Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 214 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

the body’s largest organ in terms of surface area and weight.

A

The skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Skin would cover

A

1.5 to 2.0 square meters if surface area if flattened into a sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Skin makes up approximately ____ of your total body weight

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Organization of the skin

A

consists of a superficial epidermis and a deeper dermis; below this is the hypodermis, which is a layer of connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

thickness of skin

A

1mm to 2mm thick; ranges from 0.6 mm in eyelids to 6.0 mm on back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

thick skin

A

has five epidermal layers and covers the palms, soles, fingers, and toes with a surface layer of dead cells and it lacks hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

thin skin

A

has four thinner epidermal layers and covers all other parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dermatology

A

the study and treatment of the integument and the appearance and/or condition of one’s skin can provide diagnostic information regarding one’s overall health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

organization of the epidermis

A

consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium that is organized into several distinct strata.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

blood supply of epidermis

A

it contains no blood vessels, so its cells depend on diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from blood vessels in underlying connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The stratum basale

A

consists of a single layer of cuboidal or columnar cells that continuously undergo mitotic cell division to produce new skin cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

keratinocytes

A

the most abundant cells and are held together by desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

helps to waterproof skin

A

Tough, fibrous keratin protects skin from heat, microbes, chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

melanocytes

A

synthesize the pigment melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

melanin

A

responsible for skin color and it absorbs ultraviolet radiation to protect skin from damaging effects of sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Merkel cells

A

touch receptors that join with sensory neurons to form Merkel discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The stratum spinosum

A

consists of several layers of keratinocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when skin is prepared for microscope slides,

A

keratinocytes shrink and pull apart, except where attached by desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dendritic (Langerhans) cells

A

macrophages that a rise in bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis to protect body against microbes that invade skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The stratum granulosum

A

consists of keratinocytes that contain dark-staining granules of protein that eventually become keratin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

as keratinocytes flatten,

A

the nucleus and organelles disintegrate and granules of keratin accumulate in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the outer limit for diffusion of substances

A

the stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The stratum lucidum

A

a thin, translucent layer of dead cells found only in thick skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The stratum corneum

A

contains up to 30 layers of dead, scaly keratinized cells and makes up about 75% of the thickness of the epidermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

it takes ________________ for a keratinocyte to migrate to the skin’s surface and exfoliate

A

30 to 40 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most household dust is made up of

A

dander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the presence of dander in bedding provides food for

A

dust mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

an allergy to household dust is actually an allergy

A

to the feces of dust mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

persistent friction with the stratum corneum layer can cause

A

a thickened callus to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

organization of the dermis

A

consists of connective tissue comprised mainly of collagen fibers, but elastic fibers, reticular fibers, fibroblasts, and macrophages are also present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

dermal papillae.

A

The boundary between the dermis and the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

these finger-like projections of the dermis extend into the epidermis to form epidermal ridges on the palms, fingers, soles, and toes; they increase grip by increasing friction

A

dermal papillae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The papillary layer

A

a superficial zone comprised of areolar connective tissue that contains elastic fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The papillary layer contains

A

capillaries, touch receptors (Meissner’s corpuscles), and numerous free nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The reticular layer

A

a deep zone comprised of dense irregular connective tissue that contains collagen bundles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The reticular layer contains

A

adipocytes, hair follicles, nerves, oil glands, and the ducts of sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

provide the skin with strength, extensibility, and elasticity

A

collagen fibers and elastic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

stretch marks

A

Small tears may occur during pregnancy or as result of obesity; produce silvery white stretch marks on thighs, buttocks, abdomen, breasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

subcutaneous hypodermis or superficial fascia

A

Beneath the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the subcutaneous hypodermis consists of

A

areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

functions of the subcutaneous hypodermis

A

binds skin to underlying tissue, cushions body, provides thermal insulation, stores energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

blood supply of the subcutaneous hypodermis

A

numerous blood vessels supply the skin with oxygen and nutrients and provide pathway for rapid absorption of drugs and/or medicines into bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pacinian corpuscles

A

nerve endings in the subcutaneous hypodermis that are sensitive to pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Skin color is determined by

A

genes that control the interaction of melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Melanin produces

A

variations in skin color that range from pale yellow to black.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

exposure to ultraviolet radiation in sunlight

A

stimulates melanocytes to increase their production melanin so skin becomes darker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

differences in skin color

A

due primarily to differences in amount of melanin produced (all races have approximately the same number of melanocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

melanin tends to be most plentiful in

A

face, limbs, around nipples, and external genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in people with dark skin,

A

melanin breaks down slowly making it visible in all epidermal layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

in people with light skin

A

melanin breaks down rapidly making it less visible beyond stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

freckles

A

flat patches of skin where melanin accumulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

moles

A

elevated patches of skin where melanin accumulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

vitiligo

A

results from partial or complete loss of melanocytes in patches of skin and produces irregular white blotches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Carotene

A

a yellow-orange pigment that accumulates in the stratum corneum or sub-cutaneous fat, which gives the skin a yellowish tint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If there are small amounts of melanin and carotene

A

the epidermis becomes translucent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hemoglobin molecules in the blood

A

become visible, which produces the pinkish flesh tones that are typical of Caucasian skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Erythema

A

describes abnormal redness due to the dilation of dermal blood vessels during strenuous exercise or heat or anger or embarrassment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cyanosis

A

describes blueness of the skin due to insufficient oxygen in the blood because of airway obstructions or lung disease or cold weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Jaundice

A

a yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes due to elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood because the liver is unable to dispose of the excess bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pallor

A

describes pale skin due to reduced dermal blood flow because of low blood pressure or shock or anemia or emotional stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Albinism

A

a genetic defect that results in a lack of the amino acid tyrosine, which blocks the synthesis of melanin and produces pale skin, white hair, and pink eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

hematoma

A

a visible blood clot caused by trauma to the skin, which produces a bruise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

hemangiomas

A

“birthmarks” caused by benign tumors of dermal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Hair (pili) covers

A

all skin surfaces except for the palms, soles, eyelids, lips, and nipples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

probably vestigial and has no essential function,

A

human hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

scalp hair

A

reduces heat loss and provides protection from ultraviolet radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

eyebrows

A

enhance facial expression and non-verbal communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

eyelashes

A

shield the eyes from rain and windblown debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

guard hairs

A

prevent foreign particles from entering the nostrils or ear canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Each hair consists of

A

columns of dead, keratinized cells that are fused together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

hair shaft

A

portion of a hair above the skin surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

hair root

A

deep to the shaft and is surrounded by a tube called the follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hair bulb

A

a swelling at the base of the follicle from which a hair originates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

papilla

A

contains blood vessels to nourish hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Each hair has _____ layers

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

inner medulla

A

contains air spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

cortex

A

consists of densely packed keratinized cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

cuticle

A

a single layer of overlapping scaly cells; as cuticles wear away, keratin fibrils spill out of cortex and medulla causing ‘split ends’ to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hair texture is related to

A

the cross-sectional shape of the hairs and hair color is due to the type and amount of pigment in each hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

if the hair shafts are flat and ribbon-like

A

the hair becomes “kinky”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

if the hair shafts are oval

A

the hair becomes “silky/wavy”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

if the hair shafts are round

A

the hair becomes “straight/coarse”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Gray and white hair

A

lack melanin in cortex and have air bubbles in shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Red hair

A

colored by iron-containing pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

coarse, long hair of eyebrows and scalp is

A

terminal hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

terminal hair

A

grows in response to testosterone,so it appears in auxiliary and pubic regions when males and females go through puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Hair growth follows

A

a cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

stem cells from the follicle

A

multiply and push the papilla deeper into the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

cells in the root sheath

A

transform into hair cells that synthesize keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

as they push upward away from papilla

A

the hair dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

a hair goes into a

A

resting stage and will eventually fall out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Normal adult hair loss

A

50-100 hairs per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

scalp hairs grow about

A

1 mm every three days with an annual growth of 10 to 18 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

alopecia

A

hair loss; hair growth slows down around age 40 and alopecia occurs because of aging or disease or poor nutrition or medical treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

pattern baldness

A

genetic condition expressed in individuals with high testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

An arrector pili muscle

A

consists of smooth muscle and is associated with each hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

cold temperatures, fright, or emotional stress

A

can cause these muscles to contract and pull a hair into a vertical position producing ‘goose bumps’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Nails

A

plates of hard, keratinized cells that form protective coverings over the dorsal surface of the terminal portion of the fingers and toes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The visible portion of a nail is the

A

nail body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

the hidden portion of a nail is the

A

nail root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

portion of the nail that extends beyond the end of the digit is the

A

free edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

a small white area at the proximal end of the nail body

A

lunule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

dead epidermis that covers the proximal end of the nail

A

cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Nail growth occurs by

A

mitosis from the nail matrix at a rate of about 1 mm per week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Sebaceous (oil) glands

A

usually connected to hair follicles, although some of them open directly to the surface of the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

keep hair from drying out and turning brittle, to keep skin soft and moist, to inhibit growth of certain bacteria

A

an oily sebum secreted by oil glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

accumulation of sebum in facial sebaceous glands

A

causes blackheads which can lead to formation of pimples if they become infected with bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Ceruminous glands

A

modified sweat glands in the outer ear canal that produce a waxy secretion called cerumen to provide a sticky barrier against the entrance of foreign bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands

A

produce a mixture of water, salts, and organic compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

sweat

A

regulates body temperature by providing a cooling mechanism; it also eliminates urea, lactic acid, ammonia, and some drugs from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

between 3 and 4 million eccrine sweat glands

A

distributed throughout the skin, especially in palms, soles, forehead; they produce watery perspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

apocrine sweat glands

A

located in armpits, pubic area, breasts, and beard area of mature males where their ducts lead to nearby hair follicles rather than to the surface of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

apocrine glands produce a viscous perspiration

A

contains organic substances that can be source of body odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

development of apocrine glands

A

do not develop until puberty and respond to emotional stress or sexual arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

apocrine glands in females

A

these glands enlarge and shrink during the monthly menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Skin

A

provides a protective physical barrier against abrasion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

anti-bacterial substances

A

bacteria have trouble multiplying because of anti-bacterial substances that are present in sebum and sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Bacteria that invade skin are attacked by

A

macrophages and leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

keratin

A

waterproof nature of keratin prevents dehydration and absorption of excess water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

melanin

A

provides some protection against damage from ultraviolet radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Transdermal absorption

A

the ability to absorb drugs and/or chemicals across the epidermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

nitroglycerine

A

can be absorbed to relieve heart pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

scopolamine

A

can be absorbed to reduce motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

nicotine patches

A

can be used to quit smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

hormones

A

can be absorbed for purposes of birth control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

toxins

A

from poison ivy, organic solvents, and metal salts can be easily absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Exposure to ultraviolet light

A

helps the skin convert a form of cholesterol into vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Vitamin D

A

aids in absorbing calcium and phosphorous from food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Perspiration

A

eliminates some organic wastes, salts, and water from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Nerve endings

A

can detect stimuli that get interpreted as touch, pressure, temperature, or pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The regulation of body temperature by the skin and other organs is a great example of

A

homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Excessive heat

A

triggers thermoreceptors in the skin to send nerve signals to a temperature control region in the hypothalamus of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

signals send to temp control regions

A

cause sweat glands to increase perspiration which cools body as sweat evaporates;dermal blood vessels dilate and blood flow increases so more heat can be released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Extreme cold

A

triggers thermoreceptors in the skin to send nerve signals to the temperature control region in the hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

hypothalamus

A

sends signals to dermal blood vessels that reduce blood flow to conserve heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

involuntary contractions of skeletal muscles

A

cause shivering,which produces heat to compensate for loss if heat from body’s surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Regeneration

A

replaces dead or damaged cells resulting from cuts, scrapes, and/or burns with the same cell type in order to restore normal function to the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

fibrosis

A

replaces damaged tissue with scar tissue that consists mainly of collagen fibers, so normal function gets altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

During an inflammatory phase

A

mast cells escape from damaged blood vessels and release histamine in order to increase blood flow to the site of the wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

During a migratory phase

A

a blood clot forms and scabs over to temporarily seal the wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

macrophages

A

enter the wound and phagocytize cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

During a proliferative phase

A

new blood capillaries develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

fibroblasts

A

deposit collagen fibers into the blood clot filling the wound with granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

During maturation phase

A

surface epithelial cells multiply and loosen scab until it eventually falls off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

the leading cause of skin cancer

A

Excessive exposure to sunlight; fair-skinned people and the elderly are most susceptible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

the most common type of skin cancer, but the least dangerous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Basal cell carcinoma tumors

A

arise from pre-cancerous cells in the stratum basale, but rarely metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

less common and will metastasize if neglected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma tumors

A

arise from keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum of scalp, ears, or back of hand; often from pre-existing skin lesions on sun- damaged skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Malignant melanoma

A

the least common, but metastasizes quickly and can be fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

most prevalent type of life-threatening cancer among young women

A

Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Malignant melanoma tumors

A

often arise from malignant melanocytes in a pre-existing mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

successful treatment depends on early detection (malignant melanoma)

A

A - asymmetry of mole
B - irregular border of mole
C - uneven and multiple coloration
D - diameter greater than 1/4 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Risk factors for skin cancer:

A

individuals with fair skin who tend to burn rather than tan
excessive exposure to sun and frequent occurrences of severe sunburn
family history of skin cancer
individuals who have a suppressed immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Tissue damage to the integument

A

destroys the protection afforded by the skin because it permits microbial invasion, infection, fluid loss, and loss of thermoregulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

First-degree burns

A

characterized by redness and pain in the surface epidermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

first degree burn healing

A

takes a few days and may be accompanied by peeling or flaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

example of first degree burns

A

most sunburns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Second-degree burns

A

destroy the entire epidermis and at least parts of the dermis; characterized by redness, blister formation, fluid accumulation, and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

second degree burn healing

A

takes several weeks and mild scarring may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Third-degree burns

A

destroy the epidermis, dermis, and even parts of the hypodermis;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

third degree burn pain

A

loss of sensory nerve endings actually limit pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Third-degree burns excessive fluid loss

A

can lead to massive infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Third-degree burns regeneration

A

slow, grafting may be necessarym considerable scarring occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Bones are classified as

A

organs because they consist of osseous tissue and also contain cartilage, fibrous connective tissue, and nervous tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The skeleton provides

A

a framework that supports the soft tissues of the body; protection; and surfaces for muscle attachments that are needed to move the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

bones that protect examples

A

Cranium protects brain; vertebral column protects spinal cord; bony thorax protects heart and lungs; pelvic girdle protects reproductive and urinary organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

hemopoiesis

A

The skeleton carries out hemopoiesis, by which red bone marrow produces blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

The skeleton stores

A

calcium, phosphorus, and other minerals needed for homeostasis; and stores energy in the adipose tissue found in yellow bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Long bones

A

have greater length than width and they are slightly curved for strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

_______________ is prevalent, but _________________ is present at both ends

A

compact bone; spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

distal and proximal ________________ are separated by a ___________________

A

epiphyses (ends); diaphysis (shaft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

long bone shaft covering

A

covered by a tough periosteum with fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue and osteogenic layer containing bone-forming cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Periosteum

A

protects bone, helps nourish bone tissue, assists in repairing functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

medullary cavity

A

runs the length of the diaphysis; filled with bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

red marrow

A

found at the ends of long bones; blood cells get produced

177
Q

yellow marrow

A

has adipose tissue for energy; can change to red marrow

178
Q

endosteum

A

comprised of reticular CT and lines medullary cavity

179
Q

articular cartilage

A

covers the epiphyses to provide friction-free movement in a joint

180
Q

Examples of long bones

A

humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, fibula

181
Q

Short bones

A

tend to be cube-shaped and they have nearly equal length and width.

182
Q

spongy bone is surrounded by a thin layer of

A

compact bone

183
Q

Examples of short bone

A

carpals in wrist, and tarsals in ankle

184
Q

Flat bones

A

thin, bony plates that provide extensive areas for muscle attachment.

185
Q

parallel plates of compact bone enclose a spongy ________ filled with red marrow

A

diploe

186
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae

187
Q

Irregular bones

A

come in a variety of odd shapes; tend to vary in the amount of compact bone and spongy bone

188
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

vertebrae, and some facial bones

189
Q

Osteogenic cells

A

stem cells in the periosteum and in the endosteum that differentiate into osteoblasts.

190
Q

Osteoblasts

A

bone-forming cells that secrete the collagen fibers and organic matter that is needed to calcify bone tissue.

191
Q

Osteocytes

A

mature bone cells that are derived from osteoblasts.

192
Q

Function of osteocytes

A

maintain the daily cellular activities of bone tissue, such as nutrient exchange and waste exchange

193
Q

Osteoclasts

A

bone-dissolving cells that function in bone resorption and remodeling.

194
Q

Bone matrix contains

A

inorganic hydroxyapatite for calcification or mineralization of bone.

195
Q

responsible for bone hardness

A

Crystallized calcium phosphate

196
Q

responsible for bone flexibility.

A

collagen and other proteins in the bone matrix

197
Q

Compact bone

A

arranged in functional units called osteons (Haversian systems) that function like tiny, weight-bearing “pillars”.

198
Q

central (Haversian) canals

A

runs the entire length of an osteon and contains blood vessels and nerve fibers.

199
Q

perforating (Volkmann) canals

A

link the blood vessel and nerves in a central canal with blood vessels and nerves in the medullary cavity and periosteum

200
Q

Concentric lamellae

A

rings of hard, calcified material around a central canal.

201
Q

Lacunae

A

tiny spaces between the lamellae and they contain osteocytes.

202
Q

Canaliculi

A

tiny channels that connect lacunae, so osteocytes can distribute nutrients to one another and transfer wastes to nearby blood vessels

203
Q

The lamellae in spongy bone

A

arranged in a network of bony trabeculae plates.

204
Q

spaces between the trabeculae in spongy bone

A

are filled with red bone marrow, which provides nourishment to osteocytes located in lacunae

205
Q

benefits of spongy bone

A

provides considerable strength without additional weight and it is the only location for the red bone marrow that produces blood cells in adults

206
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

bone formation directly on or in embryonic fibrous connective tissue membranes.

207
Q

Bones formed by Intramembranous ossification

A

Forms flat bones of skull, mandible, clavicles

208
Q

Mesenchyme cells cluster together and differentiate into

A

osteogenic cells, which become osteoblasts and start to form a center of ossification

209
Q

secrete an organic bone matrix until they are completely surrounded

A

osteoblasts

210
Q

Matrix secretion stops and osteoblasts become

A

osteocytes, which deposit calcium phosphate and other mineral salts until the matrix calcifies.

211
Q

Bone matrix develops into trabeculae that fuse together and create

A

spongy bone.

212
Q

creabsorb and remodel this bone to form spaces that fill with red marrow

A

osteoclasts

213
Q

Trabeculae at the surface calcify until the spongy bone gets replaced by

A

compact bone.

214
Q

mesenchyme at the surface condenses to form the

A

periosteum

215
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

bone formation within a hyaline cartilage model.

216
Q

Bones formed by Endochondral ossification

A

Forms most bones of skeleton, including vertebrae, pelvis, limbs

217
Q

Begins about 6 weeks into embryonic development and continues until age 20

A

Endochondral ossification

218
Q

At the site of a future bone, ________________ crowd together and differentiate into chondroblasts, which produce a matrix of hyaline cartilage.

A

Mesenchyme cells

219
Q

develops and produces chondrocytes to thicken cartilage

A

Peridchondrium

220
Q

Endochondral Ossification- Chondrocytes in the center

A

grow and burst, releasing chemicals that trigger calcification.

221
Q

calcification

A

blocks nutrients from reaching the chondrocytes, so many of them die and leave small cavities in matrix that eventually join together into one large cavity

222
Q

Blood vessels grow into the deteriorating cartilage to form a ___________________________________ and stem cells give rise to osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

Primary ossification center

223
Q

cartilage erosion in primary ossification centers

A

occurs from the outside of a bone inward during primary ossification

224
Q

Cartilage in the shaft is replaced with compact bone, except for the marrow-filled medullary cavity, and _______________________________ develop in both epiphyses as blood vessels infiltrate them near the time of birth.

A

secondary ossification centers

225
Q

cartilage erosion in secondary ossification centers

A

occurs from the center of the epiphysis outward during secondary ossification as osteoblasts form thin trabeculae of spongy bone

226
Q

ultimately replaces all of the cartilage, except for the hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyses to become the articular cartilage.

A

bone

227
Q

Bones increase in length by ________________ during childhood.

A

interstitial growth

228
Q

do not function in actual bone growth, but anchor the epiphyseal plate to the epiphysis

A

chondrocytes in the zone of reserve cartilage

229
Q

divide by mitosis and replace chondrocytes that have died on the shaft side of the epiphyseal plate and form long columns with flattened lacunae

A

chondrocytes in the zone of proliferation

230
Q

stop dividing and become mature; increases length of shaft

A

chondrocytes in the zone of hypertrophy

231
Q

At the end of puberty, cartilage cells stop dividing, bone replaces the cartilage, and the epiphyseal plate fades away until all that remains is a

A

thin epiphyseal line.

232
Q

Mature bone continues to thicken for many years by

A

appositional growth.

233
Q

osteogenic cells in the periosteum

A

differentiate into osteoblasts and secrete bone matrix, which causes original periosteum to become endosteum

234
Q

bone deposition

A

occurs at the outer surface and bone dissolving occurs at the inner surface to increase bone thickness and enlarge marrow cavity, respectively

235
Q

Bones are continually remodeled throughout one’s life by absorbing old bone and depositing new bone, which replaces about _____of the skeletal tissue each year.

A

10%

236
Q

Bone growth and maintenance depend on

A

adequate dietary intake of calcium, phosphorus, vitamins, plus human growth hormone, thyroid hormones, insulin, and sex steroids.

237
Q

Mineral deposition

A

transfers calcium and phosphate from blood plasma to bone tissue.

238
Q

bone stores about ____ of the body’s calcium and ______ of the body’s phosphorus

A

99%; 85%

239
Q

ectopic (‘out of place’) ossification

A

describes abnormal calcification of tissues in lungs or brain or muscles or tendons or arteries that produces calculi

240
Q

Mineral resorption

A

occurs when osteoclasts dissolve bone tissue and release the minerals into the blood and make them available for other metabolic processes.

241
Q

secrete hydrogen ions into the extracellular fluid and chloride ions follow them to form hydrochloric acid that dissolves minerals in bone

A

osteoclasts

242
Q

osteoclasts secrete acid ______________, which digests collagen fibers in bone matrix

A

phosphatase

243
Q

blood levels of calcium must be carefully regulated to maintain

A

homeostasis

244
Q

Calcitriol

A

a derivative of vitamin D and it raises blood levels of calcium; increases calcium absorption from the small intestine
increases the activity of osteoclasts to promote bone resorption
weakly promotes the reabsorption of calcium from urine

245
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

is secreted by the parathyroid glands to raise blood levels of calcium.
increases the activity of osteoclasts to promote bone resorption
promotes the reabsorption of calcium from urine
inhibits collagen synthesis by osteoblasts which inhibits bone deposition

246
Q

Calcitonin

A

secreted by the thyroid gland to lower blood levels of calcium, but it has a relatively weak effect in an adult.
reduces the activity of osteoclasts to decrease bone resorption
increases the activity of osteoblasts to deposit more calcium into bone

247
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

describes a deficiency of calcium in the blood that can lead to muscle tremors, muscle spasms, and the inability of a muscle to relax.

248
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

describes an excess of calcium in the blood that can lead to muscle weakness and even cardiac arrest.

249
Q

Bone can become stronger as it responds to

A

mechanical stress.

250
Q

production of collagen fibers and deposition of mineral salts __________

A

increases

251
Q

calcitonin production is _________ to inhibit bone resorption

A

increased

252
Q

without mechanical stress, bone resorption occurs______________ than bone formation

A

faster

253
Q

Bone becomes____________ because of demineralization and reduction of collagen fibers

A

weaker

254
Q

The main mechanical stresses on bone are

A

contracting skeletal muscles and gravity.

255
Q

individuals who cannot move or astronauts who spend long periods without gravity may lose up to

A

1% of their bone mass per week

256
Q

Athletes repeatedly stress their bones, so the bones become

A

notably thicker and stronger.

257
Q

weight-bearing exercise builds

A

bone mass that can be retained as we grow older

258
Q

Fracture

A

refers to any break in a bone, and is classified according to the nature of the bone damage.

259
Q

fracture healing

A

takes 8 to 12 weeks if a fracture is uncomplicated, but much longer for complex fractures and fractures among older patients

260
Q

fracture hematoma

A

When a bone breaks, blood escapes from broken vessels in the bone and periosteum and forms a blood clot, called a fracture hematoma, within six to eight hours after the injury.

261
Q

The fracture hematoma is invaded by

A

fibroblasts that produce granulation tissue.

262
Q

collagen fibers and fibrocartilage form

A

a soft callus within a couple of days to bridge broken ends of bones

263
Q

Osteogenic cells

A

develop into osteoblasts and produce spongy bone trabeculae that join living and dead bone fragments together, forming a hard callus within one week.

264
Q

A hard callus

A

persists for 3 to 4 months, while osteoclasts dissolve dead bone fragments.

265
Q

replaces the spongy bone and remodels the callus until slight thickening remains at fracture site

A

compact bone

266
Q

Most fractures are treated by

A

closed reduction, which manipulates bone fragments into normal position without surgery

267
Q

open reduction

A

requires that bone fragments be surgically exposed so screws or pins or plates can be inserted to correctly align the bones

268
Q

Osteoporosis

A

characterized by decrease in bone mass and increased susceptibility to fracture.

269
Q

outpaces bone deposition

A

bone resorption

270
Q

is more metabolically active than compact bone and has more surface area upon which osteoclasts can work

A

spongy bone

271
Q

Osteoporosis affects

A

the entire skeletal system, especially vertebral bodies, ribs, the head of the femur, the humerus, and the radius.

272
Q

osteoporosis is most common among

A

white, postmenopausal women

273
Q

Bone loss begins about age

A

40 and by age 70 has reached 30%-50%

274
Q

tend to inhibit activity of osteoclasts which maintains bone density

A

estrogens

275
Q

short, thin, athletic women typically have

A

less bone mass and less adipose tissue

276
Q

a source of the estrogens that inhibit bone resorption

A

adipose tissue

277
Q

decreases blood levels of estrogens

A

smoking

278
Q

limit the intake of calcium, proteins, and vitamins

A

poor diet and/or eating disorders

279
Q

may increase bone loss

A

lack of exercise, excessive use of alcohol, use of certain medications

280
Q

Recommendations for reducing the risk of osteoporosis:

A

adequate calcium intake on a daily basis

    regular schedule of weight-bearing exercise
    bis-phosphonate drugs destroy osteoclasts, which can increase bone mass by 5% to 10% and reduce fractures by up to 50%
281
Q

Rickets

A

a childhood disorder caused by a vitamin D deficiency, so calcium and phosphorus cannot be adequately absorbed from food.
cartilage is produced, but calcification is abnormal so bones stay soft and pliable

282
Q

Osteomalacia

A

an adult condition caused by poor nutrition, which causes bones in the spine, pelvis, and legs to become soft, deformed, and susceptible to fracture.

283
Q

Osteomalacia calcium and phosphorus

A

calcium and phosphorus are not adequately metabolized so bones fail to calcify

284
Q

Osteomalacia often occurs among

A

poorly nourished females who have had multiple children

285
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

an inflammation of bone and red bone marrow, often caused by Staph aureus bacteria that infect a wound site or surgical site.

286
Q

Paget’s disease

A

characterized by excessive and abnormal remodeling of bones, especially in the skull, pelvis, and extremities of males over 50.

287
Q

Paget’s disease osteoclasts and osteoblasts

A

osteoclasts are overactive in bone resorption; osteoblasts are overactive in bone deposition; this causes irregular thickening and softening of these bones

288
Q

Osteogenic sarcoma

A

the most common and deadliest form of bone cancer.

289
Q

Osteogenic sarcoma Occurs

A

most often in femur, tibia, humerus, during growth spurt of teenage makes; may metastasize to lungs

290
Q

Achondroplastic dwarfism

A

an autosomal dominant genetic disorder in which the long bones quit growing during childhood, even though the growth of other bones is unaffected.

291
Q

Achondroplastic dwarfism chondrocytes

A

in the epiphyseal region fail to multiply and enlarge; individual has normal-sized head and torso, but significantly shorter limbs

292
Q

Achondroplastic dwarfism can result from

A

a spontaneous mutation during DNA replication

293
Q

The axial skeleton contains

A

80 bones, including the cranial bones, facial bones, bones of the middle ear, hyoid bone, bones of the vertebral column, and bones of the thorax.

294
Q

The appendicular skeleton contains

A

126 bones, comprising the pectoral girdle and its attached upper limbs and the pelvic girdle and its attached lower limbs.

295
Q

pectoral girdle contains

A

the scapulae and clavicles

296
Q

upper limb consists of

A

humerus, radius, ulna, eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, fourteen phalanges

297
Q

pelvic girdle consists of

A

two coxal bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx

298
Q

each coxal bone results from

A

fusion of childhood ilium, ischium, and pubis

299
Q

lower limb consists of

A

femur, patella, tibia, fibula, seven tarsal bones, five metatarsals, fourteen phalanges

300
Q

Articulation or arthrosis or joint

A

a point of contact between two bones, or between bone and cartilage, or between bone and teeth.

301
Q

Joints can be classified according to

A

the degree of movement that they allow.

302
Q

synarthrosis

A

an immovable joint

303
Q

amphiarthrosis

A

a slightly movable joint

304
Q

diarthrosis

A

a freely movable joint

305
Q

Joints can be classified on the presence or absence of

A

a fluid-filled synovial cavity around the bones and on the type of connective tissue that binds the bones together.

306
Q

fibrous joints

A

have no synovial cavity and bones are held together by collagen fibers

307
Q

sutures

A

immovable joints that bind the bones of the skull together

308
Q

synostoses

A

Sutures fused with bone

309
Q

gomphoses

A

immovable joints where teeth fit into their sockets

310
Q

syndesmoses

A

slightly movable joints where two bones are held together by a ligament

311
Q

cartilaginous joints

A

have no synovial cavity and bones are held together by cartilage

312
Q

synchondroses

A

occur when bones are held together by hyaline cartilage (costal, rib to sternum)

313
Q

symphyses

A

occur when bones are held together by fibrocartilage

314
Q

synovial joints

A

have a synovial cavity filled with synovial fluid

315
Q

In a synovial joint, the ends of the articulating bones are covered with

A

articular cartilage and held together by an articular capsule.

316
Q

outer fibrous capsule consists of

A

dense, irregular CT; it is continuous with periosteum of each articulating bone

317
Q

inner synovial membrane consists of

A

areolar CT; it secretes synovial fluid into joint

318
Q

Synovial fluid

A

a viscous, pale yellow fluid consisting of hyaluronic acid and interstitial fluid that has been filtered from blood plasma.

319
Q

lubricates the joint and nourishes the articular cartilage

A

Synovial fluid

320
Q

synovial fluid contains

A

phagocytes that remove microbes and clean up debris resulting from normal wear and tear of joint cartilage

321
Q

Many synovial joints contain

A

accessory ligaments that hold the bones together.

322
Q

Some synovial joints contain

A

fibrocartilage pads, called menisci, that absorb shock and pressure to stabilize the joint.

323
Q

bursa

A

a fluid-filled sac between muscles or where a tendon passes over a bone.

324
Q

reduce friction and cushion movement at certain joints

A

bursae

325
Q

Gliding (planar) joints

A

occur between small bones that have flat articular surfaces to allow movement side-to-side or back-and-forth.

326
Q

example of Gliding (planar) joints

A

Carpals and tarsals

327
Q

Hinge joints

A

designed so the convex surface of one bone fits into a concave surface of a second bone to allow movement in only one plane.

328
Q

example of Hinge joints

A

Elbow or knee

Humerus and ulna

329
Q

Pivot joints

A

occur when a rounded/pointed portion of one bone fits into a ring-like ligament associated with a second bone to allow rotation in a single plane.

330
Q

example of Pivot joints

A

Atlas on axis

Radius and ulna

331
Q

Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints

A

occur when an oval condyle of one bone fits into an elliptical cavity of a second bone to allow movement side-to-side or back- and-forth in two planes.

332
Q

example of Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints

A

Radius and carpals meet in wrist

Between Phalanges

333
Q

Saddle joints

A

occur between bones whose articulating surfaces have both concave and convex surfaces to allow movement side-to-side and up-and- down.

334
Q

example of Saddle joints

A

Thumb

335
Q

Ball-and-socket joints

A

occur when a ball-shaped head of one bone fits into a cup-like depression of a second bone to allow movement possible in any direction.

336
Q

example of Ball-and-socket joints

A

Hip

Shoulder

337
Q

Flexion

A

decreases the angle between the bones.

338
Q

example of flexion

A

Elbow joint

339
Q

Extension

A

increases the angle between the bones.

340
Q

example of Extension

A

Hand

341
Q

hyperextension

A

continues the extension beyond anatomical position

342
Q

Abduction

A

moves a bone away from the midline of the body.

343
Q

example of Abduction

A

Move arms up

Move legs out

344
Q

Adduction

A

moves a bone toward the midline of the body.

345
Q

example of Adduction

A

Move arms down

Move legs in

346
Q

Circumduction

A

moves the distal end of a bone in a circle.

347
Q

example of Circumduction

A

Rotate hand in circle. Ball and socket

348
Q

Supination

A

rotates a forearm to place the palm in anatomical position.

349
Q

Pronation

A

rotates forearm to turn palm away from anatomical position.

350
Q

Inversion

A

rotates the sole of the foot inward.

351
Q

Eversion

A

rotates the sole of the foot outward.

352
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

bends the entire foot upward toward the shin.

353
Q

Plantarflexion

A

bends the entire foot downward away from the shin.

354
Q

Protraction

A

thrusts a body part forward.

355
Q

Retraction

A

withdraws a body part to its original position.

356
Q

Elevation

A

raises a bone vertically.

357
Q

Depression

A

lowers a bone.

358
Q

Arthritis

A

refers to any pain, inflammation, and/or degeneration associated with a joint.

359
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

a progressive joint disease involving degeneration of articular cartilages, so that the articular surfaces become rough.

360
Q

Osteoarthritis Usually occurs

A

after 40 and affects 85% of pelle older than 70, especially individuals who are overweight

361
Q

Osteoarthritis is often described as

A

“wear- and-tear” arthritis associated with aging, because more cartilage gets destroyed than gets replaced

362
Q

Osteoarthritis typically affects

A

joints that have been overused throughout life (hips, knees)

363
Q

Gouty arthritis

A

results from excessive uric acid accumulation.

364
Q

crystals form in joint tissue, especially great toe, causing inflammation and pain

A

Gouty arthritis

365
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

refers to any inflammation and thickening of the synovial membrane in a joint, followed by damage to the articular cartilage and invasion of the joint by fibrous tissue.

366
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis tends to affect

A

women more often than men; usually occurs in middle age

367
Q

a systemic autoimmune disease in which rheumatoid factor attacks a person’s own tissues as if they were infectious agents

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

368
Q

rheumatoid factor attacks the

A

synovial membrane causing inflammatory cells to accumulate in synovial fluid and degrade articular cartilage

369
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis cure

A

there is no cure for this crippling form of arthritis so treatment is aimed at reducing inflammation and slowing rate of degeneration

370
Q

steroids and Rheumatoid arthritis

A

steroids combat inflammation and physical therapy keeps joints movable

371
Q

The muscular system consists of

A

approximately 600 skeletal muscles, most of which are attached to the bones of the skeleton.

372
Q

Makes up almost 50% of body mass

A

The muscular system

373
Q

require integration of the muscular system with the skeletal system.

A

Body movements

374
Q

stabilize joints and help maintain posture.

A

Muscle contractions

375
Q

Muscles regulate

A

the movement of materials through hollow internal organs.

376
Q

Muscle contractions generate

A

heat that maintains homeostasis; Generate almost 80% of body’s heat

377
Q

Fascia

A

a sheet of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds muscles and other organs.

378
Q

superficial fascia (subcutaneous layer)

A

separates a muscle from the skin

379
Q

superficial fascia (subcutaneous layer) composition

A

areolar and adipose tissues

380
Q

deep fascia

A

separates adjacent muscles from one another

381
Q

deep fascia composition

A

dense, irregular connective tissue

382
Q

Deep fascia gives rise to

A

three sub-layers of connective tissue. (‘Mys’ or ‘myo’ always imply muscle)

383
Q

epimysium

A

encircles an entire muscle (deep fascia)

384
Q

perimysium

A

surrounds fascicles comprised of bundles of muscle fibers (deep fascia)

385
Q

endomysium

A

separates individual muscle fibers from one another in a fascicle (deep fascia)

386
Q

tendon

A

dense connective tissue that attaches the epimysium of a muscle to the periosteum of a nearby bone. (Achilles tendon)

387
Q

aponeurosis

A

a broad, sheet-like tendon that can attach a muscle to a bone, a muscle to another muscle, or a muscle to the skin.

388
Q

origin

A

A muscle attachment to a stationary or relatively immovable bone

389
Q

insertion

A

a muscle attachment to a more movable bone

390
Q

belly

A

fleshy portion of a muscle between its points of origin and insertion

391
Q

Skeletal muscles function in _________ to produce coordinated movement at a particular joint.

A

groups

392
Q

prime mover (agonist)

A

the muscle that produces most of the motion (Biceps brachii inserts on radius )

393
Q

synergist

A

a muscle that aids the movement of the prime mover by stabilizing or modifying its action (Brachialis also inserts on radius )

394
Q

antagonist

A

a muscle that stretches and yields to the action of the prime mover ( Triceps brachii inserts on ulna )

395
Q

fixators

A

stabilize the origin of the prime mover so that the bone doesn’t move

396
Q

Excitability

A

the ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus and trigger a response.

397
Q

Contractility

A

the ability of a muscle to become shorter and thicker to generate force.

398
Q

Extensibility

A

the ability of a muscle to stretch without damaging the tissue.

399
Q

Elasticity

A

the ability of a muscle to return to its original shape after contracting or stretching.

400
Q

muscle fibers arise from

A

the fusion of embryonic myoblasts

401
Q

Undifferentiated myoblasts exist as________________ that assist in muscle repair

A

satellite cells

402
Q

sarcolemma

A

the plasma membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber

403
Q

portions of the sarcolemma penetrate into a fiber to form _____________________ to carry signals into cell

A

transverse (T) tubules

404
Q

sarcoplasm of the fiber is filled with long protein bundles called

A

myofibrils

405
Q

Sarcoplasm contains

A

glycogen to store energy and myoglobin to bind oxygen

406
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

a network of membrane-enclosed tubules that stores calcium ions needed for muscle contractions

407
Q

Myofibrils

A

the contractile elements of skeletal muscle and they consist of bundles of protein myofilaments.

408
Q

thick filaments are composed of

A

approximately 300 molecules of myosin

        Each myosin molecule is shaped like pair of intertwined golf clubs

        each head on a myosin molecule bears an actin binding site that can form a cross-bridge; ATP binding site;  ATPase enzyme
409
Q

thin filaments are composed of

A

actin, tropomyosin, and troponin

        Actin strand consists of collection globular subunits; each bears myosin-binding site where cross- bridge can attach
410
Q

elastic filaments are composed of

A

molecules of titin

411
Q

Titin molecules

A

help keep thick and thin filaments aligned

412
Q

myosin and actin

A

are contractile proteins because they shorten the muscle fiber

413
Q

tropomyosin and troponin

A

regulatory proteins because they switch contraction process on and off

414
Q

sarcomere

A

The functional unit of a myofibril

415
Q

Z discs

A

composed of titin molecules that anchor the thin filaments and the elastic filaments; they separate one sarcomere from another sarcomere

416
Q

I band

A

contains only thin filaments; appears as a light region

417
Q

A band

A

where thick and thin filaments overlap one another; appears as a dark region

418
Q

H band

A

a region within the A band that contains only thick filaments

419
Q

A skeletal muscle is

A

innervated by the axons of one or more motor neurons.

420
Q

Skeletal muscle contractions are controlled by

A

nervous system

421
Q

A motor unit

A

consists of a motor neuron, plus all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates.

422
Q

Any particular muscle fiber is innervated by _____________motor neuron

A

only one

423
Q

A neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

A

a synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber.

424
Q

each motor neuron branches into

A

a cluster of axon terminals near the skeletal muscle

425
Q

distal end of each axon terminal is

A

a swollen synaptic knob (end bulb)

426
Q

sarcolemma of the muscle fiber adjacent to the synaptic knob forms

A

a motor end plate

427
Q

motor end plate is separated from the synaptic knob by a

A

synaptic cleft

428
Q

Each synaptic knob contains many membrane-enclosed _________________

A

synaptic vesicles.

429
Q

Each synaptic vesicle contains

A

thousands of molecules of acetylcholine (Ach)

430
Q

Acetylcholine receptors

A

located in the motor end plate where they recognize and bind molecules of acetylcholine, which begins the contraction of a single muscle fiber.

431
Q

twitch

A

a brief contraction of all of the muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single stimulus from a motor neuron.

432
Q

muscle fiber obeys an “all-or-nothing” law when electrically excited;

A

; either contracts to its maximum extent or doesn’t contract at all

433
Q

The latent period

A

a time interval of approximately 2 milliseconds between the application of a threshold stimulus and the beginning of the twitch contraction; calcium ions that are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm allow cross bridges to form
force that is generated creates internal tension without shortening the muscle

434
Q

The contraction period

A

a time interval that can last up to 100 milliseconds, during which peak muscle tension gets produced.

    during this time the sliding filament mechanism is occurring

    force that is generated creates external tension that is used to move a load
435
Q

The relaxation period

A

a time interval that can last up to 100 milliseconds; during this time muscle tension decreases.

    calcium ions are actively transported out of sarcoplasm back into sarcoplasmic reticulum
436
Q

The strength of a twitch for a constant stimulus voltage

A

varies for a number of reasons, even though the electrical excitation follows the “all-or-none” law.

    frequency of stimulation

        Rapid delivery of nerve signals causes successive release of calcium ions, so muscle cells cannot completely relax and contraction gets stronger 

    concentration of calcium ions

    length-tension relationship

    temperature of the muscle

        Warm more effective than cold

    pH of the sarcoplasm
    state of hydration of the muscle that affects cross bridge formation
437
Q

An individual twitch

A

usually insufficient to do any useful work, but stronger twitches can be produced by increasing the voltage of the stimulus.

    higher voltages excite more nerve fibers in the motor nerve causing more motor units to contract by recruitment (multiple motor unit summation)
438
Q

Anaerobic respiration

A

produces ATP in the absence of oxygen, but its yield is limited and lactic acid is an end product.

439
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

produces much more ATP, but requires plenty of oxygen.

BIOL 214 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions