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Exam 3 And Final Microbiology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovered penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming

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2
Q

Penicillin was created by what fungus?

A

staphylococcus aerus

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3
Q

Penicillin disrupts what?

A

Disrupts cell wall by blocking the cross linking of peptidoglycan, leads to osmotic lyses

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4
Q

Beta lactamase does what? What is it produced by?

A

Cleaves onto b-lactam ring in penicillin and deactivates it. Creates resistance
Produced by staphylococcus

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5
Q

What are the 3 steps of horizontal transfer?

A

Conjugation, transduction, transformation

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6
Q

What is transformation?

A

Uptake and expression of exogenous free DNA from environment

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7
Q

What is Conjugation?

A

Transfer of DNA between bacteria through direct contact
• requires special transfer plasmid
•sex pilus

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8
Q

What is transduction?

A

Transfer of DNA from one species to another by a bacteriophage

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9
Q

Describe:
Generalized transduction
Specialized transduction

A

Generalized: lytic cycle, can move any gene
Specialized: lysogenic cycle, can move genes next to prophage insertion site

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10
Q

What are the 3 mamp’s

A

Flagella, peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharides

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11
Q

Define catabolism:
Define anabolism:

A

Catabolism: produces energy

Anabolism: consumes energy

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12
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Proteins and some mRNA’s

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13
Q

What is an active site? What reactions does it rely on?
What are the cofactors?
What are the coenzymes?

A

Region of enzymes that binds substrate. Rely on weak reactions such as hydrogen bonds& hydrophobic interaction
Cofactors: inorganic (zinc/iron)
Coenzymes: organic (vitamins)

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14
Q

What are the steps of fermentation? ‘
What are the waste product?
What is the final electron acceptor?
What is the ATP yield?
What test do we use?

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Oxidation of NADH —> NAD+
    Final electron acceptor: Pyruvate
    ATP yield: 2
    We use biochemical assays
    Water products: alcohol, acid or gas
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15
Q

What are the 5 steps of Respiration?
Describe step 2 and 4
Electron acceptor?
ATP yield?
Waste products?

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Pyruvate oxidation (converts acetyl coA, CO2 released, NADH produced)
  3. Krebs cycle
  4. Electron transport chain (created proton motor force)
  5. Oxidative phosphorylation
    Electron acceptor: O2 (oxygen)
    ATP yield: 38
    Waste products: CO2 and H2O
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16
Q

What products are in the Kreb Cycle?

A

3NADH, 1 FADH, 1 ATP (cycles twice 6 NADH, 2 FADH, 2 ATP)

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17
Q

How many estimated species of fungi?

A

1.5 mil

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18
Q

How many deaths due to invasive fungal infections?

A

1.5 mil ‘

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19
Q

What domain does fungi belong to?

A

Eukarya

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20
Q

What species are in the eukarya domain?

A

Plants, protists, fungi, animals

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21
Q

What kind of nutrition does fungi has? What does it release?

A

Absorptive
Digestive enzymes

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22
Q

What do fungi grow as? What is a network of this called?

A

Hyphae
Mycelium

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23
Q

What kind of spores do fungi produce?

A

Asexual
Sexual

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24
Q

How an asexual spores produced?

A

Through mitosis (Mitotic Spores)
Clonal reproduction

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24
Q

How are sexual spores produced?

A

Through meiosis or occurs within meiotic spores

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25
Q

What’s an example of a poisonous / hallucinogenic mushroom?

A

Amanita phalloides/muscaria

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26
Q

Mycorrhizal ____ the growth of plants

A

Improve

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27
Q

What on the New uses for mycelium?

A

Renewable and compostable resource

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28
Q

Define culture

A

Microbes growing in or on medium

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29
Q

Define pure culture?

A

Genetically homogenous strain of single species

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30
Q

Define agar and describe it

A

Complex polysaccharide used to solidify medium
-nontoxic, non metabolizable, not destroyed in autoclave, solidify at 40° C, stays solid over wide range of temperatures

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31
Q

Define CFU

A

Colony forming unit

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32
Q

What species has adopted to a high salt concentration?

A

Staphylococcus

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33
Q

The number Of cells ____ each generation

A

Double
(1=2, 2=4, 3=8)

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34
Q

Define batch culture

A

Liquid medium with closed system

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35
Q

Define continuous culture

A

Fresh medium continually added, supports prolonged medium

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36
Q

What is Plasmolysis?

A

Plasmolysis is the process in which cells lose water in a hypertonic solution

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37
Q

What are the 3 domains?

A

Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya

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38
Q

What is the size of bacteria?

A

0.5 -3 mm

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39
Q

What is the size of eukanya?

A

10-20 mm

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40
Q

Describe bacteria

A

Prokaryote
Single cell filament
Has cell wall

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41
Q

Describe Archaea

A

Prokaryote
Lack peptidoglycan
“Extremophiles”
No pathogen

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42
Q

Describe extremophile

A

lives in conditions of extreme temperature, acidity, alkalinity, or chemical concentration.

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43
Q

Describe Protozoa

A

Eukaryote
Motile
Single cell
Free living
Parasitic

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44
Q

Describe Algae

A

Eukaryote
Has Chloroplasts
Conducts photosynthesis
Contains cellulose

45
Q

Describe fungi

A

Eukaryote
Absorbs nutrients
Contain chitin and b glucan
Single cell filament
Can cause disease

46
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Do not normally cause disease but can Under some circumstances

47
Q

Limit of resolution:
Unaided human eye
Light microscope
TEM

A

150-200 mm
200 mm
10 pm

48
Q

Describe an acidic dye

A

A salt, chromophore is an anion

49
Q

What is a basic dye

A

A salt, chromophore is an cation

50
Q

What is a mordant?

A

May be used to hold the stain or coat specimen to enlarge it

51
Q

Describe a gram (+) bacteria

A

Multiple layers of peptidoglycan
Killed by penicillin
NO membrane
Contain LPS (endotoxin)
Stain purple

52
Q

Describe gram (-)

A

Single layer of peptidoglycan
Stains pink
Has LPS and Outer Membrane
Resistant to antibiotics

53
Q

Describe an acid fast stain

A

Carbolfuschian stain mycolic Acid (Red)
Ex: mycobacterium tuberculosis and leprae

54
Q

Describe a Spore Stain

A

Malachite Green+heat stain spore coat (blue/green)
Ex: bacillus and clostridium species

55
Q

Define pathogen:

A

Any bacterium, virus, or fungus that cause disease

56
Q

Describe BSL 1

A

Organisms do not typically cause disease, cause minimal threats

57
Q

Describe BSL 2

A

Commonly encountered in community, moderate threat

58
Q

Define microbiota:

A

Collection of bacteria, archaea, eukaryotic microbes colonizing the body (beneficial)

59
Q

What is the Germ theory?
What is the competing theory?

A

Germ theory specific disease is caused by specific organisms
Competing theory; disease is caused by miasmas (night air from rotting organic matter)

60
Q

What are the symptoms of cholera?

A

Watery, diarrhea, vomiting, Leg cramps, loss of bodily fluids, dehydration in shock

61
Q

What species cause the bubonic plague

A

Yersenia pestis

62
Q

What species causes leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae and lepromatosis

63
Q

What is ID50?

A

Bacteria needed to cause disease symptoms in 50%

64
Q

What is LD50?

A

Bacteria required to kill 50% of a group

65
Q

What is the species that causes small pox?

A

Variola magor

66
Q

Describe antiseptic

A

Chemicals that kill microbes

67
Q

What was the first antibiotic? What species did it grow from

A

Penicillin grows from Staphylococcus aerus

68
Q

What are 90% of mass living organisms made of?

A

Hydrogen, phosphorous, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur, carbon

69
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

When 2 atoms share one or more pairs of electrons

70
Q

What is a nonpolar covalent bond?

A

When both atoms have similar electronegativities, the electrons in a covalent bond are shared equally

71
Q

What is a polar covalent bond?

A

A bond with unequal icon sharing because the molecule has partial positive and negative poles

72
Q

Define hydrophilic

A

Compounds that are ionic or polar themselves to dissolve in water, (water loving)

73
Q

Define hydrophobic

A

Compounds that are nonpolar and do not dissolve in water (water fearing)

74
Q

Where is a ketone located?

A

Within C skeleton

75
Q

Where is an aldehyde located?

A

At the end

76
Q

Define vector

A

Transmission through an anime, Reservoir contaminated, food, water, air, or object

77
Q

Transcription does what

A

Copies a gene from DNA into mRNA

78
Q

Transcription begins at the ______ sands stops at the _______

A

Promoter
Terminator

79
Q

What are the 3 steps of transcription, describe each

A
  1. Initiation (RNA polymerase binds to promoter)
  2. Elongation : RNA chain is extended
  3. Termination: RNA polymerase detaches from DNA at the terminator sequence
80
Q

What is translation?

A

The synthesis of protein (amino acids) guided by the template mRNA nucleotides

81
Q

mRNA is translated into _____

82
Q

What is the start codon of m RNA?

83
Q

Translation of mRNA ends at what codons?

A

UAA, UAG, AGA (stop)

84
Q

How many degenerate codons are there?

85
Q

What are the small and large subunits of mRNA?

A

30S And 50S

86
Q

What is the difference between Hypotonic and hypertonic

A

The main difference between hypotonic, isotonic and hypertonic solutions is that isotonic solutions are solutions having equal osmotic pressures, while hypotonic solutions are solutions having a lower osmotic pressure and hypertonic solutions are solutions with a high osmotic pressure

87
Q

Describe and define Operon

A

A set of genes rebar share single mRNA and is controlled by single promoter and biochemical process
Rare in eukaryote

88
Q

What are the 3 proteins lac operon encoded

A

Lac Z- b galactosidase
Lac Y- lactose permease
Lac A

89
Q

Lac operon
Glucose Lactose Transcription
+ - ?
+ + ?
- - ?
- + ?

A

None
Low
None
Strong

90
Q

Describe and define Light Dependent reactions

A

Phosphorylation
Light energy converted to chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)

91
Q

Describe and Define Light Dependent Reactions

A

Carbon fixation
ATP and NADPH reduces CO2 to sugar

92
Q

Define photosynthesis

A

Fix CO2, reduced and condensed to sugar

93
Q

Define nitrogen fixation

A

Converts N2 to bioavailable NH3 and 4

94
Q

What is known to fix nitrogen?

A

No eukaryote, some prokaryote (CYANOBACTERIA)

95
Q

What is the most common monosaccharide ?

A

Glucose (C6 H12 O6)

96
Q

What is the carbonyl group for glucose

97
Q

Define
Oligosaccharides
Polysaccharide

A

2-20 monosaccharides
10’s or 100’s monosaccharides joined by dehydration synthesis
(Ex: starchy, glycogen, cellulose, chitin)

98
Q

What are the 3 most biologically important lipids

A

Fats, phospholipids, steroids

99
Q

Describe:
saturated fats
Unsaturated fats

A

Saturated fats: no double bond
Unsaturated fats: double bond (Cis and Trans)

100
Q

What do sterols do?

A

Reinforce membrane

101
Q

Describe:
Animals
Bacteria
Plants
Fungi
1. cell wall 2. Reinforcing agent 3. Do they conduct photosynthesis

A

Animals: no cell wall, cholesterol, no
Bacteria: peptidoglycan, hapanoids, yes
Plants: cellulose, phytosteols, yes
Fungi: chitin, ergersterol, no

102
Q

pH measures what?
Increasing [H+] increase what?
Increasing [OH+] increase what?

A

Acidity
Alkalinity

103
Q

1st engulfment event: aerobic respiration——> ______
2nd engulfment event: photosynthesis——> _____

A

Mitochondria
Chloroplasts

104
Q

Cell shape:
Coccus
Bacillus
Vibrio
Spirillum

A

Spherical/ovoid
Cylindrical/rod
Curved rod, comma shape
Spiral shape

105
Q

Arrangements:
Diplo
Staphlylo
Strepto

A

Pairs
Clusters
Chains

106
Q

What causes lymes disease

A

Burrelia borgderfiri

107
Q

Bacterial cells move by

A

Pilus, flagella, fimbraes

108
Q

Ribosomes in Eukarya
Bacteria

A
  • 80S in cytoplasm, 70S in organelles
    50S large subunit 30s small subunit
109
Q

What is the temp of mesophiles

A

15-45°
Optimum 20-40

110
Q

What are the 4 phases of logarithm

A
  1. Log
  2. Lag
  3. Stationary
  4. Deaths

Exam 3 And Final Microbiology (10 decks)

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