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Immunohematology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best temperature range for cold aggutinins to react

A

0C to 5C

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2
Q

Give 3 Examples of infections that my cause cold aggultinins to develop

A
  • mycoplasma pneumonia
  • infectious mononucleosis
  • primary atypical pneumonia
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3
Q

Explain Desensitization

A

Process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of antigen at closely-spaced intervals & may then be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe reaction.

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4
Q

Explain what the reactions mean in a Hemagglutination inhibition test (agglutination or the absence of aggulutination)

A

Agglutination = negative result, no antigen
No agglutination = positive result, presence of antigen
Remember, this is a test for inhibition!

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5
Q

The Nichols strain of T.pallidum is used in what type of testing

A

FTA-ABS

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6
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive

A

Between first and third week following appearance of primary lesion.

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7
Q

In secondary syphilis, would the serological tests performed to detect syphilis be positive, negative, have no diagnostic value, or are they not performed in that stage?

A

Test would be positive.

.

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8
Q

How long after treatment does the serological test become nonreactive in secondary syphilis?

A

Tests are nonreactive 12 months after treatment

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9
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6 to 8 weeks after the first chancre

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10
Q

Name three pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis.

A
  • Histamine
  • Tryptase
  • ECFA
  • Neutrophil chemotactic factor
  • Chimase
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11
Q

Which of the following is true about the late latent stage of syphilis: it is highly contagious, usually noncontagious, not detectable by serological tests, or not communicable between mother and fetus?

A

Usually noncontagious

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12
Q

P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV - used for viral load testing

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13
Q

Name three means of transmission of the HIV virus

A
  • Body fluids
  • Sexual activity
  • Mother to fetus
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14
Q

Needles that dispense antigen for the VDRL test must be calibrated to deliver how much? How often should the needle be QC’d?

A

1/60 mL

QC’ed each batch

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15
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18th week

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16
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the patient’s serum?

A
  • treponemal antibodies
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17
Q

What does the fluorescein labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting this test?

A
  • anti-human globulin makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible
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18
Q

In the direct fluorescent antibody test, the ______________ is “labeled” with fluorescent dye.

A

Antibody

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19
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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20
Q

Give 5 examples of an autoimmune disease and describe whether it is organ-specific and, if so, which organs are affected or if it is systemic.

A

ORGANIC SPECIFIC
-myasthenia gravis - nerve/muscle synapse
-Addison’s - adrenal glands
-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus - pancreas
-MS - myelin sheath on axons of neural cells
-Grave’s - thyroid
SYSTEMIC:
-SLE - Lupus
-RA - both systemic & organ-specific - joints

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21
Q

A flat-bottomed bottle is required in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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22
Q

Explain a flocculation test and give examples of this type of testing

A

Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations e.g. VDRL & RPR

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23
Q

The VDRL or the RPR is always read macroscopically?

A

RPR

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24
Q

A modified VDRL antigen is used in what type of testing?

A

RPR - has addition of charcoal particles

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25
Q

Name some synonyms for Type B viral hepatitis

A 
Serum hepatitis
Hepatitis B
Hep B
Viral hepatitis
HBV
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26
Q

What is a chancre?

A

Primary inflammatory lesion of primary syphilis.

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27
Q

In order to properly perform the RPR test, the rotator speed should be _____ rpm.

A

100 rpm

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28
Q

Why do you get false negative results with a Postzone reaction?

A

The quantity of antigen exceeds the quantity of antibody.

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29
Q

Why would you get false negative results with a Prozone reaction?

A

The quantity of antibody exceeds the quantity of antigen.

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30
Q

Explain the zone of equivalence

A

Antibody and antigen are precipitated to the max.

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31
Q

What is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?

A

Allows proteins to complex with RBCs as antigen carriers (converts hemolytic reactions to agglutination reactions).

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32
Q
  1. What is serum sickness?
A

Reaction caused by injection of therapeutic foreign serum usually made from horse or cow. (found in tetanus, diphtheria, gangrene)

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33
Q

How does the Western blot test differ from ELISA tests?

A

ELISA is a screening test since it tests HIV 1 & 2 together.

W.B. uses antibody to individual antigen for specific identification so is confirmatory.

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34
Q

What is an agglutinin?

A

Substance that causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass. Can be antibodies that cause antigens to aggregate by binding to the antigen-binding sites on the antibodies.

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35
Q

Why is cholesterol added to the antigen that is used in the flocculation test for syphilis?

A

Cholesterol is the absorption center for tissue lipids.

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36
Q

T or F Treating a pregnant woman does not cure the fetus.

A

False

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37
Q

T or F Congenital, primary, and secondary syphilis are best treated by repeated doses of penicillin.

A

False

38
Q

T or F Treatment does not alter any tissue damage that has already occurred.

A

True

39
Q

T or F It is necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment

A

False

40
Q

T or F Tertiary syphilis cannot be treated

A

False

41
Q

Loss of self tolerance results in what type of disease?

A

Autoimmune

42
Q

Explain cross reactivity and what kind of results it can lead to.

A

Antigens that are closely related in structure can cause false positive results.

43
Q

The antibody to tissue lipids is called __________.

A

Reagin

44
Q

The presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?

A

SLE (Lupus)

45
Q

Recent experience or exposure to group A hemolytic Streptococci can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a patient’s serum

A

ASO (anti-streptolysin O)

46
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

Severe systemic allergic reaction that results when the organs involved are primarily blood vessels and smooth muscles of the circulatory system.

47
Q

What is a xenograft? This is also known as what?

A

Transplant of tissue from one species to another.

aka Heterograft

48
Q

Transplanting from one individual to a genetically nonidentical person of the same species is called what (give both names for it)?

A

Homograft

aka Allograft

49
Q

Define contact dermatitis. Give 3 examples of things that can cause this.

A

A hypersensitive reaction caused by direct contact of a substance to the skin, usually resulting in an itchy rash.

  • Metals
  • Drugs
  • Plants
50
Q

Which type of test is most widely used to detect HIV?

A

Screening: ELISA

51
Q

Of Hep C, HIV, Hep G, and Hep B, which is the most virulent?

A

Hep C is most virulent.

52
Q

Can you explain why Hep C is more dangerous than Hep B?

A

Hep C is more dangerous because 85% of cases convert to chronic hepatitis, versus 10% for Hep B.

53
Q

What is the first antigen to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?

A

Hep B surface antigen

54
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

oral-fecal

55
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves __________.

A

T-Cells

56
Q

T or F Testing for the p24 antigen would be useful as a screening test for blood products

A

False

57
Q

On average, it takes ______ to _______ weeks for an individual to develop HIV antibodies after exposure to HIV.

A

6 to 12

58
Q

What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from Hepatitis B or who have received the Hepatitis B vaccination?

A 
Hep B Surface Antibody
aka HBsAb (anti-HbsAg)
59
Q

Which form of hepatitis is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?

A

Hep C

60
Q

If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would most likely have a positive or negative RA test?

A

Positive

61
Q

Which set of antigens would be represented on a positive Western blot?

A

GP41

GP120

62
Q
  1. The antigen in a precipitin reaction must be ___________?
A

soluble

63
Q

What does ANA stand for? How is testing for this useful?

A

Anti-nuclear Antibody

Found in >95% SLE patients.

64
Q

What does HLA stand for and why is it important?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen

Most important immunologic barrier to the survival of transplanted organs and tissues.

65
Q

Which hepatitis virus requires HBV infection?

A

Hep D

66
Q

Briefly explain Graves’ Disease

A

hypothyroidism
tacacardia
Increased T3 and T4 and decreased or absent TSH

67
Q

Within which organ is it thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed

A

Thymus

68
Q

When discussing EBV and infectious mono, name the primary mode of transmission.

A

saliva

69
Q

What % of lymphs would you expect to see as atypical on a peripheral blood smear

A

10%

70
Q

Which Malignancy has been associated with EBV

A

Lymphoma
Hodgkins
Parkins

71
Q

Which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years

A

CMV

72
Q

Name some examples of anti-retro-viral drug therapies, and How do they work

A

suppress viruses replication

inhibitors

73
Q

Which cells are the main target for the HIV virus?

Why?

A

T Cells, becuase of CD4 Markers

74
Q

What is one method for determining the progression to the AIDS stage of HIV infection.
How is this done (gold standard)

A

CD4 count lower than 200 per micro liter

Flow

75
Q

Shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?

A

Verisallous Oster (chicken pox)

76
Q

Regarding HIV transmission, which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly blood

A

Urine
Sweat
Vomit
Tears

77
Q

In the HIV virus, what is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?

A

transcribing viral RNA to DNA

78
Q

Name the gene that codes for the enzymes necessary for HIV replication.

A

pol gene

79
Q

Briefly describe the latency period of HIV infection. What is the median length of time this can last?

A

decrease birhemia, subtle or absent symptoms
gradual deterioration of immune system
lasts about 10 yrs

80
Q

Symptoms of primary infection of HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?

A

Mono

81
Q

List the advantages and disadvantages of chemiluminescent assays.

A

Precupitation Reactions SLIDE

82
Q

Briefly describe the methodology of turbidimetry.

A

measure of cloudiness of solution
measures the reduction of light intensity
due to reflection absorption and scatter

83
Q

Briefly describe nephlometry.

A

measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes though A suspension

84
Q

The antibody that is rheumatoid factor belongs to which Ig class?

A

IgM

85
Q

What is the test anti-CCP and what is it used for?

A

Cyclic Citrillunated Peptide

lead marker for RA more sensitive for RF

86
Q

What is precipitation

A

is combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody, to produce insoluble complexes that are visible

87
Q

Bonus*

What type of testing is appropriate for what stages of syphilis

A

-Congenital 1 & 2 is best treated with a single injection of a long-acting penicillin
-3rd Degree of syphilis requires therapy for longer periods
-

88
Q

Bonus*

What are all of the causative agents for hepatitis

A

dfg

89
Q

Bonus*

Some of the organ-specific autoimmune diseases and specifically which organs or areas they affect

A

sfg

90
Q

Bonus*

The full names of the VDRL and RPR tests

A

dfg

Immunohematology (5 decks)

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