another type of sleep in the sleep cycle, which begins about 90 minutes after sleep begins provided NREM stage 4 has been achieved

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317
Q

most individuals experience ________ episodes of REM during each sleep cycle

A

three to five (Eyes dart back and forth under closed eyelids)

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318
Q

vital signs during REM

A

increase and brain becomes more active; most dreaming occurs during REM sleep

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319
Q

Skeletal muscles during REM

A

inhibited and go limp to prevent one from ‘acting out’ his/her dreams

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320
Q

REM episodes

A

get progressively longer as the sleep cycle lengthens

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321
Q

REM sleep may give the brain

A

an opportunity to organize and/or strengthen desirable memories and/or forget unwanted memories

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322
Q

The spinal cord conducts

A

sensory information from the periphery of the body to the brain, and it conducts motor signals from the brain to peripheral effectors.

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323
Q

The spinal cord triggers

A

repetitive, coordinated muscle contractions necessary for walking.

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324
Q

The spinal cord establishes

A

reflex pathways.

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325
Q

The spinal cord

A

a slender cylindrical column extending from the medulla oblongata, through the foramen magnum into the vertebral canal, down to second lumbar vertebra.

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326
Q

The spinal cord is covered by

A

spinal meninges that extend from meninges that cover brain

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327
Q

spinal dura mater

A

not attached to the walls of the vertebral column, but is surrounded by a fat-filled epidural space

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328
Q

two conspicuous enlargements of the spinal cord

A

cervical enlargement and lumbar enlargement

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329
Q

cervical enlargement

A

extends from the fourth cervical vertebra to the first thoracic vertebra; nerves arise to innervate upper extremities

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330
Q

lumbar enlargement

A

extends from the ninth through the twelfth thoracic vertebrae; nerves arise to innervate pelvic region and lower limbs

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331
Q

Below the lumbar enlargement the spinal cord tapers to form the _____________________ which is anchored to the base of the spine by fibrous connective tissue.

A

medullary cone

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332
Q

spinal nerves that arise from the lower part of the spinal cord form the

A

cauda equina (‘horses tail’);

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333
Q

cauda equina innervates

A

pelvic organs and lower limbs

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334
Q

The spinal cord is separated into right and left symmetrical halves by

A

an anterior median fissure and a posterior median sulcus.

335
Q

hollow central canal running the length of the cord is filled with

A

cerebrospinal fluid

336
Q

A butterfly-shaped mass of ____________ contains nerve cell bodies, unmyelinated axons, and dendrites of association neurons and motor neurons.

A

gray matter

337
Q

forms the “center of the butterfly”

A

gray commissure

338
Q

anterior (ventral) gray horns

A

contain the cell bodies of motor neurons

339
Q

posterior (dorsal) gray horns

A

contain interneurons

340
Q

lateral gray horns are present only in

A

the thoracic and lumbar regions

341
Q

White matter surrounding the gray “butterfly” consists of

A

bundles of myelinated axons of sensory neurons and motor neurons that form tracts.

342
Q

White matter is arranged into

A

anterior (ventral), posterior (dorsal), and lateral white columns (funiculi)

343
Q

Ascending tracts

A

carry sensory signals from peripheral receptors up the spinal cord to the brain.

344
Q

dorsal column (Ascending tracts)

A

carries signals for vibration, touch, proprioception, and visceral pain

345
Q

spinothalamic tract (Ascending tracts)

A

carries signals for pain, temperature, touch, and pressure

346
Q

spinocerebellar tracts (Ascending tracts)

A

carry signals for proprioception to the cerebellum

347
Q

Sensory information conveyed to the central nervous system must be

A

integrated with other information before a response can be initiated.

348
Q

Descending tracts

A

carry motor signals from the brainstem down the spinal cord to skeletal muscles in the periphery.

349
Q

corticospinal tracts (Descending tracts)

A

transmit signals from cerebral cortex that control precise limb movements

350
Q

tectospinal tract (Descending tracts)

A

transmits signals from the midbrain for reflex movements of the head needed to respond to sights or sounds

351
Q

reticulospinal tracts (Descending tracts)

A

transmit signals from the reticular formation to the limbs to maintain posture and balance

352
Q

vestibulospinal tract (Descending tracts)

A

transmits signals from the brainstem to the limbs to maintain posture/ balance

353
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

involves the deterioration of oligodendrocytes and myelin sheaths in the brain and spinal cord, which is followed by replacement with scar tissue.

354
Q

Multiple sclerosis- loss of myelin causes

A

“short circuits” that produce less excitation at successive nodes of Ranvier, until the conduction of nerve impulses eventually ceases

355
Q

Multiple sclerosis- disruption of nerve conduction depends on

A

the specific part of CNS that is affected

356
Q

Multiple sclerosis symptoms include

A

double vision, blindness, speech defects, tremors, and numbness

357
Q

Multiple sclerosis occurs between the ages of

A

20 and 40, more often in females than in males; cycles of mild to severe symptoms may occur until patient becomes bedridden

358
Q

Multiple sclerosis- death

A

may occur from 7 years to 32 years following the onset of symptoms

359
Q

Multiple sclerosis may be caused by

A

a virus that triggers an autoimmune response; treatment includes immunosuppressive drugs

360
Q

Epilepsy

A

characterized by seizures initiated by massive discharge of brain neurons.

361
Q

Epilepsy seizures

A

can produce hallucinations, anxiety, “religious ecstasy”, loss of consciousness, spasmodic stiffening/jerking

362
Q

Epilepsy may be triggered by

A

flickering lights sudden loud noises, the sound of a specific voice or song, emotional stress, or even doing math problems

363
Q

Epilepsy may be caused by

A

brain trauma at birth, metabolic disturbances, infections, toxins, or tumors

364
Q

Epilepsy treatment

A

uses a variety of anti-epileptic drugs

365
Q

Cerebral palsy

A

a group of motor disorders that cause loss of voluntary muscle control and coordination.

366
Q

Cerebral palsy can also include

A

seizure disorders, mental retardation, deafness, and visual impairment

367
Q

Cerebral palsy often detected in

A

infants who exhibit breathing abnormalities, sucking and/or swallowing disorders, or delays in walking followed by stiff/awkward limb movements

368
Q

Cerebral palsy- damage to motor areas can be caused by

A

exposure to the rubella virus or from radiation during fetal development or by oxygen deprivation during birth or by hydrocephalus during infancy

369
Q

Spina bifida

A

a congenital defect occurring in 1 out of 1000 babies because the vertebral column fails to completely enclose the spinal cord.

370
Q

Spina bifida- lower portion of spinal cord

A

doesn’t function, so it causes a lack of bowel control, bladder paralysis, and paralysis of the lower limbs

371
Q

Spina bifida may be caused by

A

insufficient folic acid in the mother’s diet during early pregnancy

372
Q

Poliomyelitis

A

caused by a virus that destroys motor neurons in the brainstem and ventral gray horns of the spinal cord.

373
Q

Poliomyelitis symptoms include

A

muscle pain and weakness, loss of reflexes followed by paralysis, muscle atrophy, and respiratory failure

374
Q

Poliomyelitis vaccines

A

have almost eliminated polio

375
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A

involves degeneration of motor neurons and atrophy of muscles due to the formation of scar tissue in lateral regions of spinal cord.

376
Q

ALS- astrocytes

A

fail to reabsorb the neurotransmitter glutamate, which leads to toxic accumulation

377
Q

ALS symptoms include

A

muscle weakness, difficulty speaking and/or swallowing, and difficulty using one’s hands

378
Q

Nerves consist of

A

bundles of axons enclosed within a connective tissue covering.

379
Q

individual axons are wrapped in

A

endoneurium

380
Q

groups of axons are arranged in

A

a fascicle, which is wrapped in a perineurium

381
Q

several fascicles are wrapped in

A

an outer epineurium, which forms a whole nerve

382
Q

ganglion

A

a cluster of nerve cell bodies outside of the central nervous system.

383
Q

Each ganglion is wrapped in

A

epineurium continuous with that of nerve

384
Q

___ pairs of cranial nerves arise from the base of the brain and connect with muscles and sense organs in the head and neck.

A

12

385
Q

each pair of cranial nerves is identified by

A

a name and a Roman numeral

386
Q

sensory fibers associate with

A

receptors in the head and neck

387
Q

motor fibers associate with

A

nuclei in the brainstem that lead to muscles and glands

388
Q

mixed cranial nerves contain

A

both sensory and motor fibers

389
Q

most cranial nerves are

A

mixed nerves because motor nerves typically contain afferent fibers for proprioception

390
Q

The olfactory nerve (I)

A

a sensory cranial nerve that links odor-detecting receptors in the nose with an olfactory bulb that is located in the frontal lobe of the cerebrum.

391
Q

The optic nerve (II)

A

a sensory cranial nerve that links visual receptors in the retina of the eye with an optic tract that terminates in the thalamus.

392
Q

The oculomotor nerve (III)

A

primarily a motor cranial nerve that innervates muscles to move eyelid and eyeball, control amount of light that enters the eye, and focus the lens on near and far objects.

393
Q

The trochlear nerve (IV)

A

primarily a motor cranial nerve that innervates muscles to move eyeball.

394
Q

The trigeminal nerve (V)

A

a mixed cranial nerve with three branches.

395
Q

trigeminal nerve (V)- ophthalmic branch

A

transmits sensory signals from the eyes and forehead for touch, temperature, pain

396
Q

trigeminal nerve (V)- maxillary branch

A

transmits sensory signals from the mouth region for touch, temperature, pain

397
Q

trigeminal nerve (V)- mandibular branch

A

contains motor fibers that innervate muscles used in chewing

398
Q

The abducens nerve (VI)

A

primarily a motor cranial nerve that innervates muscles to move eyeball.

399
Q

The facial nerve (VII)

A

a mixed cranial nerve.

400
Q

facial nerve (VII)- sensory fibers

A

transmit signals from taste buds on the tongue

401
Q

facial nerve (VII)- motor fibers

A

innervate muscles to control facial expression, salivation, and production of tears

402
Q

The vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

A

primarily a sensory cranial nerve.

403
Q

vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)- cochlear branch

A

links receptors in the ear with the auditory areas

404
Q

vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)- vestibular branch

A

transmits signals from the inner ear about balance and equilibrium

405
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

A

a mixed cranial nerve.

406
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)- sensory fibers

A

transmit signals about taste from the tongue and transmit signals about touch, pain, and temperature from the tongue, pharynx ,and outer ear

407
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)- motor fibers

A

innervate muscles to control swallowing and speech and muscles to stimulate the secretion of saliva

408
Q

The vagus nerve (X)

A

a mixed cranial nerve that belongs to autonomic nervous system.

409
Q

vagus nerve (X)- sensory fibers

A

transmit signals about taste, touch, pain ,and temperature from the throat, and transmit signals about blood pressure, respiration, and gastrointestinal function from visceral receptors

410
Q

vagus nerve (X)- motor fibers

A

innervate skeletal muscles to control swallowing, coughing, and speech; innervate smooth muscles that control the gastrointestinal tract; innervate cardiac muscle that slows heart rate

411
Q

The accessory nerve (XI)

A

primarily a motor cranial nerve that innervates muscles to control swallowing and innervates other muscles to move the head, neck, and shoulders.

412
Q

The hypoglossal nerve (XII)

A

primarily a motor cranial nerve that innervates muscles to move the tongue during speech, chewing, and swallowing.

413
Q

______ pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord through intervertebral foramina.

A

31

414
Q

Spinal nerves are mixed nerves with ____ points of attachment to the spinal cord.

A

two

415
Q

dorsal root

A

contains afferent neurons to conduct sensory impulses from peripheral receptors to the dorsal gray horn of the spinal cord

416
Q

Cell bodies form

A

dorsal root ganglia

417
Q

ventral root

A

contains efferent neurons to conduct motor signals from the ventral gray horn of the spinal cord to peripheral effectors

418
Q

After a spinal nerve passes through its intervertebral foramen, it divides into branches called

A

rami

419
Q

dorsal ramus innervates

A

deep muscles and skin of the dorsal surface of the trunk

420
Q

ventral ramus innervates

A

muscles and skin of the lateral and ventral surfaces of the trunk; gives rise to nerves that innervate limbs

421
Q

meningeal branch

A

re-enters the vertebral canal and innervates the meninges, blood vessels, and ligaments of the spinal cord

422
Q

Ventral rami in the thorax

A

form an intercostal nerve to innervate muscles for breathing.

423
Q

Varicella virus

A

causes childhood chickenpox; it takes up lifelong residence in dorsal root ganglia, which might cause shingles (Herpes zoster) in individuals older than 50.

424
Q

shingles- immune system

A

fails to keep the virus under control, so it travels down sensory nerves and produces skin discoloration and painful, fluid-filled vesicles along these nerves

425
Q

Shingles usually appears in

A

chest and waist on one side of body

426
Q

Shingles - heal and cure

A

vesicles may heal spontaneously within 3 weeks, but there is no cure for shingles

427
Q

Ventral rami typically branch and merge to form

A

interconnected plexuses, except in the thoracic region of the spinal cord.

428
Q

Cervical plexus

A

(C1 - C5) is located on the side of the neck beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

429
Q

Cervical plexus- nerves

A

nerves innervate the skin and muscles of the head, neck, upper shoulders, and chest

430
Q

Cervical plexus- phrenic nerve

A

conducts motor impulses to the diaphragm to control breathing

431
Q

Brachial plexus

A

(C4 - T2) is located deep in the shoulder between the neck and armpit.

432
Q

Brachial plexus- nerves

A

nerves innervate the skin and muscles of the arms, forearms, and hands.

433
Q

nerves that arise from the brachial plexus

A

axillary, radial, median, and ulnar nerves

434
Q

Lumbar plexus

A

(L1-L4) is located in the lower back.

435
Q

Lumbar plexus- nerves

A

nerves innervate the skin and muscles of the abdominal wall, external genitalia, thighs, and lower limbs

436
Q

Sacral plexus

A

(L4-S4) is located on the side of the sacrum.

437
Q

Sacral plexus - nerves

A

nerves innervate the skin and muscles of the buttocks and lower extremities.

438
Q

Sacral plexus - sciatic nerve

A

the largest nerve in the body and consists of the tibial nerve and the fibular nerve wrapped in a common sheath

439
Q

Reflexes

A

fast, involuntary, predictable responses to environmental changes that maintain homeostasis and enhance one’s chances for survival.

440
Q

somatic reflexes

A

involve contraction of skeletal muscles

441
Q

autonomic (visceral) reflexes

A

involve contraction of smooth muscle, contraction of cardiac muscle, or glandular secretion

442
Q

reflex arc

A

used during a somatic reflex.

443
Q

reflex arc- sensory receptor

A

in the skin, in a muscle, or in a tendon responds to a stimulus

444
Q

reflex arc- sensory neuron

A

carries that signal from the receptor to a dorsal gray horn in the spinal cord

445
Q

reflex arc- interneurons

A

act as an integrating center in the central nervous system

446
Q

reflex arc- motor neuron

A

carries a motor signal from the integrating center to an effector

447
Q

reflex arc- effector

A

a skeletal muscle that responds to the motor signal

448
Q

Somatic reflexes use

A

proprioception to monitor status of muscles, tendons, and joints.

449
Q

proprioception

A

the awareness of the degree of muscle contraction, to the amount of tension in a tendon, to changes in joint position, or to changes in the position of the head

450
Q

Proprioception permits us to

A

perform activities without thinking about them

451
Q

Somatic reflexes- muscle spindles

A

located between skeletal muscle fibers; they indicate degree and speed of change in muscle length (This information is relayed to cerebrum so we are conscious of limb position and is relayed to cerebellum so muscle contractions can be coordinated )

452
Q

Somatic reflexes - tendon organs

A

located at the junction of a tendon and a muscle; they protect against damage from excessive tension

453
Q

Somatic reflexes -joint kinesthetic receptors

A

located within the capsule of a synovial joint; they indicate excessive strain placed on that joint

454
Q

A stretch reflex

A

a monosynaptic reflex arc that helps maintain equilibrium and posture.

455
Q

stretch reflexes operate as

A

feedback mechanisms to control muscle length by causing contractions in synergistic or antagonist muscles

456
Q

flexion of a joint creates

A

stretch reflex in extensor muscles

457
Q

extension of a joint creates

A

stretch reflex in flexor muscles

458
Q

stretch reflex- important in

A

coordinating vigorous and precise movements (dancing)

459
Q

stretch reflex- depends on

A

reciprocal inhibition to prevent muscles from working against one another

460
Q

A tendon reflex

A

a monosynaptic reflex arc that occurs when a muscle is suddenly stretched because a tendon is tapped.

461
Q

tapping the patellar tendon causes

A

femoris quadriceps muscle to suddenly stretches and stimulate “knee-jerk” response that extends the leg

462
Q

tapping the calcaneal tendon causes

A

plantarflexion of the foot

463
Q

tapping the triceps brachii tendon causes

A

extension of the elbow

464
Q

tapping the masseter tendon cause

A

the jaw to clench

465
Q

A flexor (withdrawal) reflex

A

a polysynaptic reflex arc that produces quick contraction of flexor muscles, which causes immediate withdrawal from a painful or dangerous stimulus.

466
Q

flexor (withdrawal) reflexes tend to be

A

complex with polysynaptic reflex arc (at least one interneuron)

467
Q

A crossed-extensor reflex produces

A

contractions of extensor muscles in the limb that is opposite to the one withdrawn in order to maintain balance following a withdrawal reflex.

468
Q

The Golgi tendon reflex

A

a response to excessive tension on a tendon that controls the contraction of a muscle before it can damage the tendon.

469
Q

component of the peripheral nervous system functions without conscious control to maintain homeostasis by increasing or decreasing visceral activity in response to internal changes.

A

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

470
Q

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for

A

visceral reflexes.

471
Q

The autonomic nervous system- sensory input

A

transmitted by general visceral sensory (afferent) neurons from special visceral receptors

472
Q

The autonomic nervous system- visceral responses

A

regulated by general visceral motor (efferent) neurons that either excite or inhibit visceral effectors

473
Q

The autonomic nervous system consists of

A

a sympathetic division and a parasympathetic division.

474
Q

sympathetic division

A

prepares the body for physical action

475
Q

sympathetic division effects

A

Increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate

476
Q

parasympathetic division

A

concerned with activities that conserve energy and/or restore energy to the body

477
Q

autonomic tone

A

the balance between these divisions in response to the changing needs of the body

478
Q

Autonomic motor pathways

A

use two motor neurons to carry signals to effectors.

479
Q

preganglionic neuron

A

extends from its soma in the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion by way of a cranial or spinal nerve: tend to be thin and myelinated

480
Q

postganglionic neuron

A

lies completely outside the central nervous system and extends from an autonomic ganglion to its effector

481
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic (thoracolumbar) division

A

arise from the lateral gray horns of the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

482
Q

short preganglionic fibers

A

connect with sympathetic chain ganglia, which are located along either side of vertebral column

483
Q

short preganglionic fibers may—

A

may synapse immediately with postganglionic neuron; may synapse with other ganglia and form sympathetic trunk; may continue to other ganglia without forming any synapses

484
Q

long postganglionic fibers

A

connect with various effectors

485
Q

illustrates neuronal divergence

A

each preganglionic fiber may branch and synapse with many postganglionic fibers;

486
Q

illustrates neuronal convergence

A

each postganglionic fiber may receive synapses from many preganglionic fibers

487
Q

Motor neurons of the sympathetic division

A

connect with the adrenal glands and control the secretion of adrenal hormones.

488
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division

A

arise from cranial nerves in the brainstem and from the sacral region of the spinal cord.

489
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- long preganglionic fibers

A

connect with terminal ganglia in or near an effector

490
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- short postganglionic fibers

A

connect to the target organ

491
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- oculomotor nerve

A

carries fibers that control the lens and the pupil of the eye

492
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- facial nerve

A

carries fibers that regulate salivation and crying

493
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- glossopharyngeal nerve

A

carries fibers that are involved in salivation

494
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division- vagus nerve

A

carries about 90% of the preganglionic fibers to visceral organs

495
Q

The enteric nervous system

A

innervates smooth muscle and glands in the digestive tract to regulate the movement of food through the intestines and also to control the secretion of digestive enzymes.

496
Q

Cholinergic fibers release

A

acetylcholine, which produces brief, localized effects.

497
Q

all sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are

A

cholinergic

498
Q

all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are

A

cholinergic

499
Q

a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons are

A

cholinergic

500
Q

Cholinergic receptors bind

A

acetylcholine in order to open ligand-gated ion channels.

501
Q

nicotinic receptors are found on

A

postsynaptic neurons in all autonomic ganglia, in the adrenal medulla, and in neuromuscular junctions (activation by ACh causes depolarization and excitation of post synaptic cell)

502
Q

muscarinic receptors are found on

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

        activation by ACh causes excitation of smooth muscle in intestines, but inhibition of cardiac muscle
503
Q

Adrenergic fibers produce

A

norepinephrine (NE), which produces longer lasting and more widespread effects than acetylcholine.

504
Q

most sympathetic postganglionic neurons are

A

adrenergic

505
Q

Adrenergic receptors bind

A

norepinephrine

506
Q

alpha receptors

A

are usually excitatory when bound with norepinephrine

507
Q

alpha receptors causes

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels

508
Q

beta receptors

A

are usually inhibitory when bound with norepinephrine

509
Q

beta receptors relaxes

A

bronchioles to enhance airflow

510
Q

knowing location of adrenergic and cholinergic receptors

A

allows drugs to target specific organs

511
Q

Most visceral organs receive neurons from

A

both the sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division, so they have dual innervation.

512
Q

sympathetic signals and heart activity

A

sympathetic signals increase heart activity,

513
Q

parasympathetic signals and heart activity

A

parasympathetic signals decrease heart activity

514
Q

sympathetic signals and digestive activities

A

sympathetic signals inhibit digestive activities,

515
Q

parasympathetic signals and digestive activities

A

parasympathetic signals increase digestive activities

516
Q

Sensory receptors

A

specialized for detecting environmental stimuli and converting them into action potentials.

517
Q

Sensory Receptors- stimuli produce

A

a receptor potential that may release a neurotransmitter or cause a nerve signal to be sent to the central nervous system

518
Q

sensory receptors transmit

A

information about the type of stimulus, the location of the stimulus, the intensity of the stimulus, and length of time that the stimulus lasts

519
Q

Receptive fields

A

vary in size and in number of neurons

520
Q

Sensory receptors can be classified according to

A

the type of stimulus that triggers them.

521
Q

chemoreceptors

A

respond to various chemicals

522
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

respond to touch, pressure, vibration

523
Q

nociceptors

A

respond to pain

524
Q

photoreceptors

A

respond to light

525
Q

thermoreceptors

A

respond to heat and cold

526
Q

Tactile sensations are detected by

A

encapsulated and unencapsulated nerve endings that are located under the skin and in mucous membranes.

527
Q

encapsulated nerve endings

A

are enclosed in connective tissue capsules and mostly serve as mechanoreceptors

528
Q

unencapsulated nerve endings

A

are “naked” and mostly serve as nociceptors throughout the body

529
Q

Touch sensations are detected by

A

mechanoreceptors

530
Q

crude touch

A

the ability to perceive contact with the skin, while discriminative touch refers to the ability to recognize exactly where that contact has occurred

531
Q

Merkel discs and Meissner corpuscles in skin detect

A

discriminative touch

532
Q

Krause end bulbs in mucous membranes detect

A

discriminative touch

533
Q

hair receptors at base of hair follicles respond to

A

touch that bends a hair

534
Q

Pressure

A

a sustained sensation that is felt over a larger area than touch.

535
Q

pressure is detected by

A

Pacinian corpuscles deep in the dermis

536
Q

Vibrations

A

result from rapid repetition of sensory signals coming from Pacinian corpuscles.

537
Q

Itch sensations

A

result from the stimulation of free nerve endings by chemicals.

538
Q

Thermoreceptors

A

are free nerve endings located in epithelial tissue and connective tissue throughout the skin.

539
Q

“Cold” receptors

A

respond to falling temperatures.

540
Q

“Warm” receptors

A

respond to rising temperatures.

541
Q

Prolonged stimuli from very low or very high temperatures can produce

A

pain sensations.

542
Q

Pain sensations are detected by

A

free nerve endings that serve as nociceptors in almost all organs, but they tend to be especially dense in the skin and mucous membranes.

543
Q

nociceptors respond to

A

any stimulus that is strong enough to cause tissue damage

544
Q

tissue irritation or tissue injury

A

releases chemicals that stimulate nociceptors; causes pain sensations to linger until these chemicals are removed

545
Q

bradykinin

A

chemical that produces most potent pain stimulus

546
Q

serotonin, prostaglandins, and histamine

A

also stimulate nociceptors

547
Q

Fast pain

A

sharp, localized, and conducted by myelinated pain fibers. (Needle pricks)

548
Q

Slow pain

A

dull, long-lasting, and conducted by unmyelinated pain fibers.

    May gradually increase in intensity until it becomes excruciating (toothache)
549
Q

somatic pain

A

Pain arising from receptors in the skin, muscles, or joints

550
Q

pain arising from visceral receptors

A

visceral pain.

551
Q

visceral pain

A

may be mistakenly “felt” in the skin as referred pain, due to convergence of neuronal pathways in CNS

552
Q

phantom pain

A

itching or tingling or pain that is experienced by someone who has had a limb amputated

553
Q

Pain travels by

A

diverse and complex routes and pain sensations can originate anywhere along these routes.

554
Q

pain travels from the head region along cranial nerves

A

V, VII, IX, and X

555
Q

pain travels from the trunk along the

A

spinothalamic tract and the spinoreticular tract

556
Q

Pain can be modulated by

A

the central nervous system or by drugs that have analgesic mechanisms.

557
Q

There are approximately __________ located on the tongue, cheeks, soft palate, and throat that serve as chemoreceptors for gustatory (taste) sensations.

A

10,000 taste buds

558
Q

taste buds

A

found in several types of lingual papillae

559
Q

each taste bud consists of _________ ,which fall into one of three categories

A

40 to 60 cells

560
Q

gustatory cells

A

contain tuft of gustatory hairs that project into a taste pore

561
Q

taste buds are easily damaged by

A

heat or friction and get replaced every 7 to 10 days

562
Q

Chemical substances get dissolved in saliva in order to enter a

A

taste pore.

563
Q

gustatory hairs

A

are stimulated and generate receptor potentials

564
Q

There are five primary taste sensations

A

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami - that tend to be more correlated with some regions of the tongue than with others.

565
Q

receptors for bitter taste

A

at the back of the tongue are the most sensitive

566
Q

Trigger gagging and/or retching to protect against ingesting harmful substance

A

receptors for bitter taste

567
Q

receptors for sweet taste

A

at the tip of the tongue are less sensitive

568
Q

receptors for salty taste

A

along the lateral surface of the tongue are less sensitive

569
Q

all “tastes” are

A

actually combinations of these sensations and can be detected from any area with taste buds

570
Q

Taste signals

A

conducted from the taste buds along the facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves to the medulla oblongata.

571
Q

conducted to thalamus which relays them to primary gustatory area to be interpreted

A

Taste signals

572
Q

Taste dislikes

A

may be a protective mechanism

573
Q

taste preferences

A

may have homeostatic value to ensure intake of nutrients, vitamins, minerals

574
Q

The chemoreceptors for olfactory (smell) sensations

A

are located in the olfactory mucosa of the nasal passages.

575
Q

olfactory receptors

A

are bipolar neurons equipped with olfactory hairs

576
Q

olfactory glands

A

produce mucus to moisten the olfactory epithelium and dissolve odoriferous chemicals

577
Q

Gases enter the nose

A

and stimulate olfactory hairs to generate receptor potentials.

578
Q

Nerve signals are carried along the olfactory nerves to

A

olfactory bulbs beneath the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex.
-olfactory tract then carries these signals to the primary olfactory area in the temporal lobe without transmitting them through thalamus

579
Q

The sense of smell

A

poorly understood, but smells seem to evoke vivid memories and strong emotional responses, which may be due to the proximity of the olfactory centers to the limbic system in the cerebral cortex.

580
Q

______ of all sensory receptors are in our eyes and nearly ____ of the cerebral cortex is involved in visual processing.

A

70%; 50%

581
Q

Eyebrows

A

protect the eyeballs from foreign objects, perspiration, and direct sunlight.

582
Q

Eyelids

A

shade the eyes during sleep, protect the eyes from excessive light and foreign objects, and blink every 3 to 5 seconds to spread lubricating secretions over the eyeballs.

583
Q

eyelashes

A

highly innervated guard hairs that keep debris out of our eyes and trigger the blink reflex

584
Q

conjunctiva

A

a transparent mucous membrane lining the inner surface of each eyelid that secretes a film of mucus to prevent the eyeball from becoming too dry.

585
Q

irritation or infection of the conjunctiva can dilate blood vessels and produce

A

“bloodshot eyes”

586
Q

The lacrimal apparatus

A

produces tears and drains them from the eye.

587
Q

lacrimal glands

A

produce tears, which contain water, says, mucus, lysozyme

588
Q

lacrimal ducts

A

carry tears to the conjunctiva to be spread over surface of eyeball

589
Q

tears

A

eventually carried into the nasal cavity

590
Q

Three pairs of extrinsic eye muscles

A

produce smooth, precise, and rapid movements of the eyeballs to coordinate focusing and prevent “double vision” from occurring.

591
Q

The fibrous tunic

A

the outer layer of the eyeball.

592
Q

sclera

A

dense white connective tissue that covers most of the eyeball

        makes the eyeball more rigid and protects its internal components
593
Q

anterior cornea

A

a nonvascular, transparent region that covers the iris

        convex curvature enables it to bend light
594
Q

The vascular tunic

A

the middle layer of the eyeball.

595
Q

choroid

A

a highly vascular and deeply pigmented layer of tissue

596
Q

ciliary body

A

an extension of the choroid at the front of the eye

597
Q

ciliary processes

A

secrete watery aqueous humor

598
Q

ciliary muscle

A

circular band of smooth muscle that alters shape of lens to permit near vision or far vision

599
Q

pigmented iris

A

an adjustable diaphragm that controls the diameter of the pupil (the pupil is not a structure, it is the opening at the center of the iris, the iris is the structure)

600
Q

radial smooth muscle fibers

A

dilate pupil when more light is needed

601
Q

circular smooth muscle fibers

A

constrict pupil when less light is needed

602
Q

The nervous tunic

A

the inner layer of the eyeball.

603
Q

retina

A

a thin transparent membrane pressed tightly against the choroid

604
Q

macula lutea

A

a patch of cells with a small depressed fovea centralis; located at exact center of visual axis of eye

605
Q

optic disc

A

occurs where the optic nerve exits the eyeball

Lacks photoreceptor cells; produces blind spot where no image can form

606
Q

trauma to the head

A

may detach a retina and cause distorted vision or even blindness

607
Q

Aqueous humor fills an anterior chamber

A

between the cornea and the iris and a posterior chamber between the iris and the lens.

608
Q

aqueous humor

A

is reabsorbed into the blood by way of the canal of Schlemm; maintains proper intraocular pressure and provides nutrients to the lens and cornea

609
Q

excessive intraocular pressure

A

can cause glaucoma, which can lead to degeneration of retina and cause blindness

610
Q

The lens

A

a non-vascular, transparent structure made up of crystalline proteins.

611
Q

suspensory ligaments

A

attach the lens to the ciliary body and hold it in position behind the pupil

612
Q

cataracts

A

cloud the lens because of aging, injury, overexposure to the sun, long-term use of steroids, or diabetes; can cause loss of transparency

613
Q

The vitreous body

A

a jelly-like substance located between the lens and the retina.

    maintains shape of eyeball and keeps retina flush against the internal portions of the eyeball
614
Q

The pupil

A

uses a parasympathetic reflex arc to control the amount of light entering the eye.

615
Q

contraction of circular smooth muscle fibers in the iris

A

constricts the pupil to screen out light rays at the edge of the lens to create sharp image of a close object

616
Q

photopupillary reflex

A

is consensual, because both pupils will constrict even if only one eye is exposed to light

617
Q

Light rays enter the eye

A

and are refracted by the cornea and the lens until they are focused on the central fovea of the retina to produce an image that is inverted and reversed.

618
Q

in general, the closer the object is to the eye,

A

the more that light rays must be refracted to be focused on central fovea and produce a clear image

619
Q

Increasing the curvature of the lens bends the light rays coming from close objects and focuses them on the retina through

A

accommodation.

620
Q

ciliary muscles contract,

A

which causes suspensory ligaments to relax, thus reducing tension on the lens to make it more spherical and refract light rays more sharply

621
Q

Medial rotation of both eyeballs by the extrinsic eye muscles

A

produces convergence, which permits both eyes to focus on a single object.

622
Q

in myopia

A

(nearsightedness) either the eyeball is too long or the lens is too thick, so light rays focus in front of the retina and produce blurred vision (corrected by using concave lens)

623
Q

in hypermetropia

A

(farsightedness) either the eyeball is too short or the lens is too thin, so light rays focus behind the retina and produce blurred vision (corrected by using a convex lens)

624
Q

astigmatism

A

due to an irregular curvature of the cornea or the lens; causes unequal focusing and blurred vision

625
Q

presbyopia

A

occurs when the lens loses elasticity, which reduces one’s ability to accommodate lens and focus on near objects (corrected with bifocals)

626
Q

The conversion of light energy into action potentials occurs in the

A

retina

627
Q

layer of darkly pigmented cuboidal cells

A

forms pigment epithelium to absorb stray light rays and prevent reflection and scattering of light within the eyeball

628
Q

Photoreceptor cells

A

absorb light energy and generate chemical or electrical signals.

629
Q

rods

A

specialized for black-and-white vision in dim light; allow for discrimination among shapes and various shades of gray

630
Q

rods contain

A

the light-sensitive photopigment rhodopsin; consists of opsin protein and retinal, derivative of vitamin A absorbed from blood by pigment epithelium

631
Q

cones

A

specialized for color vision in bright light and visual acuity

632
Q

cones contain

A

the light sensitive photopigment photopsin; various forms respond differently to blue, green, yellow-orange light

633
Q

rods and cones

A

send chemical signals to bipolar neurons

634
Q

bipolar neurons send signals to

A

ganglion cells whose axons form the optic nerve

635
Q

When rhodopsin is exposed to light,

A

it splits into opsin and retinal and becomes colorless because of bleaching.

636
Q

bleaching

A

triggers chemical reactions that signal a bipolar neuron that a rod has absorbed light

637
Q

when bipolar neurons detect variations in light intensity

A

they stimulate ganglion cells

638
Q

for rods to continue functioning,

A

they must regenerate rhodopsin at a rate that keeps pace with bleaching

639
Q

Light adaptation

A

occurs when someone in a dark environment is exposed to bright light.
- pupils quickly constrict and the individual experiences momentary difficulty seeing because photopigment bleaching reduces supply of light sensitive pigments

640
Q

Dark adaptation

A

occurs when an individual enters a darkened environment.
pupils dilate and visual sensitivity slowly increases as rhodopsin is regenerated, which may take 20 to 30 minutes

641
Q

Color vision

A

perceived according to the number of each type of cone that is stimulated.

642
Q

cones are less sensitive to light, so it requires

A

greater light intensity to activate them compared to stimulating rods

643
Q

absence or deficiency of cone photopigments

A

can produce color blindness

644
Q

Bipolar neurons in the retina

A

synapse with retinal ganglion cells in the optic nerve.

645
Q

visual pathways- Nerve signals travel along the

A

optic nerve, cross the optic chiasm, enter the thalamus through the optic tracts, and eventually reach the primary visual area in the occipital lobe where they are interpreted and acted upon.

646
Q

Sound

A

produced when a vibrating object creates disturbance in a medium (e.g., air).

647
Q

Pitch

A

determined by the frequency at which an object vibrates.

648
Q

Loudness

A

the perception of sound intensity determined by the energy of the vibration.

649
Q

involves the sensations of balance and motion.

A

Equilibrium

650
Q

static equilibrium

A

the orientation of the head when the body is stationary

651
Q

dynamic equilibrium

A

the perception of motion

652
Q

The outer ear consists of

A

a fleshy auricle (pinna) and an external auditory canal that collect sound waves and direct them toward the eardrum.

653
Q

external auditory canal

A

lined with hairs and ceruminous glands that secrete cerumen (earwax) to trap dust and foreign particles

654
Q

The middle ear

A

occupies an air-filled tympanic cavity in the temporal bone.

655
Q

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

a thin, semitransparent partition between the external auditory canal and the middle ear

656
Q

shock waves, trauma, infection

A

can perforate eardrum

657
Q

auditory (Eustachian) tube

A

connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

658
Q

air pressure

A

can be equalized on both sides of the tympanic membrane to ensure that eardrum vibrates freely when struck by sound waves

659
Q

extending across the middle ear are

A

three small auditory ossicles

660
Q

malleus

A

(hammer) attaches to tympanic membrane

661
Q

incus

A

(anvil) is middle bone

662
Q

stapes

A

(stirrup) attaches to oval window

663
Q

The middle ear

A

occupies an air-filled tympanic cavity in the temporal bone.

664
Q

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

a thin, semitransparent partition between the external auditory canal and the middle ear

665
Q

shock waves, trauma, infection

A

can perforate eardrum

666
Q

auditory (Eustachian) tube

A

connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

667
Q

air pressure

A

can be equalized on both sides of the tympanic membrane to ensure that eardrum vibrates freely when struck by sound waves

668
Q

extending across the middle ear are

A

three small auditory ossicles

669
Q

malleus

A

(hammer) attaches to tympanic membrane

670
Q

incus

A

(anvil) is middle bone

671
Q

stapes

A

(stirrup) attaches to oval window

672
Q

____ small muscles insert on the auditory ossicles

A

two

673
Q

The inner ear consists of

A

an outer bony labyrinth filled with perilymph and an inner membranous labyrinth filled with endolymph.

674
Q

vestibule

A

forms the central portion of the bony labyrinth, and its membranous labyrinth contains two chambers

675
Q

posterior utricle

A

connected by small duct to anterior saccule

676
Q

above and behind the vestibule

A

three semicircular ducts in bony semicircular canals, arranged at right angles to one another

677
Q

in front of the vestibule

A

the cochlea, which resembles a snail’s shell

678
Q

scala vestibuli

A

superior chamber filled with perilymph

679
Q

scala tympani

A

inferior chamber also filled with perilymph

680
Q

cochlear duct

A

filled with endolymph; separated from scala vestibuli by vestibular membrane and from scala tympani by basilar membrane

681
Q

resting on basilar membrane is

A

spiral organ of Corti

682
Q

spiral organ of Corti contains

A

thousands of hair cells (stereocilia) covered with jelly-like tectorial membrane

683
Q

auricle

A

directs sound waves into the external auditory canal, so they can move toward the tympanic membrane.

684
Q

Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and produce

A

vibrations with the same frequency and comparable intensity as the original sound waves.

685
Q

Vibration of the stapes creates

A

enough force to cause vibration of the oval window.

686
Q

Ossicles don’t amplify sound, but they

A

reduce transfer of energy to protect inner ear against loud sounds

687
Q

Vibration of the oval window

A

sets up fluid pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli.

688
Q

Pressure waves push the vestibular membrane up and down,

A

creating pressure waves in the endolymph of the cochlear duct.

689
Q

Pressure waves in the endolymph move the basilar membrane up and down,

A

causing the hair cells to move back and forth and trigger receptor potentials.

690
Q

frequency of a sound depends on

A

which segment of the basilar membrane vibrates

691
Q

loudness of a sound depends on

A

the intensity of the vibrations of the basilar membrane and the number of hair cells that generate receptor potentials

692
Q

Spiral ganglia associated with the organ of Corti form

A

the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve, which terminates in the brainstem.

693
Q

Equilibrium

A

can be hard to describe because it is a response, often without awareness, to movements of the head.

694
Q

The walls of the utricle and saccule contain

A

thickened maculae that serve as receptors for static equilibrium and linear acceleration.

695
Q

otoliths

A

hair cells are embedded in a thick, gelatinous otolithic membrane, which is covered with a layer of calcium carbonate crystals called otoliths

696
Q

when the position of the head changes,

A

the otolithic membrane and the otoliths shift position and stimulate the hair cells

697
Q

hair cells initiate signals in the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve which travel to

A

motor areas in the brainstem and cerebellum to maintain static equilibrium

698
Q

In the ampulla of each semicircular canal

A

is a small elevated crista that serves as the receptor for dynamic equilibrium and rotation.

699
Q

each crista contains

A

hair cells and supporting cells covered by a dome-shaped gelatinous cupula

700
Q

when the head moves, endolymph pushes the cupula, which

A

stimulates the hair cells

701
Q

hair cells form nerve signals that are carried by

A

the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve to the cerebellum to maintain balance and coordination

702
Q

The bony labyrinth

A

moves with the body, while fluids within the membranous labyrinth move at different rates.

703
Q

Conduction deafness

A

occurs when the conduction of sound waves to the fluid-filled inner ear get blocked.

    can be caused by a ruptured eardrum

    otosclerosis fuses the auditory ossicles to one another or fuses the stapes to the oval window
704
Q

Sensorineural deafness

A

results from damage to hair cells caused by aging or prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds.

705
Q

Tinnitus

A

a symptom of degeneration of the cochlear nerve, which produces phantom cochlear noise.

706
Q

Meniere’s syndrome

A

a disorder of the labyrinth in the inner ear that can cause vertigo, nausea and vomiting, and the inability to stand up.

    it is probably due to the overproduction and accumulation of endolymph
707
Q

gap junctions

A

enable cells to communicate with adjacent cells by transmitting molecules from cytoplasm to cytoplasm through pores in plasma membrane

708
Q

neurotransmitters diffuse across a synaptic cleft and

A

bind to postsynaptic receptors

709
Q

paracrines

A

(local hormones) are secreted into the extracellular fluid and diffuse to nearby cells in the same tissue to exert physiological effect

710
Q

circulating hormones

A

are secreted by endocrine glands and they travel through the blood to stimulate distant target cells

711
Q

Endocrine glands

A

ductless glands that secrete hormones into the extracellular fluid, so the hormones can diffuse into the blood to be carried to target cells throughout the body.

712
Q

hormones can only bind to

A

target cells that possess the correct receptors

713
Q

target cells can adjust their sensitivity to a hormone by

A

changing the number of receptors

714
Q

target cells can up-regulate by

A

increasing number of receptors to become more sensitive to hormone (uterus increases oxytocin receptors late in pregnancy)

715
Q

target cells can down-regulate by

A

reducing number of receptors to become less sensitive to hormone (adipocytes reduce number of insulin receptors)

716
Q

The endocrine system uses ________ to control the body, while the nervous system uses _____________ to control the body

A

hormones; nerve signals

717
Q

Hormones travel through ______________, while nerve signals travel along _____________.

A

blood vessels; neurons

718
Q

Hormones travel much more ____________ than nerve signals

A

slowly

719
Q

Hormones affect _________________, while nerve signals usually affect __________________.

A

a variety of target cells; a specific group of effectors.

720
Q

Hormones exert their effects over a __________ period of time than nerve signals.

A

longer

721
Q

Steroid hormones

A

derived from cholesterol so they have a four-ring structure.

    testosterone, estrogens, and cortisol differ in functional groups attached to ring
722
Q

Peptide hormones

A

amino acid chains of variable lengths.

723
Q

peptide hormones get synthesized like any other protein:::

A

Gene gets transcribed into mRNA; gets translated to form pre-prohormone

        Rough ER removes portion of this peptide to create prohormone

        Golgi apparatus cuts or splices prohormone to create functional hormone
724
Q

insulin is synthesized as

A

inactive pre-proinsulin, which is modified into proinsulin, which is converted into the active hormone

725
Q

Monoamines

A

(catecholamines) are modified from amino acids.

    thyroid hormone is modified from tyrosine
726
Q

Eicosanoids

A

local hormones derived from the fatty acid arachidonic acid.

727
Q

prostaglandins

A

are the most diverse local hormones and they initiate contractions in smooth muscle

728
Q

leukotrines

A

are signaling chemicals that play role in inflammation and allergies

729
Q

Hormones must travel through ___________________ to reach their target cells

A

the bloodstream

730
Q

hormones can alter

A

the permeability of the plasma membrane of the target cell

731
Q

hormones can stimulate

A

protein synthesis by the target cell; and cell division

732
Q

hormones can activate

A

or deactivate enzymes

733
Q

hormones can trigger

A

secretion of chemicals by the target cell

734
Q

Most peptide hormones and monoamines are

A

hydrophilic and can easily travel through the blood.

735
Q

Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones must

A

bind to transport proteins before they can travel through blood.

736
Q

Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones are lipid-soluble, so they can

A

diffuse through the phospholipid plasma membrane of the target cell into the cytoplasm.

737
Q

Steroid hormones enter the nucleus and combine with

A

an intracellular receptor that is associated with the DNA of the target cell.

738
Q

Transcription produces new mRNA, which directs

A

the synthesis of proteins that can alter the physiological activity of the target cell.

739
Q

Peptide hormones and catecholamines cannot

A

diffuse through the phospholipid plasma membrane, so they bind to extracellular receptors on the outer surface of the target cell.

    Designated as "first messengers"
740
Q

A receptor-hormone complex activates

A

a “second messenger” system inside the cell.

    G protein activates adenylate cyclase- which converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP)

    G protein activates phospholipase-  which will break membrane phospholipids into diacylglycerol and inositol tri phosphate ( IP3)
741
Q

cAMP and diacylglycerol activate protein kinase enzymes, which add

A

phosphate to a protein to activate or inhibit enzymes to alter the physiological response of the target cell.

742
Q

IP3 opens

A

ligand-gated calcium channels to allow calcium ions to flood into the cytoplasm and alter the physiological response of the target cell.

743
Q

Hormones that bind to extracellular receptors can

A

induce their effects at low concentration because they trigger a chain reaction of enzyme amplification.

744
Q

The responsiveness of a target cell to a hormone depends on

A

number of receptors it has, concentration of hormone, influences exerted by other hormones

745
Q

Synergistic effects

A

involve two or more hormones that work together to produce cumulative effect greater than effect that either hormone can produce separately

    Estrogens and follicle stimulating hormone act together to stimulate follicle maturation in ovaries
746
Q

Permissive effects

A

occur when particular hormone acts on target cell to enhance the target cells response to one or more additional hormones

    Uterus must be exposed to estrogens before progesterone prepares it for pregnancy
747
Q

Antagonistic effects

A

occur when one hormone directly opposes effect that different hormone has on same target cell

    Insulin lowers blood glucose levels, but glucagon raises blood glucose levels
748
Q

Negative feedback occurs when

A

blood levels of hormone increase and suppress further secretion of that hormone

    When blood levels of that hormone drop, endocrine function resumes
749
Q

Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to

A

nerve signals / releasing hormones

750
Q

Positive feedback occurs when

A

hormone- induced response intensifies initial stimulus and causes release of additional hormones

751
Q

The hypothalamus forms

A

the floor of the diencephalon.

752
Q

The hypothalamus produces

A

releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones to control activities of the pituitary gland

753
Q

The pituitary gland

A

a pea-shaped structure in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

    suspended from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum
754
Q

The adenohypophysis

A

(anterior lobe of the pituitary gland) is connected to the hypothalamus by hypophyseal portal veins.

    these blood vessels transport hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
755
Q

The neurohypophysis

A

(posterior lobe of the pituitary gland) is a mass of neuroglia and nerve fibers connected to the hypothalamus by specialized neurosecretory cells.

    nerve signals are sent along the axons of these neurons to release hormones that were produced by the hypothalamus, but stored in the posterior lobe
756
Q

The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

A

synthesizes and secretes tropic hormones along a hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal axis, a hypothalamo-pituitary-thyroid axis, or a hypothalamo-pituitary- adrenal axis to stimulate other endocrine glands to release their hormones.

757
Q

Growth hormone

A

(GH) is secreted by somatotropes, which are the most abundant cells in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

758
Q

GH principal function is

A

to promote mitosis and cellular differentiation for tissue growth

759
Q

other GH functions:

A

stimulates the liver and other tissues to secrete insulin-like growth factors (IGF)

    stimulates protein synthesis and inhibits protein breakdown

    increases fat breakdown to release energy from free fatty acids

    reduces the rate of glucose usage during ATP production

    promotes electrolyte balance
760
Q

GH secretion usually occurs while

A

we sleep and is regulated by hypothalamic releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones

761
Q

hyposecretion of GH during childhood growth

A

causes pituitary dwarfism; limits child’s height to about 4 feet without affecting normal Body proportions

        Can be treated with genetically engineered GH
762
Q

hypersecretion of GH during childhood

A

can result in gigantism

        GH stimulates epiphyseal plates that are already active; can produce heights of 8 feet
763
Q

hypersecretion of GH during adulthood

A

because of a tumor in the adenohypophysis can cause acromegaly

Bones and soft tissue in hands, feet, face, becomes abnormally thick

764
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

A

(TSH), or thyrotropin, is secreted by thyrotropes.

765
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

(ACTH), or corticotropin, is secreted by corticotropes.

766
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone

A

(FSH) is a gonadotropin secreted by gonadotropes.

767
Q

TSH stimulates:

A

growth of the thyroid gland and its release of thyroid hormones

768
Q

ACTH stimulates:

A

the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete corticosteroids

769
Q

FSH in females

A

stimulates the monthly development of egg-containing ovarian follicles

770
Q

FSH in males

A

stimulates sperm production in the testes

771
Q

Prolactin

A

(PRL) is secreted by lactotropes, which increase in size and number during pregnancy

772
Q

PRL after females gives birth

A

stimulated mammary glands which were previously prepared by other hormones, to produce milk and maintain its production

773
Q

PRL in males

A

makes testes more sensitive to LH; enhances testosterone secretion

774
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

(ADH)- or vasopressin, acts on kidneys to increase water retention from urine and decrease urine volume to prevent dehydration

775
Q

Hyposecretion of ADH

A

causes diabetes insipidus, characterized by excretion of large amounts of dilute urine

        Results in dehydration and chronic thirst
776
Q

Oxytocin

A

(OT)- stimulates contractions of smooth muscles in walls of uterus and in contractile cells in mammary glands

777
Q

release of OT

A

Released in response to distension of cervix during labor and establishes positive feedback cycle to facilitate childbirth

    Release in response to stimulation of nipple during nursing, so milk release can continue though positive feedback

    Release during sexual arousal and climax and it propels semen through urethra
778
Q

The pineal gland

A

a small cone of endocrine tissue located in the epithalamus.

779
Q

pineal gland size and secretions

A

Much larger in children than in adults

        It's secretions peak by age 5, decline 75% by end of puberty
780
Q

The pineal gland produces

A

serotonin during the day and melatonin during the night.

781
Q

melatonin

A

seems to be associated with the body’s diurnal dark-light cycle

782
Q

overproduction of melatonin

A

may contribute to seasonal affective disorder (SAD) a type of depression that arises during winter when day length is short

may also contribute to pre-menstrual syndrome

783
Q

The thymus gland

A

a large gland above the heart in infants, but it shrinks after puberty.

784
Q

The thymus gland secretes

A

hormones to develop white blood cells called T-lymphocytes.

785
Q

The thyroid gland

A

a butterfly-shaped gland divided into two lateral lobes that lie on either side of the trachea just below the larynx.

786
Q

The thyroid gland- follicular cells

A

produce and secrete triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4)

787
Q

The thyroid gland- C cells

A

produce and secrete calcitonin (CT)

788
Q

T3 and T4

A

released in response to TSH in order to increase one’s metabolic rate.

789
Q

T3 and T4 use

A

more oxygen, which creates a calorigenic effect that produces body heat
Secretion increases in cold weather to compensate for heat loss

790
Q

T3 and T4 increase

A

fat breakdown and the use of glucose to produce ATP

791
Q

T3 and T4 combine with

A

GH and insulin to accelerate body growth

792
Q

Calcitonin

A

lowers blood levels of calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts from breaking down bone and by increasing the activity of osteoblasts that deposit calcium in bone.

793
Q

hyposecretion of thyroid hormones during infancy

A

can cause cretinism, condition characterized by dwarfism and severe mental retardation

794
Q

goiter

A

an enlarged thyroid gland due to insufficient iodine in the diet

795
Q

Grave’s disease

A

occurs when auto-antibodies mimic the effect of TSH and cause thyroid hypertrophy and hypersecretion

796
Q

Grave’s disease consequences

A

increases the metabolic rate leading to weight loss

        increases heart rate

        produces abnormal heat sensitivity and increased sweating
        causes bulging eyeballs
797
Q

The parathyroid glands

A

four small, round masses of tissue attached to the posterior surface of each lateral lobe of the thyroid gland.

798
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

(PTH) raises blood calcium levels by promoting calcitriol synthesis

799
Q

PTH increases

A

the number and activity of osteoclasts that break down bone and release calcium into blood

the rate at which the kidneys remove calcium from urine

800
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

typically occurs as a consequence of trauma or thyroid surgery and causes a calcium deficiency, which impairs neuromuscular activity and leads to muscle twitches, spasms, and the convulsions associated with tetany.

801
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

a relatively rare condition that causes the removal of large quantities of calcium from the bones, leaving them brittle and susceptible to spontaneous fractures.

    Also contributes to the formation of kidney stones
802
Q

Each adrenal gland is located

A

in a mass of fat above each kidney and it is organized into an outer adrenal cortex and an inner adrenal medulla.

803
Q

The adrenal medulla

A

does not mature until age 3 when a sympathetic ganglion consisting of hormone-producing chromaffin cells responds to sympathetic preganglionic neurons by secreting epinephrine and norepinephrine.

804
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine supplement the effects produced by

A

the sympathetic division of ANS, but their effects lasts longer

805
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine increase

A

blood pressure, heart rate, and the rate of respiration

metabolism by converting glycogen to glucose during glycogenolysis; by synthesizing glucose from amino acids and fatty acids during gluconeogenesis

806
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine inhibit

A

insulin secretion to reduce glucose consumption by muscles

807
Q

The adrenal cortex

A

divided into zones, each of which secretes different corticosteroids.

808
Q

outer zona glomerulosa

A

secretes mineralocorticoids; regulate concentration of electrolytes in ECF

809
Q

aldosterone-

A

increases reabsorption of sodium ions and excretion of potassium ions by kidneys

810
Q

middle zona fasciculata

A

secretes glucocorticoids

811
Q

cortisol and corticosterone-

A

promote breakdown of proteins and lipids into amino acids and fatty acids, respectively, to make more glucose available so body is alert and prepared to deal with stress

812
Q

anti-inflammatory compounds-

A

relieve swelling and other signs of inflammation

813
Q

inner zona reticularis

A

secretes androgens that get converted into testosterone

814
Q

androgens-

A

contribute to onset of puberty, development of secondary sexual characteristics, sex drive, sexual behavior in males and females

815
Q

overproduction of adrenal androgens by females

A

can cause adrenogenital syndrome, which results in formation of male sexual characteristics

816
Q

The pancreas

A

a flattened organ located inferior/ posterior to the stomach.

817
Q

Pancreas has both ________________ functions

A

exocrine and endocrine

818
Q

Endocrine functions are performed by

A

pancreatic islets (of Langerhans).

819
Q

alpha cells (pancreas)

A

secrete glucagon, which activates glycogenolysis in liver and release of glucose into blood

820
Q

glucagon secretion (pancreas)

A

is regulated by negative feedback from low blood sugar levels trigger its release from alpha cells to increase blood levels of glucose

821
Q

beta cells (pancreas)

A

secrete insulin; activates cells to absorb glucose and store it as glycogen for later use

822
Q

insulin secretion (pancreas)

A

is regulated by negative feedback when high blood sugar levels trigger its release from beta cells to reduce blood levels of glucose

823
Q

delta cells (pancreas)

A

secrete somatostatin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon and insulin and slows absorption of nutrients from gastrointestinal tract

824
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

( low blood sugar ) results from overproduction of insulin

825
Q

Hypoglycemia Symptoms

A

include anxiety, sweating, weakness

826
Q

Hypoglycemia consequences

A

Depriving brain cells of glucose causes mental disorientation, convulsions, unconsciousness, which can quickly lead to death

827
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

a group of disorders that lead to elevated levels of glucose in the blood (hyperglycemia), which can produce excess glucose in the urine (glucosuria).

828
Q

Diabetes

A

most prevalent metabolic disease and leading cause of adult blindness, renal failure, limb amputation

829
Q

Symptoms of diabetes mellitus

A

include excessive urine production (polyuria), excessive thirst (polydipsia), excessive appetite (polyphagia)

830
Q

type I Diabetes

A

about 10% of all cases are type I, or insulin-dependent diabetes (IDDM), which appears to be an autoimmune disease that destroys insulin-producing beta cells

831
Q

type II diabetes

A

known as non-insulin-dependent diabetes (NIDDM), and it occurs most often among people over 40 who are overweight

832
Q

type II diabetes- target cells

A

do not respond to insulin

833
Q

type II diabetes- adipocytes

A

secrete substances that interfere with glucose transport into cells

834
Q

last card!!

A

awesome!!