Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physical Exam I > Exam 3 review > Flashcards

Exam 3 review Flashcards

1
Q

3 boney landmarks of the shoulder?

A
  1. Acromion
  2. Coracoid Process
  3. Greater Tubercle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 boney structures of the shoulder?

A
  1. Humerus
  2. Clavicle
  3. Scapula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which joint is the “ball in socket” of shoulder?

A

Glenohumeral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What test to check internal and external shoulder rotation?

A

Apley Scratch Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Apley Scratch Test test what movements?

A

Internal and external shoulder rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a positive Apley Scratch Test mean? 2 things.

A
  1. Rotator cuff disorder

2. Adhesive capitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How to do Painful Arc Test? What’s positive?

A

Adduct arm 0-160º.

Shoulder pain betwen 60-120º d/t subacromial impingement or rotator cuff tendonitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the Near Impingement Sign compress?

A

Greater tuberosity against supraspinatus tendon and coracoacromial ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Empty Can Test is when arm can’t do what?

A

Inability to hold arm fully abducted at shoulder level -or- control lowering arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Empty Can Test is due to what?

A

Supraspinatus rotator cuff tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is CN 1 and how to test?

A

Olfactory nerve. Check patency and smell with eyes closed and 2 different smells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is CN 2 and how to test?

A

Optic nerve. Test visual acuity and visual field by controntation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is CN 3 and how to test?

A

Oculomotor nerve. Controls eyelids and pupil reaction to light, near response, convergence, accommodation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

> 0.4mm pupil diameter size than opposite pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is CN 4? Which muscle does it innervate?

A

Trochlear nerve. Superior Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is CN 6? Which muscle does it innervate?

A

Trochlear nerve. Lateral rectus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ptosis due to which nerve?

A

CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is CN 5? Which muscle does it innervate?

A

Trigeminal. Muscles of mastication=masseter, pterygoid, temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is CN 7? Which muscles?

A

Facial nerve. Muscles of facial expression, close eyes tight, puff cheeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which nerve is affected in Bells Palsy?

A

CN 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bells Palsy affects which parts of the face?

A

Upper and lower face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CN 8 is which nerve? What does it do?

A

Vestibularcochlear nerve (acoustic and vestibular). Hearing and balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the Rinne Test check?

A

Air and bone conduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rinne Test in conductive hearing loss air conduction and bone conduction?

A

BC ≥ AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rinne Test in sensorineural hearing loss air conduction and bone conduction?

A

AC>BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Weber Test checks for what?

A

Lateralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Weber Test in conductive to which ear?

A

Affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Weber Test in sensorineural to which ear?

A

Good ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which nerve in CN 9? What reflex?

A

Glossopharyngeal. Gag reflex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which nerve gives “horase voice” and difficulty swallowing?

A

CN 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CN 10 is which nerve? How to test in throat?

A

Vagus. Uvula and soft palate symmetrical rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CN 11 is which nerve? How to test?

A

Spinal accessory. Shoulder shrug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CN 12 is which nerve? How to test?

A

Hypoglossal. Stick out tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lower Motor Neuron damage where in medulla?

A

Below crossover point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lower Motor Neuron damage weakness and paralysis on which side?

A

Ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lower Motor Neuron damage tone, reflex, atrophy, plantar reflex?

A

Hypotonia, hyporeflexia, atrophy, normal plantar reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Upper Motor Neuron damage where in medulla?

A

Damage above crossover point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Upper Motor Neuron damage weakness and paralysis on which side?

A

Contralateral weakness and paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Upper Motor Neuron damage tone, reflex, atrophy, fasciculation?

A

Hypertonia, hyperreflexia, no atrophy, no fasiculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Grading range of Deep Tendon Reflex (DTR)

A

0-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DTR 0 and 1 mean?

A

0=absent reflex

1=Low normal; somewhat diminished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

DTR 2 and 3 mean?

A

2=Average, normal

3=Brisker than normal, possible disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DTR 4 mean?

A

Very brisk. Hyperactive with clonus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DTR hyperreflexes due to lesions where?

A

CNS lesions of corticospinal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DTR hyporeflexes due to lesions where? (hint: 2 possible places)

A

Lesion of spinal nerves or peripheral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DTR hyperreflexes due associated with Upper or Lower Motor Neuron lesions?

A

Upper Motor Neuron lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Positive Babinski’s sign associated with which motor neuon lesion where?

A

Upper motor neuron lesion. CNS lesion of corticospinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

DTR hyporeflexes associated with motor lesions where?

A

Lower Motor Neuron lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Muscle weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations due to lesion where?

A

Lesion of spinal or peripheral nerves. Lower motor neuron lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Spastic muscles and positive Babinski due to neuron lesion where?

A

CNS lesion of corticospinal tract. Upper motor neuron lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Babinski Reflex when big toe does what in response to stimulus?

A

Dorsiflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Babinski reflext d/t what sort of lesion?

A

CNS lesion affecting corticospinal tract. Upper motor neuron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is plantarflexion of big toe with stimulus normal or abnormal?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Can Babinski be positive when unconscious due to EtOH or drug OD?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Muscle Strength range?

A

0-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Muscle Strength 0 and 1?

A

0=No twitch

1=+ twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Muscle Strength 2 and 3?

A

2=some movement, no gravity

3=active movement against gravity, no resist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Muscle Strength 4 and 5?

A

4=move against gravity w/resist

5=strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

3 types of pain?

A
  1. Visceral pain
  2. Parietal pain
  3. Referred pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Visceral pain due do what happening to abdominal organs?

A

Distended abdominal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Visceral pain easy or difficult to localize?

A

Difficult to localize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Renal Colic example of what type of pain?

A

Visceral!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Ischemia what sort of pain?

A

Visceral pain!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Patietal Pain due to what happening to the peritoneum?

A

Inflammed parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Location of Parietal Pain relative to involved structure?

A

Localized over involved structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What do PTs with parietal pain prefer to do?

A

Lie still. NOT MOVE!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Referred Pain where and d/t what?

A

Pain at distant site innervated by same spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Referred Pain diffuse or localized?

A

Localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pleurisy and Inferior MI cause pain to be felt in epigastrum. What sort of pain?

A

Referred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where is General Splenic Percussion done at?

A

Left 6th ICS from cardiac dullness to Ant Axillary Line “traube’s space”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

General Splenic Percussion if tympanic? Dull?

A

Tympanic=no splenomegaly

Dull=splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Splenic Percussion Sign done where?

A

Lowest Left ICS in Ant Axillary Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Splenic Percussion Sign tympanic and dull upon inspiration?

A

Tympanic=normal

Dull=splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How to palpate for splenomegaly?

A

PT in abd position, left hand at left lower rib cage and right hand at costal margin. Press in and try to feel. 5% PTs have spleen can palpate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Causes of splenomegaly?

A

Portal HTN, malignancy, HIV, infiltrative dz (amyloidosis, splenic infarc).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Spleen is Reticuloendothelial Organ? What does this mean?

A

Liver and spleen are “connected” and if one enlarges the other is likely to also enlarge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Shifting Dullness with ascites?

A

Borders of dullness change with shift in PT position. Tympanic borders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Fluid Wave and ascites?

A

Palpable shock wave when feeling one side of abdomen and striking opposite side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Ballottement in ascites?

A

Used to identify mass in ascetic abdomen. Stiff fingers and jab toward mass.

81
Q

What special test for Cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s

82
Q

How to do Murphy’s for cholecystitis? What’s positive

A

Hooked fingers at right costal margin and take deep breath. Sharp pain in tenderness with inspiration=positive.

83
Q

McBurney’s Point Tenderness for what? Sensitivity?

A

Appendicitis. Highest sensitivity!

84
Q

Where is McBurney’s Point Tenderness?

A

2” from ASIS on line from that process to umbilicus.

85
Q

Rovsing’s Sign?

A

Referred pain from LLQ to RLQ via deep palpation. Appendicitis.

86
Q

How many Psoas Signs are there?

A

2!!!!!!

Appendicitis.

87
Q

How to do both Psoas Signs? Positive?

A

Appendicitis
1. Raise thigh against hand above knee
2. PT on L side, extend R leg at hip
Positive=increased abd pain

88
Q

How to do Obturator Sign? Positive?

A

Flex right thigh at hip with knee bent and rotate internally.
Positive=right hypogastric pain

89
Q

How to assess for Ventral Hernia?

A

Lift head and shoulders off table like a crunch=bulge

90
Q

Ventral Hernia in abdominal wall exclusive of what other hernia?

A

Groin hernia

91
Q

What will intra-abdominal mass be obscrured by?

A

Muscular contraction

92
Q

Normal range of abdominal sounds? Time?

A

5-34 abdominal sounds in 1 min. If not listen for 2 minutes.

93
Q

6 components of Nervous System exam?

A
  1. Mental Status (most important!)
  2. CNs
  3. Motor Function (2nd most import)
  4. Sensory
  5. Reflexes (DTRs, cutaneous reflexes)
  6. Coordination (aka cerebellar testing)
94
Q

What are Dysethesias and what can it cause?

A

Light touch which causes burning or irritating sensation from sensory neuropathy

95
Q

What is a Sensory Neuropathy?

A

Burning pain due to DM

96
Q

What pattern of sensory loss does Polyneuropathy cause?

A

Stocking-glove sensory loss

97
Q

Mononeuritis Multiplex causes what pattern of sensory loss? D/T?

A

Multiple patchy areas of sensory loss. DM and RA.

98
Q

Feel light-headed and weak but not actually passing out?

A

Near Syncope/Pre-syncope

99
Q

Suddenly but temporary loss of consciousness and postural tone d/t transient global hypoperfusion of brain

A

True Syncope

100
Q

Most common syncope?

A

Vasovagal Syncope

101
Q

Vasovagal Syncope speed and d/t?

A

Slow onset and offset. Unpleasant event.

102
Q

Syncope from arrythmias speed? D/T?

A

Sudden. Loss of cerebral perfusion.

103
Q

Tabes Dorsalis d/t which bacterial infx?

A

Syphillis

104
Q

Tabes Dorsalis does what to spinal tracts?

A

Demyelination

105
Q

Tabes Dorsalis and position sense, pupils?

A

Reduced position sense, Argyll-Robertson pupils

106
Q

Define Analgesia

A

Absence of pain

107
Q

Define hypalgesia

A

Decreased sensitivity to pain

108
Q

Define hyperalgesia

A

Increased pain sensitivity

109
Q

Define anesthesia

A

Absence of touch sensation

110
Q

Define Hypesthesia

A

Decreased sensivity to touch

111
Q

Define hyperesthesia

A

Increased sensitivity to touh

112
Q

First sensation lost in peripheral neuropathy?

A

Loss of vibration sense

113
Q

Tabes Dorsalis, multiple sclerosis, B12 deficiency cause loss of which sense?

A

Position.

D/T posterior column disease.

114
Q

Are the pulsations of the abdominal aorta visible or not?

A

Yes

115
Q

Where are abdominal aortic pulsations visible?

A

Upper abdomen/epigastrum, slightly left of midline.

116
Q

Normal abd aorta width?

A

3cm. More is suggestive of AAA.

117
Q

Most important finding of lung sounds?

A

Presence of lung sounds!

118
Q

2 normal breath sounds?

A

Vesicular and bronchovesicular

119
Q

Where are Vesicular breath sounds heard?

A

Between scapulae and 1st and 2nd ICSs

120
Q

Where are bronchovesicular sounds heard?

A

Over manubrium

121
Q

Discontinuous, nonmusical, “dots in time”

A

Crackles

122
Q

What happens to the airway in crackles?

A

Pop open with inspiration

123
Q

2 types of crackles?

A

Fine and coarse

124
Q

Continuous musical sounds

A

Wheezes

125
Q

What happens in airways in wheezes?

A

Bronchial airways narrowed to point of closure

126
Q

Wheezes are typical of which disease?

A

Asthma

127
Q

Rhonchi are a variant of what other sound?

A

Wheezes

128
Q

Pitch of Ronchi compared to wheezes?

A

Lower pitch

129
Q

Continuous high frequency, high pitched musical sound during airflow

A

Stridor

130
Q

What is happening to upper resp tract during Stridor?

A

Narrowing

131
Q

3 causes of Stridor?

A
  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Eppiglotitis
  3. Foreign body
132
Q

Discontinouous, low frequency, grating sound?

A

Pleural Rub

133
Q

Pleural Rub due to?

A

Inflammed, roughened visceral pleura that slides against parietal pleura

134
Q

Normal thorax percussion note?

A

Resonant

135
Q

Left-sided HF percussion note?

A

Resonant

136
Q

Chronic Bronchitis percussion note?

A

Resonant

137
Q

Lobar pneumonia aka Consolidation percussion note?

A

Dull

138
Q

Pleural Effusion percussion note?

A

Dull to flat

139
Q

Pleural Rub due to what happening in the pleura?

A

Inflammed and roughened visceral pleural that slides against parietal pleura

140
Q

Pneumothorax percussion note?

A

Hyperresonant!

141
Q

COPD percussion note?

A

Diffusely hyperresonant

142
Q

Asthma percussion note?

A

Resonant to diffusely hyperresonant

143
Q

How many grades of Murmurs?

A

6

144
Q

Define Thrill

A

Vibration sensation felt on ball of hand d/t underlying tubulent blood flow

145
Q

Define Heave/Lift

A

Sustained impulses that rhythmically lift fingers on chest. D/T enlared atrium of ventricle

146
Q

What grade murmur when thrill first present?

A

Grade 4

147
Q

Increased transmission of voice sounds suggests what?

A

Airless lung aka consolidation

148
Q

What is a “consolidation”

A

Air filled lung becomes airless

149
Q

Describe normal and positive Broncophony

A

Normal=Hearing muffled 99.

Positive=loudly hearing 99

150
Q

Describe normal and positive Egophony

A

Normal=hearing muffled “ee”

Positive=“E-to-A”

151
Q

Describe normal and positive Whispered Pectoriloquy

A

Normal=whispered “99” faintly heard

Positive=Loud and clear “99”

152
Q

What to do if feel goiter on thyroid?

A

Ascultate for bruit

153
Q

Definition of HTN?

A

≥140/90

154
Q

Normal BP?

A

≤120/80

155
Q

BP measurment done in the home or clinic is more predictive of CV disease and end-organ damage than office measurment?

A

Home measurment

156
Q
  1. End-organs damaged by HTN?
A
  1. Brain
  2. Eyes
  3. Heart
  4. Kidneys
157
Q

2 places where lordosis normally occurs?

A

Cervical and Lumbar spine

158
Q

Cause of loss of lordosis in cervical and lumbar spine?

A

Paravertebral spasm

159
Q

What causes excess lordosis in lumbar spine?

A

Flexion deformity of hip

160
Q

Who is S3 normal in?

A

Children, preggers women, well-trained athletes

161
Q

Which is always pathological- S3 or S4?

A

S4!

162
Q

Which condition is S4 associated with?

A

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH)

163
Q

Listen for S3 and S4 with which part of stethoscope?

A

Bell

164
Q

PT position for auscultating S3 and S4?

A

Left semilateral

165
Q

Sequence for fundoscopic exam?

A

a. Darken the room
b. Dial the lens disk to 0
c. Hold the device in the right hand for examining the pt’s right eye (Vice versa for left)
d. Have pt look directly ahead and focus on a fixed object
e. Stand 15” from the pt at 15° lateral to them
f. Observe red reflex
g. Brace your opposite hand on the pt’s forehead
h. Find a vessel and follow it centrally until you find the optic disk (track towards larger vessels)
i. Once found, rotate your lens disk until it is in sharp focus
j. Observe Optic Disk: Sharpness & clarity, color, size of cup
k. Observe the retina: Arteries & veins including crossings, venous pulsations, retinal lesions
l. Observe the fovea & macula: have pt stare into the light, look for tiny light reflection

166
Q

Which vessels in eye are light red and small?

A

Arteries

167
Q

Which vessels in eye are dark red and large?

A

Veins

168
Q

Swinging flashlight test for which condition?

A

Marcus Gunn Pupil

169
Q

Light in “bad eye” of Marcus Gunn pupil does what to pupils?

A

Partial dilation of both pupils

170
Q

Marcus Gunn Pupil d/t which CN?

A

CN 2 optic nerve

171
Q

Normal cup to disc ratio?

A

0.3

172
Q

Normal IOP range?

A

10-22

173
Q

One large pupil with delayed or absent light reaction is which condition?

A

Tonic “Adie” Pupil

174
Q

Unilateral dilated pupil with slow or no light reaction?

A

Tonic “Adie” pupil

175
Q

Most common form of headache

A

Tension headache

176
Q

Headache without an identified underlying disease

A

Primary Headache

177
Q

Headache with an identified underlying disease called?

A

Secondary Headache

178
Q

3 life-threatening causes of HA

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  3. Mass lesion
179
Q

Define Hyperopia

A

Difficulty focusing on close work (Farsightedness)

180
Q

Define Myopia

A

Difficulty focusing on distant objects (Nearsightedness)

181
Q

Define Presbyopia

A

Difficulty with close work due to aging vision

182
Q

Hyphema blood is where?

A

Blood in anterior chamber

183
Q

Define Optic Neuritis. Associated with?

A

Painful vision loss usually associated with MS

184
Q

Cataracts does what to lens? Gradually leads to what?

A

Opacification of lens leading to gradual central vision loss

185
Q

Define Vitreous Floaters

A

Moving debris inside vitreous humor, often protein fragments

186
Q

Define Scotoma

A

Areas of vision loss within the patient’s visual field

187
Q

Horizontal Diplopia and CNs affacted?

A

Double vision in which images are side-by-side (may be physiologic); may suggest palsy of CN-III or VI

188
Q

Vertical Diplopia and CNs affected?

A

Double vision in which images are on top of each other (always pathologic); may suggest a palsy of CN-III or IV

189
Q

Conductive Hearing Loss arises from where?

A

Arises in external or middle ear

190
Q

Sensorineural Hearing Loss arises from where?

A

Arises in the inner ear, cochlear nerve or brain

191
Q

Define Tinnitus

A

Perceived sound that has no external stimulus

192
Q

Define Vertigo

A

Sensation of true rotational movement of the patient or the surroundings

193
Q

Define Rhinorrhea

A

Drainage from the nose often associated with nasal congestion

194
Q

Define Epistaxis

A

Bleeding from the nasal passage

195
Q

Define Pharyngitis

A

Sore throat

196
Q

Define Aphthous

A

Related to benign ulcers of the mouth (eg. Aphthous stomatitis)

197
Q

Define Gingivitis

A

Inflammation of the gums

198
Q

4 types of pulse amplitude?

A
  1. thready
  2. weak
  3. strong
  4. bounding

Physical Exam I (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions