Exam 3 L-Spine Flashcards

1
Q

is the cervical spine lordotic or kyphotic?

A

lordotic

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2
Q

is the thoracic spine lordotic or kyphotic?

A

kyphotic

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3
Q

is the lumbar spine lordotic or kyphotic?

A

lordotic

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4
Q

is the pelvis lordotic or kyphotic?

A

kyphotic

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5
Q

what are the primary curves of the spine?

A

thoracic and pelvic

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6
Q

what are the secondary curves of the spine?

A

cervical and lumbar

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7
Q

_______ curves are present at birth

A

primary

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8
Q

_______ curves develop after birth

A

secondary

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9
Q

where does the spinal cord begin and end?

A

begins at C2 and extends to L1 or L2

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10
Q

how many cervical nerves are there?

A

8 pair

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11
Q

how many thoracic nerves are there?

A

12 pair

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12
Q

how many lumar nerves are there?

A

5 pair

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13
Q

how many sacral nerves are there?

A

5 pair

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14
Q

how many coccygeal nerves are there?

A

1 pair

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15
Q

how many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

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16
Q

the conus medullaris is where

A

the spinal cord ends

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17
Q

where do spinal punctures enter?

A

subarachnoid space

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18
Q

what are the layers of the meninges?

A

dura matter, arachnoid, pia mater

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19
Q

strong fibrous membrane sheath

A

dura matter

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20
Q

thin transparent sheath

A

arachnoid

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21
Q

highly vascular & adheres to cord itself

A

pia mater

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22
Q

which way are the articular facets oriented on lumbar vertebrae?

A

parasagittally

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23
Q

what is a short thick process that extends posteriorly?

A

pedicle

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24
Q

what forms the zygapophyseal joints?

A

superior and inferior articular processes

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25
Q

what kind of joint is the zygapophyseal?

A

semi-moveable, amphiarthrodial

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26
Q

a bony defect occurring in the pars interarticularis
characterized by anterior displacement of one vertebrae over another
generally the L5 over the sacrum

A

spondylolysis

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27
Q

entire intervertebral disc pushing out towards spinal cord

A

bulging disc

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28
Q

nucleus pushing out towards spinal cord

A

herniated disc

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29
Q

where do you center for AP lumbar spine?

A

1.5 inches above iliac crest

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30
Q

what is at the level of the iliac crests

A

L4-L5 disc space

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31
Q

what needs to be included on AP lumbar spine?

A

T12 to SI joints

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32
Q

what might cause a radiolucent line across L2?

A

fracture (psoas muscle, bowel)

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33
Q

where do you center for a lateral lumbar spine?

A

1.5 inches above iliac crest

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34
Q

what breathing instructions do you give for a lateral lumbar spine?

A

breath all air out and hold, image on expiration to raise diaphragm

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35
Q

how should the CR be oriented for a lateral lumber spine?

A

perpendicular if spine if horizontal

36
Q

if spine is not horizontal on a lateral lumbar spine how should the CR be oriented?

A

angle 5-8 degrees caudal

37
Q

where should you center for L5-S1 spot projection?

A

center on coronal plane 2 inches posterior to ASIS and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest

38
Q

how should the CR be oriented for L5-S1 spot projection?

A

parallel with the interiliac line, 5 degrees caudal

39
Q

when imaging AP oblique lumbar spine which zygapophyseal joints are you looking at?

A

the ones closest to the IR

40
Q

where should you center and where should the CR be for oblique lumbar spine?

A

1.5 inches above the iliac crest and 2 inches medial to elevated ASIS

41
Q

when imaging AP oblique cervial spine which zygapophyseal joints are you looking at?

A

the ones furthest from the IR

42
Q

when imaging AP oblique thoracic spine which zygapophyseal joints are you looking at?

A

the ones furthest from the IR

43
Q

when imaging AP oblique SI joint which joint are you looking at?

A

the one furthest from the IR

44
Q

where should the pedicle be projected on AP oblique spine?

A

middle of vertebral body (the eye)

45
Q

if the pedicle (eye) is on the anterior portion of the vertebral body the patient is _____ rotated

A

under

46
Q

if the pedicle (eye) is on the posterior portion of the vertebral body the patient is _____ rotated

A

over

47
Q

how should the CR be oriented for AP axial Lumbosacral junction and SI joints?

A

centered 1.5 inches superior to pubic symphysis and angled 30-35 degrees cephalic

48
Q

what patient position for oblique SI joint and where does the CR enter?

A

elevate affected side 25-30 degrees and center 1 inch medial to elevated ASIS

49
Q

what does the PA projection (Chamberlain view) demonstrate? what images?

A

abnormal sacroiliac motion by showing the relationship of the pubic bones
2 PA projections with pt upright and altering weight bearing limbs
center to pubic symphysis

50
Q

how should the CR be oriented for AP sacrum?

A

centered 2 inches superior to pubic symphysis and angled 15 degrees cephalic

51
Q

how should the CR be oriented for AP coccyx?

A

center 2 inches superior to pubic symphysis and angled 10 degrees caudal

52
Q

what should you see on a lateral sacrum/coccyx image?

A

superimposition of ischia, short scale contrast

53
Q

how should the CR be oriented for lateral sacrum?

A

perpendicular and 3.5 inches posterior to the ASIS

54
Q

how should the CR be oriented for lateral coccyx?

A

perpendicular 2 inches inferior from sacrum centering (3.5 inches posterior to ASIS)

55
Q

what is it called when contrast media is injected into the subarachnoid space betwen L2-L3 or L3-L4?

A

myelogram

56
Q

what are the 3 peak categories of spinal column injuries?

A

C1-C2
C5-C7 (40% of injuries)
T12-L2

57
Q

lesions involving the thoracic vertebrae or below

A

paraplegia

58
Q

cervical lesions below C4. lesions above C4 will additionally lead to respiratory compromise from paralysis of the diaphragm

A

quadriplegia

59
Q

total loss of sensation and function below the level of injury

A

complete spinal cord injury

60
Q

partial loss of sensation below the level of injury

A

incomplete spinal cord injury

61
Q

most common age for spinal cord injuries

A

33

62
Q

most frequent age for spinal cord injuries

A

19

63
Q

more than 1/2 of spinal cord injures are

A

quadriplegia

64
Q

anterior wedging of vertebral body

A

flexion fracture

65
Q

results in small avulsion fractures of the anteroinferior or anterosuperior margin of the vertebral body

A

extension fracture

66
Q

burst-like fractures of the vertebral body with displacement of the fragments

A

compression fracture

67
Q

pulling-apart forces result in horizontal fractures through the neutral arch and posterior aspect of vertebral body

A

distraction fracture

68
Q

how many bones does the sacrum have?

A

5 bones

69
Q

how many bones does the coccyx have?

A

3-5 bones

70
Q

the average adolescent spine has ___ bones

A

33

71
Q

at what age are the spinal curves fully developed?

A

6

72
Q

congenital malformation of the spine in which only half of a vertebral body develops. developmental failure of one of the lateral vertebral chondrification centers

A

hemivertebrae

73
Q

congenital deformity of the vertebral column in which the laminae fail to unite posteriorly at the midline

A

spina bifida occulta “open spine”

74
Q

what is the mildest form of spina bifida?

A

spina bifida occulta

75
Q

what is the most severe type of spina bifida?

A

spina bifida myelomeningocele

76
Q

misalignment or partial dislocation; one or more vertebrae move out of position and create pressure on or irritate spinal nerves

A

vertebral subluxation

77
Q

a surgical procedure in which the lamina of the vertebra is removed or trimmed (spinous process is also removed)

A

laminectomy

78
Q

what is the reason for a laminectomy?

A

to relieve pressure on the spinal cord or on the nerve roots that emerge from the spinal canal

79
Q

__% of people’s cord ends at L1 or above
__% of people’s cord ends at L1-L2
__% of people’s cord ends at L3

A

3%
94%
3%

80
Q

excessive curvature in the lumbar portions of the spine which gives a swayback apperance

A

lordosis

81
Q

a curvature of the upper spine, a spinal deformity that can result from trauma, developmental problems, or degenerative disease, can occur at any age, rare at birth

A

kyphosis

82
Q

lateral or sideways curving of the spine

A

scoliosis

83
Q

problem with the formation of vertebrae or fused ribs during prenatal development

A

congenital scoliosis

84
Q

caused by muscular weakness or paralysis due to diseases

A

neuromuscular scoliosis

85
Q

unknown cause and appears in a previously straight spine

A

idiopathic scoliosis

86
Q

chronic inflammatory disease that causes arthritis of the spine and SI joints. it is a systemic rheumatic disease and can affect other joints and cause inflammation of the eyes lungs and kidneys
always manifest in SI joints first and then in the spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis

87
Q

herniations of the intervertebral disc through the vertebral end-plate caused by trauma

A

schmorl’s nodes