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Immunohematology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

A

Duffy

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2
Q

Which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

A
  • Anti-I
  • Anti-M
  • Anti-N
  • Anti-P1
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3
Q

Which autoantibody specificity is associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria and what test that was discussed in lecture is used to detect it?

A
  • Auto Anit-P

- Donath-Landsteiner Test

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4
Q

Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes and which are enhanced by enzymes?

A

Destroyed:
-M, N, S, Fya, Fyb
Enhanced:
- I, Jka,jkb i, P1, Rh, Lewis (LIPKiR) (no D)

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5
Q

What procedure might help you distinguish between an anti-Fyᵃ and an anti-Jkᵃ?

A

Ficin-treated panel. It cuts down/destroys Fya and enhances Jka.

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6
Q

Which blood group is produced in the tissues?

A

Lewis

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7
Q

What is the McLeod phenotype?

A

Absence of Kx antigens

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8
Q

Which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems discussed for this exam require the antiglobulin test (AHG) for in vitro detection?

A
  • S
  • s
  • M (all phases)
  • N (all phases)
  • LuB
  • Kell
  • Duffy
  • Kidd
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9
Q

What is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

A

Lu (a- b-)

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10
Q

Which antigen is X-linked?

A

Xga

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11
Q

Which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

A

Anti-i

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12
Q

Which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR?

A

Kidd

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13
Q

Fy(a-b-) is found primarily in what type of population?

A

Black (68% frequency)

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14
Q

Which antigen is found primarily in South Central and North American Indians and Asians?

A

Dia

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15
Q

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

A
  • M
  • N
  • S
  • Kidd
  • Duffy
  • Rh (other than D)
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16
Q

What is the most common antibody seen in the BB besides ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

Anti-K

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17
Q

Which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

A

I

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18
Q

Can a patient with blood group Ss be immunized by genotype SS, Ss, or ss?

A

No

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19
Q

Which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on red blood cells and can cause confusing reactions in serological test?

A

Bg

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20
Q

Which antigens are well-developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

A
  • M

- N

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21
Q

Name 3 most common antibodies that most likely to react at 37◦C?

A
  • Anti-D
  • Anti-E
  • Anti-K
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22
Q

What is the most practical manner for preventing transmission of malaria by blood transfusion?

A

Don’t accept blood from people that have lived in or recently traveled from a high malarial incidence area.

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23
Q

List the reasons a prospective donor might be permanently rejected for donation of blood products

A
  • AIDS
  • Hepatitis
  • HTLV
  • IV drug user
  • M/M sex since 1977, even once
  • “Do not use” sticker
  • Relative with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)
  • Chagas disease
  • MS
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Stroke
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24
Q

List the reasons a prospective donor might be temporarily deferred and for how long.

A
  • Tattoo/piercing - 1 year
  • Antibiotics - until course is completed
  • Aspirin - 3 days
  • Low Hct - next visit
  • STD - 12 months following Dx
  • Transfusion - 1 year
  • Slept with prostitute - 1 year
  • Recent vaccines - 4 to 6 weeks
25
Q

Can unused autologous be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended?

A

No. It was not screened by the usual procedures.

26
Q

Explain the difference between plasmapheresis, cytapheresis, and plateletpheresis

A
  • Plasmapheresis: plasma
  • Cytapheresis: cells
  • Platletpheresis: platelets
27
Q

Explain the significance of why donor units should be tested for a weak D antigen.

A

Rh+ should not be given to Rh- patients

28
Q

What are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

A

Polyspecific

Broad spectrum

29
Q

A transfusion that replaces approximately a patient’s blood volume within a 24 hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

A

Massive

30
Q

When a physician signs an order for uncrossmatched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of such products, this is referred to as _________________ ________________?

A

Emergency Release

31
Q

Why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”?

A

Shows dosage on some antibodies

32
Q

Why should a patient’s serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

A

If any concerns with original testing (e.g. transfusion rxn) can be retested

33
Q

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what type of transfusion reaction?

A

Febrile reactions in people with multiple transfusions.

34
Q

Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

A

IAT

35
Q

Explain how the shelf life for blood is determined.

A

70 % Viability of RBCs after transfusion

36
Q

What is the purpose of the albumin/LISS portion of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

A

Detect IgG (such as Rh antibodies)

37
Q

A positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

A

In vivo RBC sensitization –> RBC coated with gamma or beta globulins

38
Q

A patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

A

Febrile

39
Q

What does CPDA stand for?

A

CPDA = Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine

40
Q

What is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

-CPDA-1 : 35 days

41
Q

What is the shelf life of as unit with the additive AS-1 (3 or 5) ?

A

-AS-1 (3 or 5): 42 days

42
Q

How often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

A

Every 3 days

43
Q

Incomplete antibodies are usually Ig___?

A

IgG

44
Q

What does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

A

Recipient plasma / donor cells

45
Q

Cells are “washed” how many times in an antibody screen? What is the purpose of doing this?

A

3 times. This prevents neutralization of AHG from globulins in blood sample.

46
Q

What is therapeutic phlebotomy and why is it used? Give two diseases or conditions in which this might be used.

A
  • Bloodletting.
  • Polycethemia vera,
  • Hemachromatosis
  • Porphyias
47
Q

What type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as his/her own donor?

A

Autologous

48
Q

What is the “three in, three out” rule? Why is this used?

A

When doing an antibody panel, and you suspect a specific antibody, pick 3 bottles of cells that are positive for the antigen, 3 bottles that are negative. Test against plasma. Will confirm antibody.

49
Q

Explain an antibody screen: why and when is it done, what are the stages of the screen, what happens if it is positive, and why is there a control?

A

This is done to detect clinically significant antibodies prior to transfusing. Screen is 2-3 bottles (any antibodies).
Stages: IS, AHG,37Deg
Panel follows to confirm ID of specific antibody. If there is a positive control, there is in vivo sensitization. Any negative tubes will have to be checked to check cells.

50
Q

Explain TRALI. tranfusion related acute lung injury

A

Transfusion Related Lung Injury
Transfusion complication. Acute onset of pulmonary edema after receiving blood products. Caused by reaction to leukocyte antibodies in plasma that causes plasma leakage into lungs –> could result in pulmonary edema, the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths.

51
Q

What is a directed or specific donation?

A

Donated blood intended for a specific recipient.

52
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Dia

A

Diego

53
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Sc2

A

Scianna

54
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Xga

A

XG

55
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Cob

A

Colton

56
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Ch3

A

Chido/Rogers

57
Q

What antibodies Correlate Anti-Ge3

A

Gerbich

58
Q

If you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think of may be causing the problem?

A

Warm or cold auto-antibody

59
Q

What is the preferred storage temperature for RBC’s

A

1-6C

Immunohematology (5 decks)

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