Exam 3: Respiratory Viruses and Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

consists of ciliated epithelial cells, goblet cells, and dendritic cells

A

conducting airway

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2
Q
  • move bad things out

- synthesize antimicrobial peptides

A

ciliated epithelial cells

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3
Q

produce mucus (protein called mucin with polysaccharide modification)

A

goblet cells

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4
Q
  • hydrophilic
  • keep epithelia hydrated
  • made by goblet cells
A

mucin

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5
Q

what are the different types of mucin?

A
  • membrane anchored mucin

- polysaccharide secreted mucin

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6
Q
  • intraepithelia

- carry out surveillance

A

dendritic cells

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7
Q

consists of type 1 epithelial cells, type 2 epithelial cells, and macrophages

A

alveoli

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8
Q
  • thin for gas exchange

- provide the most coverage

A

type 1 epithelial cells

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9
Q
  • rounded

- produce surfactant

A

type 2 epithelial cells

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10
Q
  • made by type 2 epithelial cells
  • protein + lipids
  • attached or secreted
A

surfactant

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11
Q
  • carry out antigen presentation

- phagocytosis to keep airway clear

A

alveolar macrophages

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12
Q

love the lipids in the airway

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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13
Q

how do the lungs of germ free mice compare to conventional mice?

A

have less mature alveoli

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14
Q

what happens if you give germ free mice Lactobacillus into the nose?

A
  • develop normal lungs and normal # of alveoli

- having bacteria in lungs helps develop structure

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15
Q

what happens during the flu in relation to resistance against bacterial infections?

A

decrease resistance against bacterial infections during flu

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16
Q

naked virus

A

non-enveloped virus

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17
Q

virus enclosed in membrane

A

enveloped virus

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18
Q

naked RNA of virus

A

icosahedron

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19
Q

*picornarvirus
~ssRNA
~icosahedron

A

rhinovirus

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20
Q

coronavirus

A

SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

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21
Q

paramyxovirus

A

RSV (respiratory synctial virus)

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22
Q

involves replication of genome and proteins

A

virus replication

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23
Q

what are the steps of virus replication?

A
  1. attachment to host receptor
  2. entry (at least genome)
  3. synthesis - genome replicates and viral protein synthesis in host (in cytosol)
  4. assembly of stuff that was synthesized
  5. assembled virus particle needs to be released
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24
Q

virus particle with all its parts

A

virion

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25
Q
  • goes from upper respiratory tract to lower tract
  • icosahedral capsid
  • +ssRNA
  • naked
  • positive sense
  • cellular tropism = respiratory epithelial cells
A

rhinovirus

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26
Q

what are the host receptors on respiratory epithelial cells that rhinovirus binds to?

A
  • ICAM-1 (intercellular adhesion molecule)

- LDLR (low density lipoprotein receptor)

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27
Q

increases during inflammation

A

ICAM-1

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28
Q

viral ligands of rhinovirus that bind receptors

A

-capsid proteins

~VP 1/2/3

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29
Q
  • conducting airways—>alveoli
  • pleomorphic
  • -ssRNA
  • enveloped
  • tropism = ciliated epithelial cells
A

RSV (respiratory synctial virus)

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30
Q

what is the host receptor for RSV?

A

CX3CR1 (chemokine receptor)

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31
Q

what are the viral ligands for RSV?

A

-surface G & F proteins

~surface glycoproteins

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32
Q
  • in alveoli
  • coronavirus
  • pleomorphic/spherical
  • +ssRNA
  • enveloped
  • tropism = pneumocytes (type 1 & 2 epithelial cells)
A

SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

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33
Q

what is the host receptor for SARS?

A

ACE-1 (angiotensin converting enzyme 1)

-secretes ADH

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34
Q

what is the viral ligand for SARS?

A

spike protein(s)

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35
Q

what is the life cycle of rhinovirus?

A
  1. receptor binding to viral ligand
  2. receptor mediated endocytosis
  3. endosome (decreased pH)
  4. endosome releases +ssRNA into host
    • can be used directly for protein synthesis (-RNA–> +RNA)
  5. +ssRNA goes to ribosomes on rough ER
  6. viral proteins and +RNA join in virus in cell
  7. cell lysis to release virions
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36
Q

what is the life cycle of RSV?

A
  1. G & F viral ligands bind with host cell receptor
  2. membrane fusion
  3. -ssRNA can’t be used for translation directly
    • makes +RNA—> -RNA
  4. +RNA goes to rough ER which results in viral proteins
  5. viral proteins and -RNA in capsid
  6. viral proteins go to cell surface
  7. budding
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37
Q

what is the life cycle of SARS?

A
  1. ligand binds host cell receptor
  2. receptor mediated endocytosis
  3. endosome (decreased pH)
  4. membrane fusion —> release +RNA
    • makes -RNA—-> +RNA
  5. +RNA goes to rough ER —> viral proteins
  6. viral proteins and +RNA join in endosome
  7. exocytosis
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38
Q

where is an infection most dangerous?

A

alveoli because there is no cilia

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39
Q
  • enzyme that changes +RNA–>-RNA–>+RNA
  • error prone~no proofreading
  • antigenic diversity due to errors
A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

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40
Q

how do infected epithelial cells start the immune response?

A
  1. induce apoptosis
  2. inflammation
    • type 1 interferon response
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41
Q
  • gram +
  • catalase -
  • beta hemolysis
  • found on skin
  • aerotolerant
  • bacitracin sensitive
  • have capsule
  • have pili
  • have hemolysin
  • M protein (surface)
A

Group A strep (Streptococcus pyogenes)

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42
Q

what can kill Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

*Bacitracin (bacitracin test–>antibiotic)

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43
Q

what is the capsule of Streptococcus pyogenes made of?

A

hyaluronic acids

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44
Q

what hemolysin does Streptococcus pyogenes have?

A

streptolysin S and O

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45
Q
  • facultative anaerobe
  • beta hemolysis- beta hemolysin
  • bacitracin resistant
  • found in intestine or vaginal tract
  • have capsule
  • pili
  • HvgA (hyper virulent GBS adhesin)
A

Group B strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)

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46
Q

what is the capsule of Streptococcus agalactiae made of?

A

sialic acid

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47
Q
  • alpha hemolysis
  • causes pneumonia
  • found in nasopharynx
  • facultative anaerobe
  • have capsule
  • pili
  • hemolysin
  • phosphororylcholine teichoic acid
A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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48
Q

what is the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae made of?

A
  • polysaccharide

- composition gives rise to serotypes

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49
Q

what is the hemolysin of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

pneumolysin

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50
Q

what do capsules play a role in?

A
  1. opsonization

2. phagocytosis

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51
Q

what do pili play a role in?

A
  1. attachment

2. adherence

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52
Q

what do hemolysins produce?

A

pore forming toxins (proteins)

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53
Q

what does the capsule of Group A strep inhibit?

A
  • inhibits phagocytosis

- avoids recognition by own cells

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54
Q

what does streptolysin S and O of Group A strep lead to?

A
  1. damage
  2. inflammation, invasion, spread
  3. strep throat or skin infection
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55
Q

what does the pyrogenic exotoxin (super antigen) of Group A strep cause?

A

toxic shock syndrome (scarlet fever)

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56
Q

what does the M protein of Group A strep result in?

A
  1. adhesion
  2. epitopes mimic our self epitopes
    -autoimmune diseases
  3. antibodies and T cells recognize/against M proteins
    -cross reactivity with myosin, sarcolemma membrane, neuronal gangliosides
    ~arthritis, carditis, rheumatic fever, sydenham chorea, kidney failure
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57
Q

what happens if a virulence factor of Group A strep is lost?

A

it may become less virulent and require more LD 50

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58
Q
  • a virulence factor that can be produced by certain species of Streptococcus
  • help them gain entry into a host by counteracting the host’s defences
  • Group A strep
A

M protein

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59
Q

what are the steps of Group B strep invasion?

A
  1. intestines/vaginal tract
  2. cross mucosal barrier
  3. evade immune defenses
  4. cross blood-brain barrier
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60
Q

how does Group B strep cross the mucosal barrier?

A
  1. adhesins - pili
  2. paracellular translocation
    • tight junctions
  3. hemolysin transcellular translocation?
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61
Q

How does Group B strep evade immune defenses?

A
  • capsules
  • degrade complement proteins
  • bind Ig at fc
  • D-ala (+) modification to teichoic acids
  • inhibit AMP?
  • superoxide dismutase inhibits ROS?
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62
Q

what happens when Group B strep crosses the blood-brain barrier?

A
  1. meningitis
  2. beta hemolysin and HvgA (adhesin binds to host receptor)
    -leads to neurotropism
    ~microvascular endothelium
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63
Q

caused by Group B strep, Listeria monocytogenes

A

infant meningitis

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64
Q

caused by neisseria meningitis and/or streptococcus pneumoniae

A

older kids/adult meningitis

65
Q

what is the path of Streptococcal pneumoniae?

A
  1. upper respiratory tract (asymptomatic carrier)
  2. lower respiratory tract
  3. alveoli
  4. blood
  5. brain
66
Q

disease caused when streptococcal pneumoniae reaches the alveoli

A

pneumonia (liquid in lungs)

67
Q

disease caused when streptococcal pneumoniae reaches the brain

A

meningitis

68
Q

what doe streptococcal pneumoniae use to infect host?

A
  1. neuraminidase
  2. adhesins
  3. pneumolysin
  4. streptococcal pyruvate oxidase
  5. capsule
69
Q

cleaves glycoconjugates on mucin ~ breaks mucosal barrier

A

neuraminidase (of Streptococcal pneumoniae)

70
Q

adhesins that streptococcal pneumoniae use to attach to epithelium

71
Q

-form pores on epithelial cells
~inflammation
-inhibit mucocilliary action

A

pneumolysin of streptococcal pneumoniae

72
Q

synthesizes hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

A

streptococcal pyruvate oxidase

73
Q
  • PC-teichoic acid

- taken up by endothelium and dump at other side?

74
Q
  • aerobic
  • rod-shaped
  • high GC content
  • Gram +
  • phylogeny = actinobacterium
  • very fatty bacterium
  • has peptidoglycan layer and phospholipid
  • mycolic acid
  • slow grower
  • classical intracellular pathogen
  • hard to find/diagnose
A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

75
Q

what percent of mycobaterium tuberculosis’ genome is dedicated to fatty acid synthesis or rmetabolism?

76
Q

what percent of mycobacterium tuberculosis’ dry weight is lipids?

77
Q

in an ideal lab condition what is the doubling time for mycobaterium tuberculosis?

78
Q

how is mycobacterium tuberculosis treated with antibiotics?

A
  • long term antibiotic treatment
  • bacteria needs to grow for abx to work
  • abx sensitivity decreases if m. tuberculosis is not growing
79
Q

what types of resistance does m. tuberculosis have?

A
  1. phenotypic resistance
  2. genetic resistance
    • horizontal gene transfer is rare
    • genome mutations for most part
80
Q

cellular tropism is alveolar macrophages - likes to grow in host cell

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

81
Q

how does mycobacterium affect immune system?

A

-once infection happens, it elicits immune response

~disease/damage caused by immune response

82
Q

what are the common tests to diagnose mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A
  1. TB skin test

2. Blood test

83
Q

involves a skin injection with tuberculin(protein extract of Mtb), which serves as an antigen

A

TB skin test

84
Q

what is the infection process for TB?

A

1.primary infection
-innate immune response
~clearance OR adaptive immne response
2. secondary infection
-adaptive immune response (t and b cells)
~clearance OR active TB (disease/infectious) OR granuloma latent infection
3. granuloma latent infection
-active TB OR clearance

85
Q

how does granuloma latent infection trigger active TB?

A
  • trriggers weakened immune defense
    • steroids
    • age
    • malnutrition
    • HIV~ comprimises T cell response
86
Q

what is the result for TB test during primary infection?

A

negative skin test

87
Q

what is the result for TB test during secondary infection or adative immune response?

A

positive skin test

88
Q
  • model environmental opportunistic pathogen
  • very good at adapting to its environment
  • 3 kinds of motility
  • have capsules
  • make different pigments depending on conditions
  • priority 1 (critical) for WHO priority pathogen list for R+D of new antibiotics
A

Pseudomonas aeuroginosa

89
Q

what are the 3 types of motility of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa?

A
  1. swimming (flagella)
  2. twitching (type 4 pili)
  3. swarming (flagella + pili)
90
Q

what the capsules of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa like?

A

-form mucoid colonies
~polysaccharide capsule
-avoid immune recognition

91
Q

produced by Pseudomonas aeuroginosa in low phosphorus conditions

A

pyocyanin (green)

92
Q

produced by Pseudomonas aeuroginosa in ample phosphorus conditions and it is fluorescent

A

pyoverdin (green/yellow)

93
Q

what is the pathogenesis process for Pseudomonas aeuroginosa?

A
  1. adhesion
  2. damage
  3. immune recognition
  4. biofilm composition
  5. antibiotic resistance ~ mcr-1 inhibits colistin
94
Q

what does Pseudomonas aeuroginosa use for adhesion?

A

-LasA protease
-elastase protease
~both proteases degrade proteins of extracellular matrix
-flagella and type 4 pili to bind to cell surface

95
Q

what does Pseudomonas aeuroginosa use to cause damage?

A
  • pyocyanin
  • ExoU
  • ExoS
96
Q

-causes oxidative damage
-secretes exotoxin A
~inhibits translation
~uses type 3 secretion to get protein into cytosol of host cell

A

pyocyanin of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa

97
Q

phospholipase that degrades membrane

A

ExoU of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa

98
Q

enzyme that adds ADP to RAS that results in disruption of actin cytoskeleton

A

ExoS of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa

99
Q

what is involved in immune recognition of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa?

A

-toll like receptor 5 that recognizes flagellum
-LPS in outer membrane recognized by TLR4
~both lead to inflammation

100
Q

how is the biofilm of Pseudomonas aeuroginosa formed?

A

-goes from planktonic (moving) to sessile
~builds biofilm structure
-cells stick together through extracellular polysaccharides

101
Q

what are the extracellular polysaccharides that help cells stick together to form biofilm?

A
  • Psl
  • Pel
  • Alginate
102
Q

what else is in biofilm that helps cells stick together?

103
Q
  • helps resist antibiotics

- creates gradient

104
Q

what are the different sides of the gradient like formed by biofilms?

A
  • metabolic processes occur outside the gradient

- on the inside there is low metabolic and respiratory activity

105
Q

how do Pseudomonas aeuroginosa resist abx?

A
  1. modify gyrase + tophomerase to inhibit fluoroquinolones
  2. enzymes degrade abx
  3. eflux pump to transport abx out of cell
  4. outermembrane proteins stop expression of abx or cause mutations
106
Q

-inhibits colistin
-adds phosphoethanolamine to lipid A
~modifies charge and substrate so it can no longer bind

107
Q

MDR

A

multidrug resistance

108
Q

HIV

A

human immunodeficiency virus

109
Q
  • genus=lentivirus
  • enveloped
  • 2 copies of ssRNA
  • 9 genes~18 proteins
110
Q

how are there 9 genes but 18 proteins for HIV?

A

-overlapping open reading frames

~forms polyproteins –> cleaved by both host and viral proteases to functional proteins

111
Q

what are the genes of HIV?

A
  1. Gag
  2. pol
  3. env
  4. rev
  5. vif
  6. Vpr
  7. tat
  8. Vpu
  9. net
112
Q

all 3 genes together make polyprotein

A
  • Gag
  • pol
  • env
113
Q

encodes core structural proteins

114
Q

encodes integrase, protease, reverse transcriptase

115
Q

encode glycoproteins on envelope (gp120 & gp41)

116
Q

what are the targets of HIV?

A
  1. macrophages CD4 and CCR5
  2. net protein down regulates MHC
  3. super infection
117
Q

what happens if reverse transcriptase makes a mistake?

A

*mutations
-GP120 binds Cd4 and CXCR5 instead of CCR5
~called type switching
~new target is CD4+ T cells

118
Q

why is HIV a superinfection?

A
  • same person can have multiple versions of HIV

- mutation rate in HIV is much faster than adaptive immune response

119
Q
  • first stage of HIV infection

- weeks

A

-acute infection

120
Q
  • provirus

- need drugs during this stage to inhibit integrase and reverse transcriptase

A

latent infection

121
Q
  • final stage

- 0-3 years till the end of life

122
Q
  • gram -
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • inner and outer membrane, lipooligosaccharides (LOS)
  • facultative anaerobe
123
Q
  • weak outside of host
  • sensitive to environmental stresses
  • humans are reservoirs
124
Q

how does gonorrhea infect a host?

A

-attach to vaginal or urethral epithelium
~surface proteins
~type 4 pili (twitching)
~LOS

125
Q

how does gonorrhea evade immune defenses?

A
  • *antigenic variation
    1. gene assortment/recombination
    2. phase variation
126
Q

always modifying whats on the outside

A

antigenic variation of gonorrhea

127
Q

expression of protein is sometimes on or sometimes off

A

phase variation

128
Q
  • caused by Treponema pallidum
  • gram -
  • spirochete
  • no oxidative phosphorylation, no electron transport chain, no TCA cycle, no LPS
  • small genome
  • spread by sex
129
Q

what is the progression of syphilis?

A

sex–> primary syphilis (mild symptoms)–>secondary syphilis (treponema spreads) –>latent syphilis (3-30 yrs)–>tertiary syphilis (death)

130
Q

serotype is a classification scheme defined by…..?

A

host immune response

131
Q

true or false: all human pathogens grow best at human body temperature of 37 degrees celsius

132
Q

what is the most ideal host to demonstrate rhinovirus as the causative agent of respiratory infections?

A

epithelial cells derived from lung tissues

133
Q

true or false: a person with rhinovirus may still be contagious after his/her symptoms are gone

134
Q

true or false: the main cause of symptoms in respiratory viral infections is immunopathological

135
Q

what is the main reason why it is hard to develop a RSV vaccine?

A

immune immaturity of the target population

136
Q

what specific step in viral replication does the drug Palivizumab block?

A

adhesion and entry

137
Q

causes strep throat

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

138
Q

causes rheumatic fever

A

cross-reacting antibodies

139
Q

true or false: The LD50 for encapsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae is higher than non-capsulated Streptococcus penumoniae.

140
Q

non-sporulating

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

141
Q

Beta-hemolytic

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

142
Q

true or false: Mycobacterium tuberculosis had two phospholipid bilayer membranes

143
Q

The host tropism of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is…

A

alveolar macrophages

144
Q

does NOT exhibit rapid onset of symptoms

A

tuberculosis

145
Q
  • contained by cell-mediated immunity
  • can be treated with antibiotics
  • transmitted through respiratory route
A

tuberculosis

146
Q

true or false: Tuberculosis can be effectively treated with a 2-week course of antibiotics

147
Q

true or false: Mycobacterium tuberculosis without mycolic acids will have a higher LD50 value than Mycobacterium tuberculosis with mycolic acids

148
Q

uses swimming, twitching and swarming motility

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

149
Q

true or false: The only route of transmission for Pseudomonas aeruginosa is through inhalation of contaminated water droplets

150
Q
  • It is recognized by TLR4 on host cells
  • It can facilitate interactions with CFTR on host epithelial cells
  • It is a structural component of Gram negative bacteria outer membrane
151
Q

true or false: Type three secretion system transports proteins from bacterial cytoplasm to the host cytoplasm.

152
Q

Which of the following are SECRETED PROTEINS from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  • elastase

- phospholipase C

153
Q

an intracellular pathogen

154
Q

when HIV is inserted into a host chromosome, it is called a….

155
Q

For people with a mutated version of CCR5 that doesn’t bind to GP120, what would the LD50 for HIV be?

A

Higher than LD50 in people with wildtype copy of CCR5

156
Q

true or false: People who die from AIDS are dying from secondary infections or cancer, not directly from HIV.

157
Q

the bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted disease gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

158
Q

Syphilis is caused by the bacterium…..?

A

Treponema (genus) pallidum (species)