Exam 3 Remington- Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the reasons for studying the development of the eye?

A

Adult anatomy explained, histology of ocular tissue, congenital abnormalities explained, congenital anomalies are more prevalent since more premature and high risk babies surviving

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2
Q

What are the steps after fertilization?

A

Fertilization -> Morula (solid mass) -> Blastula -> Inner cell mass (implanted in uterine wall about 10 day) -> Embryonic plate

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3
Q

Proliferation

A

Increase in number of cells

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4
Q

Migration

A

Move to new location

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5
Q

Differentiation

A

Process by which a cell acquires specific functional and structural characteristics

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6
Q

Induction

A

The influence a certain region of tissue or developing structure has on the development of another structure

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7
Q

When is the embryonic plate formed?

A

Day 15

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8
Q

Ectoderm

A

CNS, epidermis of skin, exocrine glands, inner ear, hair and nails

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9
Q

Mesoderm

A

CT, skeletal system, muscle, dermis of skin, circulatory system

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10
Q

Endoderm

A

lining of alimentary and respiratory tracts

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11
Q

Neural plate

A

The ectodermal part of embryonic plate that will become CNS

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12
Q

When does thickening occur in ectoderm?

A

Day 18

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13
Q

When is the neural tube formed?

A

Day 22

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14
Q

The neural ectoderm forms the ____

A

Tube

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15
Q

The surface ectoderm covers the ______

A

Organism

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16
Q

Neural crest cells separate from ____ ____

A

Crest areas

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17
Q

What is formed from the neural ectoderm?

A

RPE, neural retina, optic nerve fibers, neuroglia, epithelium of ciliary body, epithelium of iris, iris sphincter, dilator muscles

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18
Q

What is formed from the surface ectoderm?

A

Lens, corneal epithelium, conjunctival epithelium, epithelium of eyelids, cilia, Meibomian glands, glands of Zeis and Moll, epithelium lining nasolacrimal system

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19
Q

What is formed from the neural crest cells?

A

Corneal stroma (which gives rise to Bowman’s layer), corneal endothelium (which gives rise to Descemet’s), most of sclera, trabecular structures, uveal pigment cells, uveal CT, ciliary muscle, meninges of optic nerve, vascular pericytes

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20
Q

Where is the mesoderm located?

A

Between ectoderm and endoderm

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21
Q

Mesenchyme

A

Includes both neural crest and mesoderm

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22
Q

The neural tube will form _____

A

CNS

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23
Q

When do optic pits become optic vesicles and out-pouches from diencephalon form?

A

Day 25

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24
Q

Optic stalk

A

Region joining optic vesicle to neural tube constricts

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25
Q

Optic cup

A

Inferior region of the vesicle and stalk begins to invaginate and forms a cleft

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26
Q

Optic fissure

A

Also called fetal fissure or embryonic fissure

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27
Q

Coloboma

A

Incomplete closure of fissure, will result in incomplete formation of certain structures and/or layers

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28
Q

What is a thickening in the surface ectoderm?

A

Lens vesicle

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29
Q

What forms the lens plate or placode?

A

Lens vesicle

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30
Q

What gene may be one of the factors that extablishes the lens component of surface ectoderm?

A

Pax-6

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31
Q

An indentation of the lens vesicle forms ___ ___

A

Lens placode

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32
Q

When does the vesicle separate from the surface ectoderm?

A

Day 33

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33
Q

Lens vesicle cells secretes what?

A

Basal lamina

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34
Q

What elongates forming embryonic nucleus?

A

Posterior lens epithelium

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35
Q

What forms secondary lens fibers of the fetal nucleus?

A

Mitosis at the pre-equatorial zone

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36
Q

What are the vessels that enter the globe through the fissure formed from?

A

Mesenchyme

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37
Q

Posterior tunica vasculosa lentis branches from what?

A

Hyaloid vessels

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38
Q

Anterior tunica vasculosa lentis branches from what?

A

Annular vessel

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39
Q

The posterior and anterior tunica vasculosa lentis are joined and nourish the lens during months ____

A

3-4

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40
Q

When are the networks absorbed?

A

Month 8

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41
Q

The hyaloid arterial system is surrounded by ___ ___

A

Glial tissue

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42
Q

The amount of reabsorption of glial tissue influences ____

A

Extent

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43
Q

What occurs in the optic cup?

A

Proliferation, migration, and differentiation

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44
Q

What is the first retinal layer to differentiate?

A

RPE

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45
Q

Neural Retina Proliferative Zone

A

Contains the cell bodies which will form retinal cells

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46
Q

Neural Retina Marginal Zone of His

A

Located next to basal lamina

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47
Q

Inner neuroblastic layer

A

Contains cells that will become ganglions, amacrines, and Mullers

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48
Q

Outer neuroblastic layer

A

Contains cells that will become photoreceptors, bipolars, horizontals (origin of interplexiform neurons not determined)

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49
Q

Transient fiber layer of Chievitz

A

Area between layers contains no cells

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50
Q

When does apoptosis begin?

A

Month 5

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51
Q

What happens in retinal development during month 6?

A

No further mitosis, differentiation and cell maturation continue

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52
Q

The macular area is the thickest retinal area until about ____ months of gestational age and until up to 9 rows of ganglion cells present

A

6

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53
Q

The depression in the macula continues to deepen until when?

A

15 months

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54
Q

What are first to differentiate in the macular area?

A

Ganglion cells

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55
Q

What are cone axons dependent on?

A

Light stimulation for complete growth of Henles fibers to reach synapses in OPL

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56
Q

What does the CRA develop as buds from in month 4?

A

Hyaloid

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57
Q

What does the CRV develop as buds from?

A

Maxillary vein

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58
Q

When is the vasculature complete?

A

3 months post pardum

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59
Q

What does the corneal epithelium develop from?

A

Surface ectoderm

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60
Q

When are ZO evident in the corneal epithelium?

A

Week 6

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61
Q

What does the corneal endothelium develop from?

A

Develops from neural crest cells in 1st wave mesenchyme

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62
Q

What does the corneal stroma develop from?

A

From neural crest cells in second wave of mesenchyme

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63
Q

Where does the sclera form from?

A

Primarily from the neural crest, in mesenchyme that surrounds optic cup

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64
Q

By what months has the sclera surrounded the choroid?

A

3rd month

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65
Q

The sclera usually develops _____ first

A

Anteriorly

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66
Q

Where does the choroid develop from?

A

Mesenchyme

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67
Q

What is the first layer to differentiate of the choroid?

A

Choriocapillaris

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68
Q

The epithelial layers of the ciliary body are from the ____ ___

A

Optic cup

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69
Q

The mesenchymal cells in the ciliary body differentiate forming what two things?

A

Stroma and muscle

70
Q

When will the annular muscle of Muller be completed?

A

1st several months after birth

71
Q

What do the iris epithelial layers form from?

A

Optic cup

72
Q

____ _____ forms from a group of cells that detaches from the anterior iris epithelium

A

Sphincter muscle

73
Q

Mesenchymal cells differentiate in the iris forming _____ and _____

A

Melanocytes and fibroblasts

74
Q

When the anterior tunica vasculosa lentis degenerates into what two things?

A

Minor circle of the iris and stroma

75
Q

_____ ____ forms from cells of third wave of mesenchyme

A

Pupillary membrane

76
Q

When does the pupillary membrane present?

A

Month 3-5

77
Q

The pupillary membrane degenerates from month _____

A

6-8

78
Q

The remnants of the pupillary membrane are incorporated into what two things?

A

Collarette and anterior border layer

79
Q

Mass of _____ accumulates in the angle area

A

Mesenchyme

80
Q

Once the trabecular meshwork is formed a continuous sheet of _______ covers it

A

Endothelium

81
Q

When must the trabecular meshwork break down exposing the meshwork for aqueous drainage to occur?

A

Month 7-9

82
Q

What does Schlemm’s canal develop from?

A

Veins in the area

83
Q

What is the primary vitreous?

A

Degenerating hyaloid system becomes Cloquet’s canal

84
Q

What is the secondary vitreous?

A

Mesenchyme, retinal fibrils forms intermediate vitreous

85
Q

What is tertiary vitreous?

A

Zonules

86
Q

What is the outer layer of the optic nerve?

A

Forms neuroglial sheath

87
Q

What is the inner layer of the optic nerve?

A

Cells form glial tissue, other cells vacuolate allowing for passage of ganglion axons

88
Q

_____ ____ fill lumen growing from the globe to the LGN

A

Ganglion cells

89
Q

Where does myelination begin?

A

LGN

90
Q

When is myelination completed?

A

1 month after birth

91
Q

Eyelid buds grow and fuse when?

A

About 2nd gestational month

92
Q

When do eyelids separate?

A

5-6

93
Q

What of the eyelids is made of surface ectoderm?

A

Epithelial layers of the skin and conjunctiva, hair follicles and cilia, Meibomian glands, Zeis glands and glands of Moll

94
Q

What of the eyelids is made of mesenchyme?

A

Tarsal plates, orbicularis, levator, and tarsal muscle of Muller

95
Q

What part of the orbit has neural crest origin?

A

Fat and CT

96
Q

What is the position of the orbit at month 3?

A

180-105 degrees

97
Q

What is the position of the orbit at birth?

A

71 degrees

98
Q

What is the position of the orbit in adulthood?

A

68 degrees

99
Q

Muscle cells have ________ origin

A

Mesodermal

100
Q

Connective tissue has _____ _____ origin

A

Neural crest

101
Q

The lacrimal gland was once thought to be derived from ___ _____, but now believed to be from ______ _____

A

Surface ectoderm, neural crest

102
Q

The nasolacrimal system is not fully developed or functioning until what age?

A

3-4 years

103
Q

All structures of drainage has ______ _____ origin

A

Surface ectoderm

104
Q

Germinal Period

A

Day 1-21; rapid cell division, differentiation of primary germ layers, travel down fallopian tubes to uterus where implantation occurs about day 10

105
Q

Embryonic Period

A

4-8 weeks; differentiation of all major internal and external body structures, vital organs first

106
Q

Fetal Period

A

9 weeks to birth

107
Q

What happens in the fourth week of the embryonic period?

A

Cardiovascular system, heart starts beating

108
Q

What happens in the fifth week of the embryonic period?

A

Eyes, ears, mouth, and nose forming

109
Q

What happens in the 5-8 weeks of the embryonic period?

A

Limbs, fingers, and toes are webbed

110
Q

What happens in week 12 of the fetal period?

A

Growth stage, sexual differentiation

111
Q

What happens in week 28 of the fetal period?

A

Brain wave patterns show active cycles

112
Q

When is the age of viability?

A

24-28 weeks

113
Q

How long is a normal term?

A

38 weeks

114
Q

GA 7-8 days

A

0.1 mm

115
Q

GA 11-12 days

A

0.2 mm

116
Q

GA 21-24 days

A

1.5-3.5 mm

117
Q

GA 24-27 days

A

4.0-9.5 mm

118
Q

GA 5 weeks

A

10-13 mm

119
Q

GA 6 weeks

A

14-18 mm

120
Q

GA 7 weeks

A

19-24 mm

121
Q

GA 8 weeks

A

25-30 mm

122
Q

GA 3 months

A

31-70 mm

123
Q

GA 4 months

A

41-110 mm

124
Q

GA 5 months

A

111-150 mm

125
Q

GA 6 months

A

151-190 mm

126
Q

GA 7 months

A

191-240 mm

127
Q

GA 8 months

A

241-280 mm

128
Q

GA 9 months

A

280-320 mm

129
Q

Variation

A

slight departure from normal, too minor to interfere with function

130
Q

Anomaly

A

Very different from normal, may interfere with function

131
Q

Aberration

A

Difference in structure which does not resemble any stage of normal development

132
Q

Arrest

A

Normal development halted

133
Q

What are the causes of ocular congenital abnormalities

A

Genetic, environmental, interactions between genetic and environment

134
Q

Teratogens

A

Any agent which acts on the fetus during intrauterine life, may be chemical (drugs), disease, physical, nutritional

135
Q

What is likely is insult during the germinal period?

A

Spontaneous abortion

136
Q

What is likely if insult during embryonic period?

A

Major anomalies or aberrations

137
Q

What is likely if insult during fetal period

A

Minor anomalies and variation

138
Q

Cyclopia

A

Single median eye or 2 fused at midline

139
Q

Hypertelorism

A

Greater than normal distance between orbits

140
Q

Hypotelorism

A

Less than normal distance between orbits, midbrain often affected

141
Q

Anophthalmia

A

Absence of ocular tissue derived from optic cup

142
Q

Microphthalmia

A

Globe and lens small and undeveloped

143
Q

Buphthalmos

A

Congenital glaucoma, marked distention of eye caused by increase of IOP, cause is often defect in angle structures or persistence of Barkan’s membrane

144
Q

What is the outcome of buphthalmos?

A

Very poor

145
Q

Endothelial compromise in buphthalmos leads to what?

A

Corneal edema and scarring

146
Q

What happens if there is nerve fiber loss in buphthalmos?

A

Field loss

147
Q

Ocular albinism

A

Lack of pigmentation, normal development of sensory retina is influenced by melanin-related agent in RPE, absence of pigment causes retinal abnormalities are present, underdeveloped central retina, fewer rods

148
Q

Megalocornea

A

Cornea and anterior segment enlarged, may be associated with increased IOP

149
Q

Microcornea

A

11 or 12 mm, normal size globe, small cornea

150
Q

Mittendorf’s dot

A

Small area of tissue on the posterior lens, no visual implications

151
Q

Congenital cataract

A

Associated with genetic, metabolic, or infectious agents, viral infection of the mother during the first trimester, effect on VA depends on extent, visually debilitating cataracts, soft CL have been used successfully in infants and IOLs have been used in children as young as 3 years

152
Q

Bergmeister’s papilla

A

A remnant of the glial tissue of the hyaloids system, glial tissue projects from optic nerve head, no visual implications

153
Q

Optic nerve hypoplasia

A

Optic nerve fails to develop completely, fewer than normal number of axons, failure of ganglions to differentiation, failure of their axons to reach the optic stalk, often associated with CNS developmental problems or endocrine disorders, cognitive difficulties and multiple handicaps are common

154
Q

Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous

A

Failure of the hyaloid arterial system to regress, appears as a white retrolental mass, associated with angle closure glaucoma and cataract formation

155
Q

Persistent pupillary membrane

A

Remnant strands form the pupillary membrane, usually attached to collarette, no visual implications

156
Q

Aniridia

A

Failure of iris to form

157
Q

What are 3 congenital defects affecting the retina?

A

Myelinated or medullated nerve fibers, coloboma of internal structures, retinoblastoma

158
Q

Retinal coloboma

A

Ranges from insignificant chorioretinal defect to complete involvement of interfior retina and choroid, causes VF defect

159
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in childhood?

A

Retinoblastoma

160
Q

How frequent are retinoblastomas?

A

1:17,000- 1:34,000 live births per year, 350 new cases in US per year

161
Q

How does a retinoblastoma occur?

A

Can be dominantly inherited condition with poor or sporadic penetrance or a new genetic mutation, genetic counseling is mandatory

162
Q

Is retinoblastoma bilateral or unilateral?

A

Both, bilateral is always inherited

163
Q

Retinoblastoma tumor is often derived from malignant changes in _______

A

Photoreceptors

164
Q

What is the presenting sign of a retinoblastoma?

A

White pupillary reflex, the tumors appear as white mass, may seed into vitreous or anterior chamber

165
Q

What are treatment options for retinoblastoma?

A

Photocoagulation, cryotherapy or radiotherapy, chemotherapy

166
Q

Large tumors or optic nerve involvement require ________

A

Enucleation

167
Q

What are congenital defects affecting vasculature?

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome, retinopathy of prematurity

168
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

Nevus of skin of face (often called port-wine stain, ocular manifestations include hemangiomas of choroidal BV’s, may have diffuse leakage leading to retinal detachment

169
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity associated with?

A

Low birth weight and supplemental oxygen therap

170
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity

A

Exposure to UV light may be a factor, in premature infant retinal vasculature is poorly developed, fibrotic changes can lead to dragging of the nasal vessel temporarily causing retinaldetachment, 90% of the cases do not progress to this stage