Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO 225 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Features of animals that live in warm climates

A

Long limbs and long skinny bodies
- In camels, thick knee pads to protect from heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Features of animals that live in cold climates

A

Thick layer of blubber, rounder shape, higher cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q10

A

Temperature quotient - measure of the thermal sensitivity of a chemical reaction or physiological process. Increase in a rate caused by a 10˚C increase in temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When will heat transfer be positive

A

If external temp is greater than internal temp (gain heat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When will heat transfer be negative

A

If external temp is less than internal temp (lose heat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Equation for heat balance

A

Body heat = Heat produced + (heat gained-heat lost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Conduction

A

Direct transfer of thermal energy of molecular motion; takes place between physical bodies that are in contact with each other (ex. heat loss from body sitting on a cold rock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the rate of transfer of thermal energy dependent on

A

thermal conductivity (lamda)
temperature gradient ∆T
distance L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Resistance

A

1/conductance; insulation is a measure of resistance

the higher the insulation the lower the conductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is conductivity influenced by

A

the medium it travels through (conductance of water greater than air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Animal insulation

A

Hair, feathers, fur, and subcutaneous fat (blubber in aquatic animals)
Seasonal changes in thickness as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does fourier’s law state

A

As fur thickness increases, insulation increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Convection

A

Mass movement of the gas or fluid contributes to renewal of the fluid at the boundary; accelerates heat transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Radiation

A

Heat transfer takes place in the absence of direct contact; due to emission of electromagnetic radiation (ex holding hands up to fire)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Evaporation

A

Removes heat from the body (ex. sweating), always negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SA:V ratio in small vs large animals

A

Large animals have a very low SA:V ratio and tend to live in colder climates
Small animals have a very high SA:V ratio and live in warmer climates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an example of a behavioral mechanism to gain/lose heat?

A

Baby penguins huddling together to reduce the exposed surface area

Migration of birds to avoid unfavorable conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Poikilotherm

A

changes temperate season to season or day by day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Homeotherms

A

have stable body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ectotherms

A
  • environment determines body temperature (heat comes from outside)
  • lower metabolic rate as they do not produce enough heat metabolically to keep themselves warm
  • includes all invertebrates, fishes, amphibians and reptiles
  • do not occur in the earth’s coldest environments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Endotherms

A
  • Animals generate internal heat to maintain body temperature (heat comes from within)
  • higher metabolic rate
  • includes birds and mammals
    physiological thermoregulation by producing heat through metabolic means
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Thermoneutral zone (TNZ)

A

Range of temperatures optimal for physiological processes; metabolic rate is minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Upper critical temperature (UCT)

A

Metabolic rate increases as animal induces a physiological response to prevent overheating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lower critical temperature (LCT)

A

Metabolic rate increases to increase heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Temporal heterotherms

A

Change temperature over a period of time (hibernating animals, pythons after a large meal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Regional heterotherms

A

Body temperature varies in regions of the body (billfish with heater organs in eyes, tuna retain heat in red muscle, great white sharks with countercurrent exchanger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Behavioral mechanism importance

A

Changing body location or position to change or minimize body temp, most important in ectotherms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Homeoviscous adaptation

A

Ectodermal animals reduce the deleterious effects by changing the cell membrane composition
- fatty acid chain length
- saturation
- phospholipid classes
- cholesterol content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cold climate animal membrane fluidity

A

low fluidity, shorter chains of fatty acids,
more unsaturated fatty acids, an increased PC:PE ratio, and less cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Warm climate animal membrane fluidity

A

high fluidity, longer chained fatty acids, more saturated fatty acids, more PE, and more cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In situ modification

A
  1. phospholipase cleaves a fatty acid chain off of a phospholipid and results in a lysophospholipid
  2. Acyl CoA synthesis make another fatty acid into fatty acyl CoA
  3. lysophospholipid acyltransferase adds a fatty acyl CoA to the lysophospholipid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

De novo modification

A

When temperature decreases, the cell produces vesicles possessing phospholipids with fatty acids that are shorter and more unsaturated than those in the cell membrane.

Over time, cycles of endocytosis and exocytosis remove undesirable phospholipids, replacing them with more desirable ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Seal milk vs human milk

A

seal milk has lower water and higher fat content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Heat Shock Response

A
  1. Heat stress causes complex of HSF and Hsp’s to dissociate
  2. Hsp 70 binds to denatured proteins
  3. HSF monomers associate into trimers
  4. Trimers move into the nucleus and bind to the promoter of genes with heat shock element (HSE)
  5. Hsp70 gene transcription increases
  6. Poly A+ mRNA is exported to the cytoplasm and translated to form more Hsp70
  7. The increase in Hsp70 levels allows the complex to form again, stopping transcriptional activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Metabolic compensation

A

Changes in metabolic machinery that allow some ectotherms to maintain optimal metabolic rates at very different ambient temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Isozymes

A

enzymes with same catalytic function work optimally at different temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the purpose of physiological mechanisms

A

Allow ectotherms to control the rate of change in body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Color change

A

By changing skin color can alter body reflectance - can increase or decrease heat absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Countercurrent Heat Exchanger

A

Large fish use the rete mirable to increase the core body temperature

red and blue muscles run countercurrent to one another and warm blood can transfer heat to cold blood. this allows cold blood coming back from the further extremities and warm blood coming from the core to interact with each other and for the warm blood to transfer heat to the cold through conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Freeze tolerance

A

some animals allow their tissues to freeze using non colligative properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cryoprotectant

A

increase in intracellular solutes concentration decreases the freezing point of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Antifreeze macromolecules

A

Production of proteins and glycoproteins that decrease the freezing point by noncolligative actions. They disrupt ice crystal formation by binding to small ice crystal and preventing growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hibernation

A

a state of regulated hypothermia, lasting several days or weeks that allows animals to conserve energy during the winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

2 forms of hibernation

A

Obligate- have to hibernate regardless of temperature
Facultative - not obligated, depends on temperature and food supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Estivation

A

A state of dormancy similar to hibernation. Animals that estivate spend a summer inactive and insulated against heat, to avoid the potentially harmful effects of the season. Some animals may estivate to conserve energy when their food and water supply is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Brown Adipose Tissue (BAT)

A

Important in small mammals, rich in mitochondria and has a good supply of blood.

Unique as it has expression of thermogenin (UCP1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Non-shivering thermogenesis

A

Required for newborns BAT located around core organs as they can’t shiver

Norepinephrine stimulates BAT hyperplasia and hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How are BAT cells made

A

Precursor cells are induced to proliferate and then differentiated into BAT cells; triglyceride is synthesized and mitochondria # increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does thermogenin work

A

It activates UCP (uncoupling proteins), uncoupling the activity of ETC from ATP synthase so that the energy of oxidation (oxidative phosphorylation) is dissipated as heat rather than used for ATP synthesis.

High rate of fatty acid oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Futile cycles and thermogenesis

A
  • Myofibrillar ATPase is recruited during shivering thermogenesis
  • Plasma membrane ion (Na+) leaking and pumping
  • Nonspecific mitochondrial proton leakage and pumping
  • Thermogenin-mediated proton leakage and pumping
  • Futile cycling in glcolysis
    During nonshivering thermogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Shivering thermogenesis

A
  • Unique to birds and mammals
  • Uncoordinated myofibril contraction that results in heat production but no gross muscle contraction
  • Works for short period of time, muscles are rapidly depleted of nutrients and become exhausted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sweating

A
  • Modified lacrimal glands that release salt water via evaporation which cools down the body
  • NaCl in sweat raises heat of vaporization which results in greater heat loss than evaporation of pure water
  • Sweating is controlled by the hypothalamus
  • To minimize ionic and osmotic problems, the amount of NaCl in sweat decreases during long periods of heat exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Panting

A

mucus membrane in esophagus and trachea evaporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Saliva spreading

A

Many rodents spread saliva on limbs, tails, and on body surfaces to increase heat loss by evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Vasodilation

A

Dilation of peripheral blood vessels to lose heat by increased rate of convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Skin vasculature and heat loss

A

When temperatures are cold, blood is diverted from the skin through arteriovenous shunts which reduces heat loss

When temperatures are warm, shunts are constricted and blood moves through the vessels closer to the skin surface, enhancing heat loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the “thermostat” in the human

A

The hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Enzymatic reactions in animals must be done in what kind of environment

A

An aqueous one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Isosmotic solution

A

Solute concentration inside cell is equal to that outside of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hyperosmotic solution

A

Solute concentration outside cell is greater than solute concentration inside the cell, therefore, water rushes out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hyposmotic solution

A

Solute concentration inside cell is greater than solute concentration outside the cell, therfore, water rushes into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do animals in marine environments deal with ionic and osmotic change

A

They tend to gain salts and lose water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do animals in freshwater environments deal with ionic and osmotic change

A

They gain water and lose salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How do animals in terrestrial environments deal with ionic and osmotic change

A

They lose water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Osmoconformers

A

Change their bodies osmolarity similar to their environment
- many invertebrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Osmoregulators

A

Osmolarity is constant regardless of the environment
- most vertebrates (control internal environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ionoconformers

A

Exert little control over ion profile with the extracellular space
- many invertebrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Ionoregulators

A

Control ion profile within their extracellular space
- most vertebrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Stenohaline

A

Can only tolerate a very narrow range of salinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Euryhaline

A

Can tolerate a wide range of salinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Four features of epithelial cells

A
  1. Asymmetrical distribution of membrane transporters
    - solutes selectively transported across membrane
  2. Cells interconnected to form impermeable sheet of tissue
    - little leakage between cells
  3. High cell diversity within tissue (especially in kidneys)
  4. Abundant mitochondria
    - large energy (ATP) supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Transcellular movement

A

From apical membrane to basolateral membrane or reverse via tight junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Paracellular movement

A

Movement between cells via leaky epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Movement of Na+/K+ ATPase transporter

A

Can be with or against the gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Ion channel movement

A

Not energy dependent, move with concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Electroneutral cotransporters

A

Transfer ions of opposite charges to flow in the same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Electroneutral exchangers

A

Transfer ions of opposite charge to flow in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Osmoregulation in a saltwater fish

A

Osmolarity of environment greater than internal osmolarity, excretion of salt ions and small amounts of water in concentrated urine from kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Osmoregulation in a fresh water fish

A

Internal osmolarity greater than osmolarity of environment, excretion of large amounts of water in DILUTE urine from kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How do animals reduce water flux

A

They cover their external surfaces with layers of hydrophobic materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Examples of hydrophobic molecules

A

Mucus
Cornified stratum corneum with keratin (hardened layer)
Cuticle with chitin
all prevent water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Dietary water

A

water pre-formed in plant and animal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Metabolic water

A

water is generated as a final step in oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nitrogen excretion

A

Ammonia produced during amino acid breakdown is toxic and must be excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the three forms ammonia nitrogen is excreted in

A

Ammonia (ammonioteles)
Uric acid (uricoteles)
Urea (ureoteles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What kind of animals excrete ammonia

A

Aquatic animals, simple invertebrates, mollusks, worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What kind of animal excretes uric acid

A

Terrestrial animals including reptiles and birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What kind of animal excretes urea

A

All mammals, some larval fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Advantages of ammonia excretion

A

Ammonia is released by deamination of amino acids and requires little energy to produce (only 1 ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Disadvantages of ammonia excretion

A

Highly toxic, requires large volumes of water to store and excrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Advantages of uric acid excretion

A

Few toxic effects can be excreted in small volumes of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Disadvantage of uric acid excretion

A

Expensive to produce (many enzymes and NTPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Advantages of urea excretion

A

Only slightly toxic, relatively inexpensive to produce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Disadvantages of urea excretion

A

Urea is a perturbing solute (can alter the physical properties of a solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

6 roles of kidneys in vertebrate homeostasis

A
  1. Ion balance
  2. Osmotic balance
  3. Blood pressure
  4. pH balance
  5. Excretion of metabolic wastes and toxins
  6. Hormone production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Function and composition of the nephron

A

The functional unit of the kidney
Filtration, reabsorption, secretion, excretion
Composed of the renal tubule, glomerulus, and capillary beds surrounding renal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Renal tubule

A

Lined with transport epithelium
Various segments with specific transport functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Glomerulus

A

Ball of capillaries, surrounded by bowman’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Filtration

A

Filtrate of blood formed at bowman’s capsule in the glomerulus (excess molecules and water, primary urine) and flows to proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Reabsorption

A

Specific molecules in the removed (water, amino acids, salts in the loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Secretion

A

Specific molecules added to the filtrate at the end of the proximal tubule before the loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Excretion

A

Urine is excreted from the body in the collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is filtration controlled by

A

the pressure across the glomerular wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Podocytes

A

“foot cells” in the bowman capsule with fat molecules and act as a physical filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Glomerular capillaries

A

Located in the bowman’s capsule and allow water and small solutes in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Mesangial cells

A

control blood pressure and filtration within glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

Blood pressure pushing to make urine

108
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

backwards pressure that is basically osmosis

109
Q

Force to make urine=

A

Hydrostatic pressure-oncotic pressure + luminal pressure

110
Q

If you’re well hydrated

A

Hydrostatic pressure > oncotic + luminal pressure

111
Q

If you’re dehydrated

A

Hydrostatic is = oncotic + luminal pressure

112
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

A
  • determined by pressure acoss glomerular wall
  • determined by three main forces
113
Q

Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

Blood pressure, how high bp is going into the afferent arterial

114
Q

Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure

A

Urine pressure going back

115
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

Osmosis pressure back, the concentration of solutes in the blood that don’t pass the membrane. Due to the pressure backward of osmosis

116
Q

Mesangial control

A

Altered permeability of the glomerulus

117
Q

Myogenic regulation

A

Constriction/dilation of afferent arteriole

118
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback

A

Baro sensor that recognizes urine pressure which causes constriction or dilation of blood vessels

119
Q

Macula Densa

A

Cells in the distal tubule that control the diameter of the afferent arteriole by sending signals to JG cells

120
Q

juxtaglomerular cells

A

in afferent arteriole if pressure high, they will cause constriction. If pressure is low, they will dilate

121
Q

Proximal tubule

A

Most of the solute and water reabsorption

122
Q

Descending loop of Henle

A

Reabsorption of water, volume of primary urine decreases, primary urine becomes more concentrated

123
Q

The ascending loop of Henle

A

Reabsorption of solutes, impermeable to water, primary urine become dilute

124
Q

What molecules are secreted during filtration

A

K+, NH4+, H+, pharamaceuticals, and water-soluble vitamins

125
Q

Where do reabsorbed ions accumulate?

A

In the interstitial fluid, an osmotic gradient created in the medulla

126
Q

Distal tubule

A

Can reabsorb salts and water
Can secrete potassium
Transport function of distal tubule affected by hormones

127
Q

Role of parathyroid hormone in reabsorption

A

Increases Ca2+ reabsoprtion

128
Q

Role of aldosterone in reabsorption

A

Increases K+ secretion

129
Q

After urine is produced, where does it go?

A

Leaves the kidney and enters the urinary bladder via ureters, urine is temporarily stored

130
Q

How does urine leave the bladder?

A

Leaves via urethra
Sphincters of smooth muscle control the flow of urine out of the bladder, opening, and closing of sphincters are controlled by a spinal cord reflex arc (micturition reflex) and can be influenced by voluntary controls

131
Q

How is glucose reabsorbed

A

Secondary active transport via sodium glucose transporters

132
Q

What does urine concentration depend on

A

Depends on the permeability (aquaporins) of the collecting duct, which can be regulated by vasopressin (AVP)

133
Q

Diuretics

A

Stimulate excretion of water

134
Q

Antidiuretics

A

reduce excretion of water

135
Q

Vasopressin

A

Made in hypothalamus, peptide hormone, rapid response

136
Q

Aldosterone

A

made in the hypothalamus, rapid response

137
Q

How does vasopressin work

A
  1. Vasopressin binds G-protein-linked receptor
  2. Receptor activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP and activated pkA
  3. Phosphorylation of cytoskeletal and vesicle proteins occurs
  4. Phosphorylation of cytoskeletal and vesicle proteins occurs
138
Q

How does aldosterone stimulate Na+ reabsorption

A
  1. Aldosterone enters the cell via diffusion
  2. Binds to its receptors, a transcription factor
  3. Activated transcription factor stimulates transcription of genes for transporters
  4. New transporter proteins are made in the ER and exported in vesicles
  5. vesicles containing proteins are sent to the plasma membrane
139
Q

How does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway work (RAA)

A

When there is low blood pressure, baroreceptors in JG cells release renin -> this coverts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1 -> angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 -> angiotensin 2 causes synthesis and release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

140
Q

How does the RAA pathway help to regulate blood pressure

A

Angiotensin 2 is a vasoconstrictor which raises blood pressure by increasing resistance
Aldosterone increases Na+ and water reabsorption which raises blood pressure by increasing blood volume

141
Q

Asexual reproduction

A

Progeny are genetically identical (or very similar) to their parent

142
Q

Parthenogenesis

A

Asexual reproduction in which an egg develops without fertilization
- two females will stimulate copulation with one another which induces oogenesis

143
Q

Budding

A

offspring grow off parent organism

144
Q

Fragmentation

A

Pieces breaking off and forming new organism

145
Q

Sexual reproduction

A

Reproduction of progeny from two parents that contribute nearly equal amounts of genetic material

146
Q

Why choose sexual reproduction

A

Haploid gametes from a diploid parent
Recombination creates hybrid chromosomes
Diploid offspring offering unique genetic combinations
Creates a population of distinct genotypes

147
Q

Hermaphrodites

A

Capacity to produce egg and sperm
(Both are male and female, produce male and female gametes)

148
Q

Simultaneous hermaphrodites

A

Produce egg and sperm at the same time

149
Q

Serial hermaphrodites

A

Change sex in response to environmental clues

150
Q

Protogynous

A

Females become males

151
Q

Protandrous

A

Males become females

152
Q

Overview of sexual reproduction

A

Fertilization -> cell division -> gastrulation -> morphogenesis -> metamorphosis (not in mammals) -> reproductive development -> senescence and death

153
Q

Determination of sex by genotype in mammals

A

Y chromosome, homogametic females (XX), heterogametic males (XY)

154
Q

Determination of sex by genotype in birds and butterflies

A

Heterogametic female (ZW)
Homogametic male (ZZ)

155
Q

Determination of sex by genotype in honeybee (and some ants)

A

Fertilized = diploid female
Unfertilized = haploid males

156
Q

Temperature-dependent sex determination (TSD)

A

The temp of egg incubation determines sex, which may be due to hormone levels in the egg
- eggs on the outside of the pile become females, inside become males

157
Q

Oogenesis

A

Oogonium -> primary oocyte -> secondary oocyte and first polar body -> mature ovum and second polar body

158
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

Spermatogonium -> primary spermatocyte -> secondary spermatocytes -> spermatids -> mature sperm

159
Q

Ovipary

A
  • ova laid and all development occurs externally
  • fertilization can be external or internal
  • fish, reptiles, birds
160
Q

Vivipary

A
  • young develop within the female body
  • fertilization internal
  • mammals and a few other taxa
161
Q

Ovo-vivipary

A
  • ova laid within the mother’s body
  • develops and hatches internally until birth
  • some reptiles and fish
162
Q

GnRH

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Synthesized and released from hypothalamus
Delivered to ant pit
Regulates FSH and LH release

163
Q

Gonadotropins

A

Peptide hormones from ant pit
control steroid hormone synthesis in vertebrates
Includes: LH, FSH, hCG, only in primates

164
Q

Steroid hormones

A

derived from cholesterol
regulation via gene expression
bind to a nuclear hormone receptor in target
produced in gonads

165
Q

Androgens

A

Originated in testes, responsible for secondary sex characteristics (axillary hair growth, voice deepening, and libido)

166
Q

LH

A

Originated in hypothalamus, responsible for leydig cells (stimulates androgen synthesis and release)

167
Q

FSH

A

Originated in the anterior pituitary, responsible for Sertoli cells (stimulates spermatogenesis)

168
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Originated in seminal vesicles, responsible for the uterus of mate (induce changes within the uterus that affect sperm motility)

169
Q

What hormone do all reproductive steroid hormones start out at

A

Progesterone

170
Q

External fertilization

A
  • most common in aquatic animals
  • huge gametes numbers are released
  • egg release and sperm release are synchronized
  • more cells=more chance for successful fertilization
171
Q

Internal fertilization

A
  • Most common in terrestrial animals
  • avoid gamete desiccation
  • provide protection for embryos
  • usually associated with mating behavior and accessory sex organs
172
Q

Copulation

A

permits sperm to move directly from male reproductive system to female

173
Q

Estrous cycle

A
  • sexual receptivity coincides with a specific phase of the cycle
  • amount of uterine tissue lost is minimal to moderate
  • present in most mammals except some primates
  • when fertile females exhibit behavioral cues and pheromones - called “estrus” or “in heat”
  • usually females are only receptive to copulation during heat
174
Q

Menstrual cycle

A
  • sexual reproductivity occurs at many phases of the cycle
  • amount of uterine tissue lost is substantial
  • present only in some primates (w/a few other exceptions)
175
Q

What are the 3 phases of the menstrual cycle

A
  1. Follicular phase
  2. ovulation
  3. luteal phase
176
Q

Follicular phase

A

One follicle grows and matures, estrogen initially drops and then increases tremendously, FSH and LH are pretty even and then dramatically increase after estrogen increases

177
Q

Ovulation

A

Follicle ruptures, caused by peak of estrogen and FSH + LH, corpus luteum sent to oviduct (around day 14),

178
Q

Luteal phase

A

Corpus luteum increases in size, progesterone increases for the lining of the uterus, LH and FSH decrease

179
Q

hCG

A

Analogue of progesterone that is produced by the placenta to maintain uterine lining

180
Q

Steps from ovulation to implantation

A
  1. Ovulation
  2. Fertilization
  3. Cleavage
  4. Cleavage continues down fallopian tubes
  5. Blastocyst implants in endometrium
181
Q

Placenta

A

The interface between mother and fetus
Composed of cells derived from both

182
Q

Trophoblast

A

Outermost cells of blastula differentiate

183
Q

How does the placenta form

A

Trophoblast invades the endometrium

184
Q

Function of the placenta in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

Vital endocrine function
Chorion secretes hCG that causes the corpus luteum to continue to secrete estrogen and progesterone

185
Q

Function of the placenta later in pregnancy

A

The placenta produces estrogen and progesterone

186
Q

What is parturition in mammals induced by

A

Contraction of smooth muscle of the uterus

187
Q

Hormonal changes associated with birth

A

Progesterone levels decrease allowing the uterine muscle to contract
Prostaglandins and oxytocin induce uterine contractions
Placenta expelled soon after birth

188
Q

What produces oxytocin that causes the placenta to release prostaglandins

A

Fetal cells

189
Q

What releases oxytocin

A

HPA

190
Q

Prolactin

A

Peptide hormone released from ant pit that controls milk production
Increases mammary gland mass and ensures biosynthetic machinery in place
Released due to increased estrogen levels during pregnancy

191
Q

How is milk production supressed during pregnancy

A

High levels of progesterone and estrogen

192
Q

How does oxytocin work to produce milk

A

oxytocin -> smooth muscles surrounding the gland ducts: contraction -> milk secretion

193
Q

Where are oxytocin receptors located

A

Glandular and myoepithelial cells of the duct

194
Q

Glandular cells are used for

A

Milk synthesis

195
Q

Myoepithelial cells

A

Surround clusters of milk-producing cells

196
Q

G cells

A

enteroendocrine cells in the stomach that make gastrin

197
Q

Gastrin

A

targets parietal cells in the stomach to make hydrochloric acid

198
Q

ECF cells

A

Release histamine that targets parietal cells that make stomach acid

199
Q

What do chief cells do

A

Make pepsinogen to break down proteins

200
Q

Secretin

A

Targets liver to make bile and targets pancreas to secrete bicarbonate

201
Q

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

A

Targets the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate

202
Q

Cholecystokinin

A

Targets the gallbladder to make bile and targets the pancreas to make enzymes

203
Q

What enzymes does the pancreas secrete

A

Pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase, procarboxypeptidase, trypsinogen, and chymotripsinogen that will be released into the small intestine

204
Q

What do lipases break down

A

Fats

205
Q

What do amylases break down

A

Carbohydrates

206
Q

What do proteases break down

A

Proteins

207
Q

Grehlin

A

Stimulates NPYRH in hypothalamus -> NPY
Stimulates hunger
Increases gastric motility and acid secretion

208
Q

When are Grehlin levels highest

A

Before meals

209
Q

When are Grehlin levels highest

A

After meals

210
Q

How are grehlin levels associated with weight

A

Negatively

211
Q

What is PPY

A

secreted from the colon when you are full
suppressed appetite
increased from dietary fiber and breakdown of proteins

212
Q

Leptin

A

Secreted by white adipose when lipid content is high and suppresses appetite

213
Q

Neuropeptide Y

A

Produced in arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
increases appetite and energy stored as fat
co-expressed with agouti-related protein (AgRP)

214
Q

Pro-opiomelanocortin

A

Pro-hormones for three hormones
Increases satiety
POMC deficiency leads to insatiable hunger and obesity

215
Q

What happens to white adipose when people are over eating

A

It gets larger and larger and signals leptin to suppress appetite to POMC to say “I’m full”

216
Q

Starvation

A

Reorganization of metabolism to survive

217
Q

What happens to glucose during starvation

A

Conserve glucose to protect glucose-dependent tissues

218
Q

What do muscles shift to during starvation

A

Lipid metabolism

219
Q

What follows lipid/glucose depletion

A

Protein metabolism and amino acids are converted to FFA and glucose

220
Q

What happens in later starvation

A

Glucose and glycogen are depleted, amino acids will start to get used and converted into ketone bodies

221
Q

Hyperphagy

A

Overeating is essential for some animals in preparation for winter

222
Q

Preproglucagon

A

Released by the alpha cells of the pancreas and L-cells of the small intestine in the presence of nutrients

223
Q

Proglucagon

A

gets split into PCSK1 and PCSK2

224
Q

GLP-1

A

Blocks effects of Grehlin at the hypothalamus which makes you not hungry

225
Q

What does GLP-1 do?

A

Decrease food/water intake, decrease inflammation, increase secretion of insulin, decrease glucagon synthesis

226
Q

1st law of thermodynamics

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

227
Q

2nd law of thermodynamics

A

Disorder within an isolated system always increases without the input of energy

228
Q

What is indigestible energy

A

Feces

229
Q

What is unmetabolizable energy

A

Urine

230
Q

Function of proteins in the human body

A

Structural, enzymatic, antibodies, hormones, membrane components

231
Q

Function of carbohydrates in the body

A

main kCal source/structural/membrane components/kCal storage

232
Q

Function of lipids in the body

A

kCal source/hormones/cell membranes

233
Q

Vitamins

A

Organic molecules that function as co-enzymes and other important metabolic functions

234
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic compounds/elements with many important functions in metabolism

235
Q

Water

A

The most abundant inorganic molecule that is necessary to control pH, BP, enzymatic reactions, etc.

236
Q

Where does non-essential AA come from

A

Biosynthesis from TCA cycle intermediates

237
Q

What are fatty acids derived from

A

Acetyl-CoA

238
Q

Omega-3 fatty acid

A

Alpha-linoleic acid (ALA), 3 double bonds, flax seed oil, fatty fish, chia, walnut

239
Q

Omega-6 fatty acid

A

Linoleic acid (LA), 2 double bonds, vegetable oils, nuts, seeds

240
Q

Vitamin A

A

Solubility: Fat-soluble
Function: Vission, immunity, reproduction, growth
Deficiency: Blindness, infections, stunted growth
Toxicity: Bone fractures, liver damage

241
Q

Vitamin D

A

Solubility: Fat-soluble
Function: bone growth, Ca absorption
Deficiency: Rickets, osteomalaciacia
Toxicity: Calcium imbalance

242
Q

Vitamin E

A

Solubility: Fat-soluble
Function: Antioxidant, cell membranes
Deficiency: Red blood cell breakage
Toxicity: Interferes with medicine

243
Q

Vitamin K

A

Solubility: Fat-soluble
Function: blood clotting, blood
Deficiency: Clotting

244
Q

Vitamin B

A

Solubility: water
function: energy metabolism (coenzymes in different processes)

245
Q

Vitamin C

A

solubility: water
function: antioxidant, collagen formation
deficiency: scurvy
toxicity: diarrhea

246
Q

The mouth

A

Mechanical digestion
- Chewing
- Pushing of food against the rough hard palate
- Movement/squeezing motion of esophagus
Saliva
- lubricates food, breaks down statch
- parasympathetic (stimulates salvation)
- sympathetic (inhibits salvation)

247
Q

The stomach

A

HCl acid and protease to break down proteins. Sphincters at the top and bottom. Ridges of muscles on the inside called ruggae for mechanical digestion

248
Q

Small intestine

A

Most important site of digestion
Very long
digestion and absorption

249
Q

Where does most digestion occur

A

In the duodenum

250
Q

Villi

A

increase surface area for digestion

251
Q

Tight junctions

A

Prevent leakage across epithelium

252
Q

Mucous neck cells

A

secrete mucus

253
Q

Parietal cells

A

Secrete HCl in the stomach

254
Q

Function of bile

A

Aid in the uptake of lipids and emulsify fats, produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder

255
Q

Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

A

Decreases in gastric emptying produced by the K cells also stimulated insulin release

256
Q

Enterocytes

A

Site of absorption in the small intestine

257
Q

Goblet cells

A

secretes mucus to protect gut

258
Q

Paneth cells

A

Secrete antimicrobial molecules

259
Q

Where is bile released into

A

The small intestine

260
Q

What does Glut - 5 Work on

A

Fructose

261
Q

What does Glut-2 work on

A

Glucose

262
Q

How are lipids digested

A
  1. DIgestion produced chylomicrons that are taken up by blood and sent to peripheral tissues
  2. Chlyomicron remnant is taken up by liver
  3. Liver repackages lipid to produce VLDL
  4. Triglyceride is depleted from VLDL leaving IDL
  5. IDL exchanged material with HDL
  6. Liver removed IDL from circulation
  7. Liver removes LDL from circulation
  8. HDL precursors are produced by liver and intestine
  9. HDL is produced
  10. HDL provide proteins to IDL
263
Q

Do fats have a higher or lower density than proteins

A

lower

264
Q

High-density lipoproteins

A

Good cholesterol

265
Q

Purpose of the large intestine

A

Absorb water and ions, store and move on insoluble starches and undigested food, site of most of the gut microbiome

BIO 225 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions