Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Locus

A

location of the gene on chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Allele

A

one of two or more different genes that my occupy a specific locus on a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

homozygous

A

having two identical alleles for a given gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

heterozygous

A

having two different alleles for a given gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

dominant

A

a gene that is always expressed whether it is present in the homo or heterozygous state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

recessive

A

a gene that is expressed only when it is in the homozygous state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Co-dominant/ Egalitarian

A

both alleles are expressed in the heterozygous state (AB blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

amorph or silent allele

A

a gene that produces no product even in the homozygous state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

phenotype

A

the detectable products of genes only discovered through the description of observed traits or the result of direct testing (Ph-physical trait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

genotype

A

total sum of genes present on the chromosomes with the respect to the one or more characteristics, regardless of whether or not they produce detectable products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Zeta Potential

A

decrease in the electrical charge of RBC when it is suspended in a high ionic strength colloidal medium (albumin) also decreases the repulsion of the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the “job” of IgG and IgM in terms of bridging the gap between RBCs?

A

IgM bridges the gap easier because they are larger than IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the temp reactivity of IgG and IgM?

A

IgG reacts at 30-37°C and IgM at 4-27°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the effect of LISS in the Ag-Ab reaction?

A

The addition of LISS will help the rate of association between antigen and antibody. The rate is increased by lowering the ionic strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 enzymes used in the blood bank

A

ficin papain trypsin bromelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AHG effects and what does it do?

A

useful in detecting IgG and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is dosage?

A

homozygous gives stronger reactions than heterozygous

  • also is a word that describes a significant difference in antibody reaction strength depending on the amount of corresponding antigen present on a reb blood cell. The difference in antigen quantity is determind by the zygosity of the gene coding for the antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F Lewis antibodies commonly cause HDN and HTR.

A

False - they can not cross the placenta and they will convert in a transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the genotype and phenotypes of Bombay?

A

Oh - phenotype hh - genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which precursor type substance for ABH antigens?

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the two stages of RBC agglutination in correct order of sequence.

A
  1. sensitization 2. clumping (agglutination)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The reverse or backside test detects the presence or absence of..

A

Ab using the patient’s serum/plasma Ag using RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The forward test detects..

A

antigens in the patient’s RBC using antisera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does Lewis cause HDN? Why?

A

No, because it cannot cross the placenta and because it is not fully developed in a newborn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What antibodies most often cause HDN?

A

Rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are you called if you have no Rh antigens?

A

Rh null

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F Lewis antibodies are enhanced by enzymes.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F Lewis antigens tend to become stronger during pregnancy.

A

False - they become weaker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F Lewis antibodies usually occur without known RBC stimulus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F The Lewis system includes soluble antigens that are present in saliva and plasma with antigenic determinants occurring naturally on the RBC surface.

A

False - they are made in the tissue and are not on the RBC surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F The Rh system was the first to be discovered and by far the most significant for transfusion practice.

A

False - the ABO was the first to be discovered and is most significant for transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F Rh Abs react more strongly at 4°C than at 37°C.

A

False - IgG likes 37°.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F Rh Abs can cross the placenta.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F Rh Abs are not a frequent cause of HDN.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where would we find anti-A1?

A

A 2 B A 3 A x A 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where would you see mixed field agglutination with Anti-A..?

A

A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What % of Caucasians are secretors?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where would you find anti-AB antiserum?

A

O blood type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anti-C antiserum will react with an individual with type..?

A

R1 R2 (DCe/DcE) r ry (dce/dCE) r’ r’’ (dCe/dcE) Rz r (DCE/dce) any ““C””

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When would you do a weak D testing?

A

if the initial spin is negative for a donor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What would be a good indication of HDN testing?

A

Serum Bilirubin DAT - (if + do an elution and antibody ID) Cord blood Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is dolichos biflorus?

A

An anti-A1 lectin used to confirm the antigens on RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who is a good candidate for Rho-gam?

A

Rh-negative mothers who deliver Rh-positive babies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List the H substance demonstrated in order of decreasing reactivity.

A

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Landsteiner’s Rule?

A

Ab are present in plasma only when the corresponding Ag is not present on the RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why are cord cells washed?

A

To remove Wharton’s jelly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Secretor status test used for H substance

A

inhibition and neutralization tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why is Anti-AB antiserum used in the lab?

A

Detection of subgroups of A weaker than A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If you have two parents that are A1/A1 and A1/A2, what is the phenotype of their offspring?

A

A

50
Q

If you have MM and MN, which agglutinates more strongly? Why?

A

MM, due to the dosage effect. It affects more strongly in the homozygous state.

51
Q

Will time have an effect on an antigen/antibody reaction?

A

Yes

52
Q

Will overcentrifugation cause a false negative in an antigen/antibody reaction?

A

No - it is more likely to give a false positive.

53
Q

Is a reaction at 4°C clinically significant?

A

No.

54
Q

If you decrease serum:cell ratio, does it provide more antibody molecules to the antigen sites available for reaction?

A

No

55
Q

Are Lewis antibodies clinically significant?

A

No

56
Q

Can nonsecretors secrete ABO substances regardless of ABO group?

A

No

57
Q

What is the Rh negative genotype?

A

dd

58
Q

For Rh antibodies, which is true? -React better at 37°C then 4°C -Cross the placenta -Frequently cause HDN

A

All are true

59
Q

Do some A2 individuals produce Anti-A1?

A

Yes - 8%

60
Q

If you had the following blood types, which would react with Anti-C? Dce dce DcE/DcE dCe

A

dCe

61
Q

Where does anti-AB antisera come from?

A

Humans with type O blood.

62
Q

Which is least useful for studying HDN? -Elution & Antibody ID -Serum bilirubin -Direct antiglobulin -Cord blood hemoglobin -Secretor testing

A

Secretor testing.

63
Q

What is the purpose of Rh immune globulin?

A

To prevent sensitization of the Rh negative mother to the baby’s Rh positive blood.

64
Q

To truly designate Rh negative:

A

Blood will not react with Anti-D Proceed to Weak D testing

65
Q

Which would be useful in detecting secretor status for H substance? 1. A1 lectin 2. Boiled saliva 3. Ulex europaeus extract 4. A cells 5. O cells

A
  1. No 2. Yes 3. Yes 4. No 5. Yes Why O cells? Increased H antigen sites.
66
Q

If a mother is D- and Dw- and a father is homozygous for D antigen, what will their offspring’s genotype be?

A

100% Dd+

67
Q

What causes HDN to occur?

A

Maternal cells lack antigen that fetal cells have. That’s what causes sensitization.

68
Q

Reverse ABO grouping is inadequate in..

A

newborns

69
Q

Name the antisera used in detecting Rh.

A

Anti-D Anti-C Anti-E Anti-c Anti-e

70
Q

Another name for F antigen is

A

compound antigen

71
Q

What is present when F antigen is expressed on RBCs?

A

c & e inherited on the same haplotype.

72
Q

Which will react with Anti-F? DCe DcE Dce dCe dcE Dce

A

Dce

73
Q

With R1R1 individuals (DCe/DCe), if given dce, what antibody will most likely form?

A

Anti-c

74
Q

Which blood group reacts most strongly with Anti-H lectin (Ulex europaeus)?

A

Group O

75
Q

The ____________ is the total sum of genes present on the chromosomes with respect to one of more characteristics, regardless of whether or not they produce detectable products.

A

Genotype

76
Q

A ______ gene is always expressed whether it is present in the homozygous or heterozygous state.

A

Dominant

77
Q

A _______ is a gene that produces no product even in the homozygous state.

A

Amorph

78
Q

A ________ gene is expressed only when it is in the homozygous state.

A

Recessive

79
Q

The ______ is the detectable products of genes only discovered through a description of observed traits or the result of direct testing.

A

Phenotype

80
Q

Name two substances that can reduce the zeta potential and allow red blood cells to approach each other more closely and be agglutinated.

A

Albumin and LISS

81
Q

Name two other influencing factors in Ag-Ab reactions.

A

Ag- temperature, pH, centrifugation, amount of time,

Ab- concentration, ionic strength, dosage

82
Q

The _____ gene is necessary for the expression of the ABO genes.

A

H

83
Q

Ulex europeaus is a lectin with _______ specificity, whereas Dolichos biflorus is a lectin with ______ specificity.

A

Anti-H and Anti-A

84
Q

List the three genotypes that produce the A1 phenotype.

A

A1A1, A1A2, A1O

85
Q

List the possible genotypes and phenotypes from a mating of AB and BO individuals.

A

Genotypes: A2B Phenotypes: A1, A2, B1A1, A2B, O

86
Q

Individuals that do not inherit the H gene have the genotype ____ and are said to have the _____phenotype; they also possess and additional Ab, ________, in comparison to normal O individuals.

A

hh, Bombay, Anti-H

87
Q

Lewis antibodies usually occur without known RBC stimulus.

A

True

88
Q

Lewis antibodies commonly cause HDN and HTR.

A

False, Lewis Ab decrease in pregnancy

89
Q

Give one reason why Lewis antibodies do not cause HDN.

A

B/C the Lea and Leb Ag are not well developed at birth. Anti Lea and anti-Leb are IgM and cannot cross placenta.

90
Q

r

A

dce

91
Q

r’

A

dCe

92
Q

r”

A

dcE

93
Q

ry

A

dCE

94
Q

R’

A

DCe

95
Q

R”

A

DcE

96
Q

R0(zero)

A

Dce

97
Q

Rz

A

DCE

98
Q

Rh genes in order of frequency in Caucasians:

A
  • Most freq: R’-DCe
  • 2nd most freq: r-dce
  • 3rd most freq: R’‘-DcE
  • least freq- ry-dCE
99
Q

The gene complex which could produce a RBC Ag that reacts with anti-f has both ____ and ____ on the same gene.

A

c and e

100
Q

A Rh negative individual has the genotype _____.

A

dd

101
Q

State the phenotype of the children of a negative mother who is homozygous for the D ag and a father who is D negative D (weak pos) negative.

A

All D- Rh +

102
Q

What test need to be done and what are the results of the test for a donor to be designated as Rh negative.

A

Weak D Test

103
Q

Anti-C antiserum will react with the following RBCs.

A

R’ R’’ r ry r’ r” Rz

104
Q

the Rh system was the first to be discovered and by far the most significant for transfusion practice

A

FALSE

105
Q

The Rh Abs can cross the placenta.

A

True

106
Q

Rh Abs are not a freq cause of HDN

A

False; ABO and Rh are the most common cause

107
Q

Good indication of HDN(testing wise)?

A

Bilirubin, DAT(elution and Ab testing), hemoglobin

108
Q

AHG

A

Anti-Human Globulin- antisera that contains Ab Coombs test-

109
Q

Anti-A1

A

Found naturally occurring in IgM Ab produced by some subgroups of A. Prepared from seeds of plant Dolichos biflorus

110
Q

Rh Ab characteristics

A

Well develop[ed at birth so one of the main causes of HDN; Very good immunogens; D most immunogenic after A and B; fewer Ag sites then ABO; not soluble and not expressed on tissues

111
Q

location of the gene on chromosome

A

Locus

112
Q

one of two or more different genes that my occupy a specific locus on a chromosome

A

Allele

113
Q

having two identical alleles for a given gene

A

homozygous

114
Q

having two different alleles for a given gene

A

heterozygous

115
Q

a gene that is always expressed whether it is present in the homo or heterozygous state

A

dominant

116
Q

a gene that is expressed only when it is in the homozygous state

A

recessive

117
Q

both alleles are expressed in the heterozygous state (AB blood)

A

Co-dominant/ Egalitarian

118
Q

a gene that produces no product even in the homozygous state

A

amorph or silent allele

119
Q

the detectable products of genes only discovered through the description of observed traits or the result of direct testing (Ph-physical trait)

A

phenotype

120
Q

total sum of genes present on the chromosomes with the respect to the one or more characteristics, regardless of whether or not they produce detectable products

A

genotype

121
Q

decrease in the electrical charge of RBC when it is suspended in a high ionic strength colloidal medium (albumin) also decreases the repulsion of the RBCs

A

Zeta Potential