Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Mitosis separates chromosomes. Cytoplasm is divided between two daughter cells by _____.

a. cloning
b. cytokinesis
c. binary fission
d. the formation of kinetochores

A

b. cytokinesis

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2
Q

The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would most likely be arrested in _____.

a. metaphase
b. prophase
c. prometaphase
d. telophase

A

a. metaphase

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3
Q

In the snail Pomacea patula catemacensis, n=13. what is the diploid number for this organism?

a. 7
b. 13
c. 26
d. 52

A

c. 26

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4
Q

Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes?

a. meiosis II
b. meiosis I
c. mitosis
d. mitosis and meiosis II

A

b. meiosis I

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5
Q

A couple has a child with down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child’s condition?

a. the woman inherited this tendency from her parents
b. the mother had a chromosomal duplication
c. one member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production
d. the mother most likely underwent nondisjunction during gamete production

A

d. the mother most likely underwent nondisjunction during gamete production

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6
Q

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

a. tt
b. Hh
c. HhTt
d. T
e. HT

A

e. HT

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7
Q

Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and a woman are both of normal pigmentation and have one child out of three who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What are the genotypes of the albino’s parents?

a. one parent must be homozygous for the recessive allele; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous
b. one parent must be heterozygous; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous
c. both parents must be heterozygous
d. one parent must be homozygous dominant; the other parent must be heterozygous

A

c. both parents must be heterozygous

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8
Q

When does DNA replication take place regarding meiosis? DNA replication _____.

a. does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis
b. occurs before meiosis I begins
c. occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II
d. occurs during prophase I

A

b. occurs before meiosis I begins

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9
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.

a. meiosis I only
b. meiosis II only
c. mitosis and meiosis I
d. mitosis and meiosis II

A

d. mitosis and meiosis II

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10
Q

Mendel’s observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?

a. metaphase I of meiosis
b. metaphase II of meiosis
c. anaphase I of meiosis
d. anaphase II of meiosis
e. anaphase of mitosis

A

c. anaphase I of meiosis

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11
Q

Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because _____.

a. male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects mutations on the X chromosome
b. female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome
c. X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females
d. males only have one X chromosome

A

d. males only have one X chromosome

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12
Q

Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. This arrangement _____.

a. allows variable width of the double helix
b. permits complementary base pairing
c. determines the tertiary structure of a DNA molecule
d. determines the type of protein produced

A

c. permits complementary base pairing

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13
Q

Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?

a. non-homologous chromosomes break and then rejoin with one another
b. independent assortment sometimes fails
c. linked genes travel together at anaphase
d. crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange

A

d. crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange

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14
Q

Which the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?

a. a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
b. an inability to produce Okazaki fragments
c. an inability to repair thymine dimers
d. a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
e. a high sensitivity to sunlight

A

d. a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

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15
Q

What is the major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication?

a. prokaryotic replication does not require a primer
b. prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication
c. DNA replication in prokaryotic cells is conservative. DNA replication in eukaryotic cells is semiconservative
d. DNA polymerases f prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both 3’ and 5’ ends of DNA strands, while those of eukaryotes function only in the 5’ to 3’ direction

A

b. prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication

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16
Q

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

a. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not
b. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not
c. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not
d. DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines

A

b. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not

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17
Q

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rule?

a. A=G
b. A+G=C+T
c. A+T=G+T
d. A=C
e. G=T

A

b. A+G=C+T

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18
Q

What is meant by the description “antiparallel” regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a. the twisting nature of DNA create nonparallel strands
b. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand
c. base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
d. one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines

A

b. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand

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19
Q

What is a telomere?

a. the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
b. DNA replication during telophase
c. the site of origin of DNA replication
d. the ends of linear chromosomes

A

d. the ends of linear chromosomes

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20
Q

a. centromere
b. centrosome
c. chromosome
d. MPF
e. kinetochore

_____ triggers the cell’s passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis.

The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as the _____.

A

d

b

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21
Q
allele
genotype 
heterozygous
homozygous 
phenotype
semiconservative replication

_____ is the term used to describe an organism’s appearance, while _____ refers to an organism’s actual alleles

DNA is synthesizes by the process of _____.

An individual with with HH alleles is termed _____, while someone with Hh is termed _____.

A

phenotype; genotype
semiconservative replication
homozygous; heterozygous

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22
Q

In E. coli, what is the function of DNA polymerase III?

a. to unwind the DNA helix during replication
b. to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
c. to add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a growing DNA strand
d. to degrade damaged DNA molecules

A

c. to add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a growing DNA strand

23
Q

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that _____.

a. the parents new true-breeding for contrasting traits
b. the particular trait shows incomplete dominance
c. a blending of traits has occurred
d. the parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait
e. each offspring had the same alleles for each of two different traits

A

d. the parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait

24
Q

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

a. 0
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 1

A

a. 0

25
Q

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

a. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not
b. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not
c. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not
d. DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines

A

b. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not

26
Q

Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

a. recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake
b. in dogs and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing
c. in Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes
d. in cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines

A

b. in dogs and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing

27
Q

which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16?

a. the species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell
b. the species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
c. each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs
d. a gamete from this species has four chromosomes

A

c. each diploid cell has eight homologous

28
Q

If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?

a. it has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis
b. it has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell
c. it has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell
d. it is identical in content to another cell formed from the same meiosis I event

A

a. it has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis

29
Q

How and at what stage do chromosomes undergo independent assortment?

a. meiosis I pairing of homologs
b. anaphase I separation of homologs
c. meiosis II separation of homologs
d. meiosis I metaphase alignment
e. meiosis I telophase separation

A

d. meiosis I metaphase alignment

30
Q

Gametes produced from one meiotic event

a. are genetically identically to each other
b. each have the same chromosome number
c. are genetically identical to the cells produced from meiosis I
d. are genetically identical to the parent cell
e. each have the same mutations

A

b. each have the same chromosome number

31
Q

Crossing over begins to occur during

a. anaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. prophase I
d. metaphase II
e. telophase II

A

c. prophase I

32
Q

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

a. chromosome replication
b. synapsis of chromosomes
c. alignment of chromosomes at the equator
d. condensation of chromosomes

A

b. synapsis of chromosomes

33
Q

The egg of a fruit fly has 4 individual chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

A

c. 8

34
Q

A given sexually-reproducing diploid organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. Therefore, we can conclude that it must _____.

a. be a human
b. be an animal
c. have somatic cells with 23 chromosomes
d. have gametes with 23 chromosomes

A

d. have gametes with 23 chromosomes

35
Q

Which of the following statements about crossing over is false?

a. it accounts for the recombination of genes
b. it occurs while replicated homologous are paired during prophase I of meiosis
c. portions of sister chromatids change places
d. it breaks the physical connection between specific alleles on the same chromosome
e. recombinants may result

A

c. portions of sister chromatids change places

36
Q

What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?

a. there is considerable genetic variation in garden peas
b. traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the results of “blending”
c. recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than do dominant ones
d. genes are composed of DNA

A

b. traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the results of “blending”

37
Q

A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates

a. the blending model of genetics
b. true breeding
c. dominance
d. a dihybrid cross
e. the mistakes made by Mendel

A

c. dominance

38
Q

Mendel’s principle of segregation reflects what event i meiosis?

a. separation of homologous chromosomes at meiosis II
b. separation of sister chromatids at meiosis II
c. separation of homologous chromosomes at meiosis I
d. separation of sister chromatids at meiosis I

A

c. separation of homologous chromosomes at meiosis I

39
Q

A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to _____.

a. all of his daughters
b. half of his daughters
c. all of his sons
d. all of his children (male or female)

A

a. all of his daughters

40
Q

When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

a. the gene involved is on the Y chromosome
b. the gene involved is on the X chromosome
c. the gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males
d. other male-specific factor influenced eye color in flies

A

b. the gene involved is on the X chromosome

41
Q

Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are thee genotypes of the parents?

a. X^nX^n and X^nY
b. X^NX^N and X^nY
c. X^NX^N and X^NY
d. X^N X^n and X^NY

A

d. X^N X^n and X^NY

42
Q

Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is that template?

a. single-stranded binding proteins
b. DNA polymerase
c. one strand of the DNA molecule
d. an RNA molecule

A

c. one strand of the DNA molecule

43
Q

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5’ to 3’ direction because _____.

a. DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5’ end of the template
b. the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3’ end
c. replication must progress toward the replication fork
d. DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end

A

d. DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end

44
Q

How do the leading and the lagging strands differ?

a. the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction
b. the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are intimately stitched together
c. the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing strand, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5’ end
d. none of the above– leading and lagging strands are just terms to differentiate the top from the bottom strand

A

a. the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction

45
Q

Put the following steps of DNA replication in chronological order.

  1. single-stranded binding proteins attached to DNA strands
  2. Hydrogen bonds between base pairs of antiparallel strands are broken
  3. Primase binds to the site of origin
  4. DNA polymerase binds to the template strand
  5. an RNA primer is created

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
c. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
d. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

A

b. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

46
Q

What enzyme does a gamete-producing cell include that compensates for replication-associated shortening of chromosomes?

a. DNA polymerase II
b. ligase
c. telomerase
d. DNA nuclease
e. proofreading enzyme

A

c. telomerase

47
Q

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup each daughter cell is _____.

a. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid
b. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids
c. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid
d. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids

A

d. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids

48
Q

For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome _____.

a. is paired with a homologous chromosome
b. consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
c. consists of a single strand of DNA
d. is joined with its homologous pair to form a synaptonemal complex.

A

b. consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere

49
Q

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of _____.

a. the random combinations of eggs and sperm during fertilization
b. the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II
c. the diverse combination of alleles that may be found within any given chromosome
d. the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I

A

d. the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I

50
Q

What is the major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism?

a. sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I
b. sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis II
c. DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I
d. Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contains identical genetic information

A

a. sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I

51
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.

a. meiosis I only
b. meiosis II only
c. mitosis and meiosis I
d. mitosis and meiosis II

A

d. mitosis and meiosis II

52
Q

Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?

a. no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype
b. each allele affected phenotypic expression
c. the traits blended together during fertilization
d. one allele was dominant

A

d. one allele was dominant

53
Q

Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?

a. non-homologous chromosomes break and then rejoin with one another
b. independent assortment sometimes fails
c. linked genes travel together at anaphase
d. crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange

A

d. crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange