Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 214 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mitosis

A

a type of cell division by which a diploid somatic cell duplicates its DNA and divides once to produce two genetically identical diploid daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

multicellular organisms use this type of cell division for tissue growth and repair

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diploid (2N) cells

A

contain two complete sets of homologous chromosomes, which have the same size, the same shape, and carry genes for the same traits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In order for a eukaryotic cell to reproduce itself

A

it must duplicate its DNA and distribute that DNA to the resulting daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Human somatic cells contain

A

23 pairs of homologous chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The cell cycle

A

an orderly sequence of events that describes the life of a cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

occurs between successive divisions of a cell and is the longest portion of the cell cycle.

A

Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the first “Gap” phase (G1)

A

a cell duplicates its organelles, synthesizes proteins, grows, and carries out its metabolic activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how long do Typical somatic cells spend in G1

A

8-10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the “Synthesis” phase (S)

A

the DNA molecules are replicated in order to produce two identical copies of the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how long do Typical somatic cells spend in S

A

6-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the second “Gap” phase (G2)

A

cell growth continues, proteins that are needed for cell division get synthesized, and centrioles are replicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how long do Typical somatic cells spend in G2

A

4-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describes division of the nucleus, which is followed by division of the cytoplasm.

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long do Typical somatic cells spend in Mitosis

A

1-2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The length of the cell cycle varies from one type of cell to another.

A 
Some cells (skin) will divide continuously
        Some cells (liver) divide very slowly unless organ is damaged
            If damaged, cells divide more rapidly
        Some cells (nerve cells, heart muscle) lose their ability to divide and get replaced by scar tissue when they die
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many stages are required to divide the nucleus in mitosis

A

five sequential stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PROPHASE

A

The first stage; chromatin in the nucleus condenses into thick, rod-shaped chromosomes
Each chromosome consists of identical pair of chromatids joined together at centromere
the nuclear membrane starts to disintegrate
nucleoli disappear
pairs of centrioles migrate toward opposite poles of the cell
Mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PROMETAPHASE.

A

The second stage; microtubules form a spindle apparatus with fibers that attach one identical chromatid to one pole of the cell and the other identical chromatid to the opposite pole of the cell
chromosomes migrate toward the center of the cell as pairs of chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

METAPHASE

A

The third stage; chromosomes line up randomly along a metaphase plate at the center of the cell with one chromatid located on each side of the cell’s “equator”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ANAPHASE

A

The fourth stage; centromeres split and microtubules pull the identical chromatids apart
chromatids migrate toward opposite poles of the cell as they become daughter chromosomes
Only use term chromatid when attached by centromere, once separate they are daughter chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TELOPHASE.

A

The final stage; daughter chromosomes decondense and form a tangled mass of chromatin
a new nuclear envelope forms around each tangled mass of chromatin
the spindle apparatus is disassembled
nucleoli reappear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cytokinesis

A

begins during late anaphase or early telophase as the cytoplasm divides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A variety of factors are needed to initiate cell division.

A

sufficient cytoplasm must exist to be distributed to the daughter cells
DNA replication must be completed
an adequate supply of nutrients must be available to the cell
maturation promoting factor, cdc2 proteins, and cyclin must be present
adjacent cells die and create space for new cells to occupy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Certain factors can halt cell division.

A

withdrawal of nutrients or growth factors
contact inhibition blocks cell division when cells touch one another
apoptosis is the orderly, genetically programmed death of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Meiosis

A

another type of cell division by which a diploid germ cell duplicates its DNA and divides twice to produce four genetically different haploid gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

germ cells

A

special reproductive cells in the gonads that produce eggs or sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Haploid (N) cells

A

contains only one complete set of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Meiosis requires ___ nuclear divisions to separate and distribute the DNA into gametes.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the first nuclear division (Meiosis I)

A

a reduction division because number of chromosomes gets reduced from diploid (2N) to haploid (N)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the second nuclear division (Meiosos II)

A

an equatorial division; chromatids that comprise a chromosome get separated and distributed to different gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prophase I

A

DNA condenses into visible chromosomes.
homologous chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad
maternal and paternal chromatids within a tetrad exchange pieces of DNA during crossing-over
Produces new gene combinations on chromatid
nuclear envelope disintegrates
nucleoli disappear
centrioles assemble microtubules into a spindle apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

metaphase I

A

tetrads line up at the center of the cell.

pair of chromatids that make up each homologous chromosome lie on opposite sides of the cell’s equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

anaphase I

A

tetrads separate and the two chromatids that make up each homologous chromosome move toward opposite poles of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

telophase I

A

the cytoplasm gets divided and two haploid cells result.
unpaired chromosomes decondense into a tangled mass of chromatin
a new nuclear envelope forms around each tangled mass of chromatin
the spindle apparatus is disassembled
nucleoli reappear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Interkinesis

A

a quiet phase, during which time each haploid daughter cell prepares to divide again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Major difference between meiosis II and Mitosis

A

meiosis II involves haploid cells, while mitosis involves diploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The second nuclear division of meiosis II

A

similar to mitosis because the pairs of non-identical chromatids are separated and distributed into four gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The first meiotic division reduces ….

A

the number of chromosomes from 46 in the diploid germ cell to 23 in each haploid daughter cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The second meiotic division separates …

A

each of the 23 pairs of chromatids in each daughter cell and distributes them into a pair of gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cancer

A

refers to any disease characterized by uncontrolled cell division that produces abnormal tumors or neoplasms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

benign tumors

A

tend to grow slowly and don’t spread to other organs, but they interfere with normal body function and/or appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

malignant tumors

A

non-encapsulated, they grow rapidly, and they spread to other organs by way of blood or lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

do not exhibit contact inhibition and easily break loose from tumor to ‘seed’ growth of new tumors

A

Malignant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

enclosed within fibrous capsule

A

Most benign tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Contact inhibition

A

cells come into contact with another cell and they stop cell division temporarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Metastasis

A

describes the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

the initial invasion of malignant cells into the surrounding tissue

A

produces a primary tumor that competes for space and nutrients and ultimately destroys normal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

secondary tumors

A

malignant cells may detach from this primary tumor and establish secondary tumors with new networks of blood vessels that provide nutrients for rapid growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

approximately _____ of cancer deaths result from metastasis

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how is cancer named

A

according to the cells or tissues from which the primary tumor arises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

carcinomas

A

arise from epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

melanomas

A

arise from pigment-producing melanocytes in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sarcomas

A

arise from bone cells or muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

leukemia

A

arises from abnormal white blood cells produced in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

lymphomas

A

arise from lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

90% of all cancers are

A

carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

______ of cancers are caused by environmental carcinogens that cause mutations.

A

60% to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

oncogenes

A

mutant forms of normal genes called proto-oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

code for proteins that stimulate cell division, cell growth, cell adhesion

A

Proto- oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

produce excess growth- factor or abnormal produce excess growth- factor or abnormal growth-factor receptors that stimulate continual cell division

A

Oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A

inhibit cell division or inactivate carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Loss of, or damage to, tumor suppressor genes…

A

can trigger cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

the “accelerator” of the cell cycle

A

oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the “brakes” on the cell cycle

A

tumor suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

most cancers are treated by

A

surgical removal of the malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

chemotherapy

A

administers drugs that poison malignant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

radiation therapy

A

destroys the chromosomes in malignant cells in order to prevent cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

malignant cells are vulnerable to …

A

chemotherapy and radiation therapy because they divide faster than normal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

treatment is often difficult because…

A

the variety of cells in a tumor may respond differently to different chemicals and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

DNA is composed of

A

two long chains of deoxynucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

each deoxynucleotide contains

A

the sugar deoxyribose, which has a phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon and a nitrogenous base attached to the 1’ carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Nitrogenous bases of DNA

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The DNA molecule takes the shape of

A

a double helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

‘side of the ladder’

A

the sugar of one deoxynucleotide is linked to the phosphate group of the next deoxynucleotide by a covalent bond, which creates sugar phosphate chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

‘rungs of the ladder’

A

complementary base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The two chains that make up the DNA double helix are

A

antiparallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Unwinding

A

an enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold complementary base pairs together ‘unzipping’ DNA double helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pairing

A

free deoxynucleotides in the nucleoplasm form hydrogen bonds with deoxynucleotides on each template to create complementary base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Joining

A

deoxynucleotides attached to the template are joined together by covalent bonds to form a “daughter” strand that is complementary to its “parent” strand template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

DNA replication is semiconservative

A

because each replicated DNA molecule consists of one original “parent” strand plus one newly synthesized complementary “daughter” strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

why are Errors in DNA replication are quite rare

A

because enzymes “proofread” the daughter strand and correct mistakes in complementary base pairing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

mutations

A

Uncorrected errors that are passed on to next generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

RNA is composed of

A

one chain of ribonucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

each ribonucleotide contains

A

the sugar ribose, which has a phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon and a nitrogenous base attached to the 1’ carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Nitrogenous bases of RNA

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

RNA can exist as

A

a long, single strand or a twisted structure with hairpin loops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

carries coded genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to ribosomes in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A

holds ribosome subunits together during protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

) binds to a specific amino acid in the cytoplasm and delivers it to a ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

transcription

A

the process by which genetic information that is stored in DNA is copied into a strand of messenger RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

the sense strand

A

its sequence of deoxynucleotides contains coded information that “makes sense” for synthesizing a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

the template strand,

A

it will be transcribed into molecule of messenger RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

pre- mRNA

A

contains exons that code for segment of a protein and introns that do not code for any part of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Introns

A

must be removed from pre-mRNA and exons must be spliced together to produce functional mRNA molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

After transcription is completed,

A

the two strands of DNA are rejoined and the mRNA passes out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm where translation will occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

must be linked together in the correct sequence to synthesize a protein.

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

codon

A

Three consecutive ribonucleotides in mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

the four ribonucleotides that make up mRNA must somehow specify____ different amino acids that are used in protein synthesis

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

there are three “stop codons” that halt protein synthesis

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Translation

A

the process by which the genetic information that was coded into mRNA gets converted into a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

bind to mRNA and search for the start codon (AUG) in order for translation to begin.

A

The two ribosome subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Additional tRNA molecules

A

bring their amino acids to the ribosome according to the codons in the mRNA strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Gregor Mendel

A

Our understanding of heredity comes from his experiments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

why did Mendel chose to study garden peas

A

because they were easy to grow, they expressed distinct traits without intermediate effects, and he could control the breeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

pure-breeding

A

peas that are self-pollinated produce offspring with same traits as the parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

hybrids

A

peas that are cross-pollinated produce offspring with a mixture of parental traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Law of Segregation

A

each organism contains two “factors” for any given trait and these factors separate during gamete formation, so each gamete contains only one factor for each trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Law of Independent Assortment

A

members of one pair of factors separate independently of members of another pair of factors so all possible combinations of factors can occur in the gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

a gene

A

a segment of DNA on a chromosome that controls the expression of structural, physical, or even behavioral traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

locus

A

The location of a particular gene on a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

contain both members of a pair of homologous chromosomes, so they possess two copies of any particular gene.

A

Diploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

contain only one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes, so they possess only one copy of any particular gene

A

haploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

alleles

A

Alternate or contrasting forms of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

genotype

A

The combination of the two alleles for a particular trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

if the same allele is received from each parent, the genotype is ______________ and organism is _______________

A

homozygous; pure-breeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

if contrasting alleles are received from the parents, the genotype is _______________ and organism is _____________

A

heterozygous; hybrid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

phenotype

A

Only one allele is usually expressed at any time and the physical expression of the genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

dominant allele

A

the allele that is expressed when two contrasting forms of a gene are present at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

recessive allele

A

the allele that is not expressed when two contrasting forms of a gene are present at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

represented with lower case letters

A

Recessive allele

122
Q

represented with capital letters

A

Dominant allele

123
Q

the first letter of a __________ trait is typically selected to represent that trait

A

Recessive

124
Q

monohybrid cross

A

follows one pair of contrasting traits from pure-breeding parents through hybrid offspring (F1) to a third generation (F2).

125
Q

monohybrid testcross

A

uses a homozygous recessive individual to determine the genotype of an individual that displays the dominant phenotype.

126
Q

if all of the offspring from the testcross display the dominant phenotype, the tested individual must be

A

homozygous dominant

127
Q

if one-half of the offspring from the testcross display the dominant phenotype and one-half display the recessive phenotype, the tested individual must be

A

heterozygous

128
Q

dihybrid cross

A

follows two pairs of contrasting traits simultaneously from pure-breeding parents (P) through hybrid offspring (F1) to a third generation (F2).

129
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

describes a situation in which neither allele may be completely dominant, so a heterozygous genotype produces an intermediate phenotype between the dominant and recessive phenotypes.

130
Q

Codominance

A

describes a situation where there are more than two alleles and each allele may specify a particular substance that is expressed by the heterozygous genotype.

131
Q

Epistasis

A

occurs when genes at two different loci interact to control a single trait.

132
Q

Pleiotropy

A

describes a situation in which a single gene affects more than one trait.

133
Q

Humans have____ pairs of autosomes and ______ pair of sex chromosomes

A

22; 1

134
Q

autosomes

A

the same in males and females and carry most of our genes

135
Q

sex chromosomes

A

different in males and females and determine our sex

136
Q

Genotype XX

A

produces female phenotype

137
Q

Genotype XY

A

produces male phenotype

138
Q

are not truly homologous, because the Y chromosome is shorter and shaped differently than the X chromosome

A

human sex chromosomes

139
Q

X-linked genes

A

Any genes carried on non-homologous portion of X chromosome

140
Q

have only one copy of an X-linked gene, so they express whatever trait is controlled by the allele they have for that gene.

A

Males

141
Q

will only express a recessive sex-linked trait if they carry two copies of the X-linked recessive allele.

A

Females

142
Q

called carriers if they possess one recessive allele but express dominant trait

A

heterozygous females

143
Q

passed from a father to his daughter, who becomes a carrier

A

X-linked genes

144
Q

inherited by a daughter only if her father has the trait and her mother is at least a carrier

A

sex-linked traits

145
Q

tissue

A

consists of similar cells that have a common embryonic origin and are designed to work together to perform a particular function.

146
Q

Tissues differ from one another according to

A

the types of cells that are present and the matrix that surrounds these cells.

147
Q

a matrix

A

composed of various fibers within a ground substance

148
Q

Ground substance

A

can be hard or semisolid or liquid; contains water, gases, minerals, nutrients, wastes, other chemicals

149
Q

Tissues are classified as

A

epithelial (covering) or connective (support) or muscle (movement) or nervous (control).

150
Q

There are _____ primary germ (inal) layers that give rise to all mature tissues.

A

three

151
Q

Ectoderm

A

the outer layer and it produces the epidermis and nervous system.

152
Q

Mesoderm

A

the middle layer and it produces muscle, bone, blood, and most of the other connective tissues.

153
Q

Endoderm

A

the inner germ and it produces mucous membranes and digestive glands.

154
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

consists of cells that are tightly packed together with little extracellular material between them.

155
Q

apical surface

A

always free and exposed to a body cavity or lumen of an internal organ or an exterior body surface

156
Q

basal surface

A

attaches to adjacent connective tissue

157
Q

Epithelial tissue attaches to

A

underlying connective tissue by a basement membrane.

158
Q

basal lamina

A

contains collagen fibers and other proteins

159
Q

reticular lamina

A

contains reticular fibers and other proteins

160
Q

is avascular and depends on blood from the underlying connective tissue, but it can quickly regenerate.

A

Epithelial tissue

161
Q

Location of Epithelial tissue

A

covers body surfaces, lines body cavities and forms the secretory structure of glands to function in protection, absorption, and secretion, respectively.

162
Q

Simple Epithelium

A

Consists of one layer of epithelial cells, with every cell touching the basement membrane.

163
Q

Simple squamous epithelium

A

consists of thin, flat cells, each with one central nucleus.

164
Q

Simple squamous epithelium functions

A

in diffusion, osmosis, and filtration

165
Q

Location of Simple squamous epithelium

A

located in lungs and kidneys and small intestine

166
Q

Mesothelium lines

A

abdominal, pleural, and pericardial cavities

167
Q

Endothelium lines

A

heart and blood vessels

168
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

consists of squarish cells with a central spherical nucleus.

169
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium functions

A

absorption and secretion

170
Q

Location of Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

kidney tubules and the lining of the ducts of salivary glands

171
Q

Simple columnar epithelium

A

consists of elongated rectangular cells with a single nucleus located near the base of the cell.

172
Q

Simple columnar epithelium functions

A

in secretion and absorption

173
Q

non-ciliated columnar epithelium

A

in the small intestine contains goblet cells that secrete mucus and microvilli that increase surface area to enhance absorption

174
Q

ciliated columnar epithelium

A

in uterine tubes moves oocytes toward the uterus

175
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

consists of cells of different heights that rest on the same basement membrane, but the nuclei are located at different levels so it appears that there are multiple layers.

176
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium functions

A

secretes mucus and moves the mucus by ciliary action

177
Q

Locations of Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

located in the upper respiratory tract and in portions of the male reproductive tract

178
Q

is named according to the shape of the cells in the apical layer. Have multiple layers

A

Stratified epithelium

179
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium

A

consists of multiple layers of cells and is the most widespread epithelium in the body.

180
Q

deep cuboidal or columnar cells

A

become squamous near the apical surface

181
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium functions

A

protects against pathogens, resists abrasion, and retards water loss

182
Q

keratinized epithelium on the skin surface

A

contains a layer of dead squamous cells filled with waterproof keratin protein

183
Q

non-keratinized epithelium locations

A

covers tongue and lines mouth, esophagus, anal canal, and vagina; lacks the surface layer of dead squamous cells so it is moist and slippery

184
Q

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

consists of two or more layers of cube-shaped cells.

185
Q

Stratified cuboidal epithelium functions

A

in protection, limited secretion, and absorption

186
Q

Locations of Stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

in the ducts of sweat glands and in ovaries and testes

187
Q

Stratified columnar epithelium

A

quite rare and found only in limited regions of the pharynx, larynx, anal canal, and male urethra.

188
Q

Transitional epithelium

A

consists of round or cuboidal cells that become squamous in shape as the tissue gets stretched.

189
Q

Transitional epithelium permits:

A

distension of an organ or structure

190
Q

Locations of Transitional epithelium

A

in the ureters, urinary bladder, and part of the urethra

191
Q

Connective tissue

A

the most abundant, widely distributed, and variable tissue in the body.

192
Q

All connective tissues arise from

A

embryonic mesenchyme

193
Q

Functions of connective tissue.

A

binds organs together and provides support for organs and other tissues
allows various body movements
protects internal organs
protects the body against disease-causing organisms
stores energy
transports nutrients, wastes, and gases through the body

194
Q

Connective Tissue consists of

A

fibers, with widely separated cells surrounded by different kinds of ground substance.

195
Q

fibroblasts

A

large, flat, spindle-shaped cells with branching processes

196
Q

Blasts

A

undifferentiated cells that synthesize and secrete fibers and ground substance

197
Q

macrophages

A

large irregular cells that phagocytize bacteria and cellular debris

198
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells that protect against bacteria and toxins

199
Q

plasma cells

A

round or irregular cells that secrete proteins, which can attack or neutralize foreign substances in body

200
Q

mast cells

A

large cells located near blood vessels that secrete heparin to inhibit blood clotting and secrete histamine to dilate blood vessels and increase blood flow

201
Q

adipocytes

A

large, rounded cells that store triglycerides

202
Q

Types of fibers found in connective tissue.

A

collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and reticular fibers

203
Q

collagen fibers

A

consist of collagen proteins that provide great strength and flexibility

204
Q

elastic fibers

A

consists of elastin proteins that can easily stretch and recoil

205
Q

reticular fibers

A

thin collagen fibers coated with glycoproteins that provide support for blood capillaries, nerves, and muscles

206
Q

Ground substance

A

supports cells and fibers and affects how a tissue functions.

207
Q

glycosaminoglycans

A

play an important role in regulating water and electrolytes

208
Q

proteoglycans

A

form thick colloids that hold tissues together

209
Q

adhesive glycoproteins

A

bind membrane proteins to collagen fibers

210
Q

Areolar connective tissue

A

consists of collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and reticular fibers and all of the cell types, which are embedded in a semi-fluid ground substance.

211
Q

Areolar connective tissue binds:

A

epithelium to deeper tissue and provides strength and support

212
Q

Areolar connective tissue description

A

thin, delicate membranes that are located beneath skin

213
Q

Areolar connective tissue are also located:

A

between the skin and muscles and around blood vessels and nerves

214
Q

Reticular connective tissue

A

consists of reticular fibers and fibroblasts.

215
Q

Reticular connective tissue functions as

A

a support framework

216
Q

location of Reticular connective tissue

A

in lymph nodes, in the spleen, and in bone marrow

217
Q

Adipose tissue

A

contains few fibers, but has numerous adipocytes filled with large fat droplets.

218
Q

Adipose tissue functions

A

as a protective cushion, insulates against heat loss, and stores energy

219
Q

Locations of Adipose tissue

A

in subcutaneous “fat layers” beneath the skin, in the breasts and hips, and around the kidneys, heart, and various joints

220
Q

amount of adipose tissue in the body depends upon

A

the amount of food consumed

221
Q

Dense regular connective tissue

A

contains parallel bundles of collagen fibers.

222
Q

Dense regular connective tissue’s orderly arrangement:

A

provides strength

223
Q

Dense regular connective tissue is a principal component of :

A

tendons and ligaments

224
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue

A

contains collagen fibers that are randomly arranged.

225
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue provides:

A

strength to resist unpredictable stresses

226
Q

Location of Dense irregular connective tissue

A

between the skin and underlying muscle, and in protective capsules around the kidneys, liver, and other internal organs

227
Q

Elastic connective tissue

A

contains branching elastic fibers and fibroblasts.

228
Q

Elastic connective tissue function

A

permits stretching

229
Q

Location of Elastic connective tissue

A

in lungs and respiratory passageways, walls of elastic arteries, and in vocal cords

230
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

a hereditary defect in elastic fibers that causes joint and vision problems

231
Q

Cartilage

A

Consists of collagen fibers and elastic fibers and mature chondrocytes embedded in a semisolid matrix containing chondroitin sulfate

232
Q

blood supply of cartilage

A

cartilage lacks its own blood supply so it depends on diffusion from nearby tissues to obtain nutrients

233
Q

low rate of metabolism and cell division in cartilage

A

causes repair of injured cartilage to occur very slowly

234
Q

cartilage is usually surrounded by

A

a perichondrium (‘around the cartilage’) sheath of dense irregular CT

235
Q

Hyaline cartilage description

A

has a glossy, bluish-white appearance and is the most abundant type.

236
Q

functions of Hyaline Cartilage

A

functions as a matrix for bone development and provides friction-free movement at joints

237
Q

locations and names of hyaline cartilage

A

Articular cartilage- located attends of long bones
Costal cartilage- located at ends of ribs
Other locations- tip of nose, parts of larynx, trachea, and bronchi

238
Q

Elastic cartilage contains

A

chondrocytes within a web-like mesh of elastic fibers.

239
Q

Elastic cartilage functions

A

provides strength and flexible elastic support

240
Q

Elastic cartilage locations

A

maintains the shape of the external ear and epiglottis

241
Q

Fibrocartilage contains

A

chondrocytes among collagen fibers, but it has no perichondrium.

242
Q

Fibrocartilage functions

A

absorbs shock and provides support

243
Q

Fibrocartilage lactions

A

◦located in the pubic symphysis at the front of the pelvis and in the intervertebral discs
◦forms shock-absorbing pads in the knees

244
Q

Bone Tissue: two types of _______________________ tissue make up most of the bone mass of the skeleton

A

osseous

245
Q

spongy bone

A

consists of columns and plates called trabeculae

246
Q

compact bone

A

◦consists of dense calcified rings called osteons

247
Q

the hardest type of connective tissue;

A

compact bone

248
Q

osteocytes

A

mature bone cells

249
Q

Bone tissue functions

A

•provides physical support for the body, protects internal organs, provides leverage for muscle action, and stores calcium and phosphorus.

250
Q

Blood description

A

•a fluid connective tissue whose ground substance is called plasma.

251
Q

blood composition

A

•Suspended in the plasma are red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and fibers.

252
Q

blood functions

A

•transport cells and dissolved substances throughout the body

253
Q

Nerve tissue composition

A

•consists of neurons and supporting cells called neuroglia, or glial cells

254
Q

Neruon processes

A

◦extending from the cell body are single axons that transmit signals away from the cell body; and branched dendrites receive signals from nearby neurons

255
Q

the cell body of a neuron contains

A

the nucleus and other organelles

256
Q

neuron functions

A

specialized for detecting stimuo and transmitting nerve signals to other cells

257
Q

nerve tissue locations

A

• in the brain, spinal cord, and in peripherl nerves

258
Q

an excitable tissue that responds quickly to external stimuli by undergoing a change in the membrane potential of its cells.

A

nerve tissue and cardiac muscle tissue

259
Q

Skeletal muscle consists

A

of long, cylindrical multinucleate cells called muscle fibers

260
Q

skeletal muscle function

A

•Most skeletal muscle attaches to bones to move body parts.

261
Q

skeletal muscle description

A

striated and its contractions are under voluntary control.

262
Q

Cardiac muscle consists

A

of branched uninucleate myocytes held together by intercalated discs.

263
Q

Cardiac muscle is found in

A

the wall of the heart

264
Q

cardiac muscle description

A

•striated like skeletal muscle, but its contractions are involuntary.

265
Q

Smooth muscle is called_________________and it consists of

A

visceral muscle; spindle-shaped uninucleate cells

266
Q

Smooth muscle is found in

A

the walls of the stomach, bladder, uterus, and blood vessels

267
Q

smooth muscle description

A

not striated and its contractions are involuntary.

268
Q

Cell junctions are

A

•contact points between the plasma membranes of tissue cells.

269
Q

Tight junctions

A

•work like “zippers” to connect cells in epithelium that lines body cavities.

270
Q

tight junctions function

A

◦prevent digestive juices from seeping between the epithelial cells that line the stomach and intestines which would cause digestion of underlying CT

271
Q

Desmosomes

A

work like “snaps” to attach adjacent cells to one another in tissues that need to resist mechanical stresses.

272
Q

Were are desmosomes common

A

◦common among cells in the superficial layer of the skin and between myocytes

273
Q

Gap junctions

A

use protein channels, called connexons, to form tiny, fluid-filled channels between adjacent cells.

274
Q

Glands are composed of

A

•epithelial cells that produce or release aqueous secretions.

275
Q

exocrine glands secrete

A

their products into ducts to be released at the surface of the body or into the lumen of another organ

276
Q

endocrine glands

A

have no ducts and secrete hormones into the extracellular fluid

277
Q

can be classified as unicellular or multicellular

A

exocrine glands

278
Q

unicellular exocrine glands

A

could be mucous cells or goblet cells

279
Q

multicellular glands

A

are usually enclosed within a capsule that is divided into lobes, which are subdivided into lobules

280
Q

Multicellular exocrine glands include

A

salivary glands, pancreas, mammary glands

281
Q

Exocrine glands can also be classified according to

A

the type of substances they secrete

282
Q

serous glands

A

produce thin watery fluids, such as perspiration or tears

283
Q

mucous glands

A

produce the glycoprotein mucin that absorbs water to become sticky mucus

284
Q

Merocrine (eccrine) glands

A

release their secretions by exocytosis.

285
Q

examples of merocrine glands

A

salivary, sweat, pancreatic glands

286
Q

Apocrine glands are similar to

A

merocrine glands

287
Q

examples of apocrine glands

A

sweat glands in armpit or mammary glands

288
Q

Holocrine glands produce

A

secretions that consist of dead cell fragments and chemicals.

289
Q

examples of holocrine glands

A

oil glands in skin

290
Q

The largest membrane

A

cutaneous membrane (skin)

291
Q

cutaneous membrane

A

consists of a layer of stratified squamous epithelium resting on top of a layer of underlying connective tissue.

292
Q

the only dry membrane in the body

A

the cutaneous membrane

293
Q

A mucous membrane (mucosa)

A

consist of a layer of epithelium, a layer of areolar connective tissue called the lamina propria, and a layer of smooth muscle called the muscularis.

294
Q

location of mucous membrane

A

◦mostly lines body cavities and/or tracts that open to the exterior

295
Q

function of mucous membrane

A

mucus moistens and lubricates the tissue and traps bacteria and foreign particles

296
Q

A serous membrane (serosa)

A

consists of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue that is covered with simple squamous epithelium.

297
Q

location of serous membrane

A

lines internal body cavities, forms pleurae that cover the lungs, forms the pericardium that covers the heart, and forms the peritoneum that covers the abdominal organs

298
Q

function of serous membrane

A

watery serous fluid lubricates these membranes to reduce friction

299
Q

A synovial membrane

A

•consists only of connective tissue without any epithelium.

300
Q

location and function of synovial membrane

A

lines joint cavities and secretes a slippery synovial fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage that covers the ends of the bones

BIOL 214 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions