Exam 3 Genitourinary Surgery [7/15/24] Flashcards

1
Q

List the structures of the genitourinary system from the top to bottom.

A
  • Kidney
  • Ureter
  • Bladder
  • Urethra

additional info

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2
Q

What lab is the best measure of glomerular function?

A
  • GFR

S2

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3
Q
  • What is normal GFR?
  • When will patients become symptomatic?
A
  • 125 mL/min
  • Asymptomatic until a 50% drop

S2

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4
Q
  • What will be the result of moderate GFR insufficiency?
A
  • ↑ BUN/Creat
  • Anemia
  • Decreased energy

Moderate GFR is BAD

S2

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5
Q

What will be the result of severe GFR insufficiency?

A
  • Profound uremia (high levels of waste product in the blood)
  • Acidemia
  • Volume overload

S2

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6
Q

What is BUN?

A
  • Blood Urea Nitrogen
  • BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea.
  • Urea is produced when the body breaks down proteins from the food we eat.
  • The liver then processes this urea into nitrogen, which is eventually eliminated from the body through urine.

S2 - extra

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7
Q

What is a Normal BUN?

A
  • 8-18 mg/ dL

S2

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8
Q

What will influence the BUN level?

A
  • Exercise
  • Steroids
  • Dehydration

S2

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9
Q

BUN will not be elevated in the kidney disease until GFR is ____% of normal.

A
  • 75%

S2

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10
Q

What is Creatinine?

A
  • Creatinine is a waste product that comes from muscle metabolism.
  • It is produced at a relatively constant rate and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, then excreted through urine.

S2- ANDY

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11
Q

What is normal Creatinine?

A
  • 0.8 - 1.2 mg/dL
  • Varies with age & sex
  • Higher in men d/t more muscle mass

S2

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12
Q

What are the considerations during the preoperative evaluations of patients with Chronic Renal Failure?

A
  • Hypervolemia
    • ↑Na, ↑H2O)
  • Hyperkalemia (may live @ an elevated K+ level)
    • precipitated by hemorrhage, pulm edema, metabolic acidosis
  • Hematologic Symptoms
  • Cardiac/Pulmonary Symptoms
  • Acidosis
    • ↓ production of ammonia
    • Normal anion gap becomes elevated as disease progresses.

2Hyper Cats Had Acid

S3

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13
Q

Cardiac/Pulm symptoms that should be considered preoperatively for pts with CRF

A
  • HTN d/t renin-angiotensin system
  • May have:
    • atherosclerosis
    • pulmonary edema
    • ventricular hypertrophy

S3

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14
Q

Hematologic Symptoms that should be considered preoperatively for pts with CRF

A
  • normochromic (color), normocytic (size), iron deficient anemia
  • Abnormal platelet aggregation and prothrombin consumption

S3

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15
Q

Anesthesia Drug Effects in Patients with Renal Insufficiency

  • Because most anesthetic drugs are _________ soluble in a non-ionized state, termination doesn’t depend on ____.
  • What does it use instead?
  • How is it excreted?
A
  • Because most anesthetic drugs are lipid soluble in a non-ionized state, termination doesn’t depend on Renal Excretion.
  • Use redistribution and metabolism
  • Metabolite of these drugs are excreted as water-soluble compounds

S4

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16
Q

What are drugs of concern for patients with Renal Insufficiency?

A
  • Drugs that are highly ionized and eliminated unchanged in urine
    • H2 receptor blockers
    • Muscle relaxants (pancuronium)
    • Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine)
    • Thiazide diuretics
    • Many antibiotics
    • Active metabolites (morphine/meperidine/ketamine/midazolam)
    • Digoxin

Harmful Muscles Cant Take Many Active Drugs

S4

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17
Q

What is the active metabolite of morphine?

A
  • Morphine-6-glucuronide

S4-Andy

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18
Q

when would we want to implement renal protection?

A
  • patients with moderate insufficiency
  • Esp in cardiac/valve surgery
  • Sepsis, crush/burn injuries, toxins, NSAIDs

S5

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19
Q

what is the mortality rate of AKI?

A

50%

S5

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20
Q

What are things we can do for renal protection?

A
  • Adequate hydration
  • Maintenance of adequate RBF
  • Use of:
    • Mannitol
    • loop diuretic
    • low-dose dopamine
    • bicarbonate drips
    • fenoldopam
    • N-acetylcysteine

renal protection Might Look Dopey, But Feels Nice

S5

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21
Q

Indications for Urological Surgery

A
  • Direct visualization of urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney
    • Biopsies/evaluate bleeding
    • Retrograde pyelography
    • Laser/retrieve stones
    • Remove/treat stricture
    • Resect masses

S6

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22
Q

What position will the patient be in for Urological Surgery?

A
  • Lithotomy

S7

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23
Q

In the Lithotomy position, the stirrups can cause what type of nerve injury?

A
  • Peroneal Nerve Injury
  • Femoral Nerve Injury

S7

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24
Q

What other problems can occur besides nerve injuries in the Lithotomy position?

A
  • Skin breakdown d/t stirrup pressure
  • Hip dislocation
  • Finger injury
  • Back strains
  • Vessel compression (DVT, Compartment Syndrome, Venous Pooling)

S7

Remember to move both legs simultaneously to prevent torsion and injury to lower spine

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25
Q

Endoscopic evaluations (scope procedures) of the lower urinary tract can be done through which areas and are called what?

A
  • Through urethra (urethroscopy)
  • Through bladder (cystoscopy)
  • Through ureteral orifice (ureteroscopy)

S9

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26
Q

What are the two types of scopes used for urological procedures?

A
  • Flexible
  • Rigid (this scope to the ureter, it will stop in the bladder)

S9/10

ridged on left, flexible on right
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27
Q

Never use which type of scope in the ureters?

A

Rigid scope.

S9-lecture

Even if the surgery starts with a rigid scope, if they decide they need to look in the ureter, we will have to switch to a flexible scope.

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28
Q

How is a scope used for a urological procedure?

A
  • Scope hooked to irrigation system
  • Guid Wire is inserted through scope for catheter and instruments
  • Catheter/instruments placed over wire
  • Radiopaque dye injected through catheter

S9

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29
Q

Purpose of a urethroscopy/cystoscope.

A
  • Visualize the urethra and/or bladder d/t urinary symptoms
    • (Pain, burning, hematuria, difficult urination.)
  • Diagnose and Treat a lesion or stricture
    • dilate stricture, treat cystitis, stent placement, resect tumors).

S11

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30
Q

The procedure of choice for mid/distal ureter or bilateral stones?
What does it sometimes incorporate?

A
  • Ureteroscopy (flexible scope)
  • Can incorporate laser technology

S12

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31
Q
  • What percentage of men and women lifetime will experience ureter stones?
  • What is the recurrence percentage?
A
  • Men: 10%
  • Women: 5%
  • Recurrence: 50%

S12

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32
Q

characteristics of uretur stones

A

contain calcium and are radiopaque

S12

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33
Q

How are ureter stones diagnosed?

A
  • CT
  • KUB X-RAY
  • IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram)

S12

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34
Q

Complications of ureteroscopy are low.
What are the complications and their percentage of occurance?

A
  • Perforation: 5%
  • Stricture formation: < 2%

S12

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35
Q

What are some medical therapy for ureter stones?

A
  • MET (Medical Expulsive Therapy)
  • NSAIDs
  • Aggressive Fluid intake (↑ Water, ↑ Cranberry Juice)
  • CCB and alpha blockers to vasodilate
  • Surgery/ Procedures

S13

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36
Q

What are the choices for surgery/procedure for kidney stones?

A
  • Stone basket vs. Laser (preferred)
  • Shock Wave Lithotripsy
  • Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (least preferable)

S14

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37
Q

Shock wave Lithotripsy is best suited for ____ intranephric stones.

A
  • small/medium

S15

we worry about the pressure of those shock waves pounding on more than just the stone.

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38
Q

What is the risk for Shock Wave Lithotripsy (SWL)?

A
  • Risk of kidney injury or sub-capsular hematoma

S15

d/t shock waves hitting the kidney and/instead of the stone.

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39
Q

Compare the Old SWL vs New SWL.

A
  • Old SWL:
    • Water baths,
    • hypothermia,
    • painful
  • New SWL:
    • Water-filled coupler device,
    • more tightly focused beam,
    • decrease pressure pulse
    • less painful

S15

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40
Q
  • What are ABSOLUTE contraindications to SWL?
  • What are the relative CI to SWL?
A
  • Absoloute
    • Bleeding disorder/ anticoagulants
    • Pregnancy (we do not thump babies)
  • Relative contraindications:
    • Large calcified aortic/renal aneurysm,
    • untreated UTI,
    • Obstruction distal to renal calculi
    • Pacemaker, ICD, neurostimulator (waves are rhythmic)
    • Morbid Obesity.

S16

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41
Q

Preoperative anesthetic considerations for shock wave lithotripsy (SWL), stone basket, or laser therapy.

A
  • Single IV
  • Consider anxiolytics
  • Appropriate ABX within 1 hour “cut time”
  • Iodine Allergy- pretreat b/c lots of dye in these procedures

S17

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42
Q

Intraoperative anesthetic considerations for shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) , stone basket, or laser therapy.

A
  • Local vs. General (most people will be general)
  • LMA vs ETT
  • Minimal narcotics
  • Consider antiemeticc
  • Eye covering for laser (document!)
  • Lead for providers (cover breast, thyroid, sex organs, corneas)

S17

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43
Q

Postoperative anesthetic considerations for SWL, stone basket, or laser therapy.

A

pt usuallly go to PACU

S17

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44
Q

What procedure will be indicated for large intranephric stone removal?

A
  • Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy
  • however, uncommon d/t SWL

S18

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45
Q

Describe a percutaneous nephrolithotomy.

A
  • Minimally-invasive procedure to remove stones from the kidney by a small puncture wound through the skin.
  • The procedure will require initial stent placement of ureteral stents to prevent obstruction as the fragment passes
  • Uses Larger amounts of fluoroscopy
  • Transurethral Resection (TUR) syndrome possible

S18

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46
Q

Preoperative anesthetic considerations for percutaneous nephrolithotomy.

A
  • Single PIV
  • Consider anxiolytics
  • Appropriate ABX within 1 hour “cut time”

S19

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47
Q

Intraoperative anesthetic considerations for percutaneous nephrolithotomy.

A
  • General ETT
  • Short-acting NMBD’s
  • Lateral position (bean bag, pillows)
  • Lead apron for provider
  • Eye covering for laser (document!)

S19

48
Q

postoperative anesthetic considerations for percutaneous nephrolithotomy

A

pts usually go to PACU

S19

49
Q

What are 3 scrotal operations disccused in lecture?

A
  • orchiectomy
  • hydroelectomy
  • testicular torsion

S20

50
Q

What is an orchiectomy?

A
  • Orchiectomy is a surgical procedure in which one or both testicles are removed.
  • Almost always bilateral
  • Spermatic cord is clamped, cut, and sutured
  • Usually in younger males with tumor or metastatic prostate cancer.

S20

51
Q

What is a Hydrocelectomy?

A
  • Hydrocelectomy is surgery to remove a hydrocele.
  • A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac inside the scrotum.
  • Wall of hydrocele excised and edges sutured to prevent recurrence.

S20

52
Q

Testicular torsion surgery must be performed within ____ hours to prevent irreversible ischemia.

A
  • 6 hours

S20

53
Q

What are 4 penile operations disscused in lecture?

A
  • circumcision
  • hypospadius repair
  • penectomy
  • penile prosthesis

S21

54
Q

What are the reasons for circumcision in older males?

A
  • Phimosis (tight foreskin)
  • Penile/ prostate cancer risk

S21

55
Q

What is hypospadias?

A
  • Birth defect in boys in which the opening of the urethra is not located at the tip of the penis.

S21- Andy

56
Q

What is a Penectomy?

A
  • Removal of squamous cell carcinoma on the penis
  • may include inguinal lymph node biopsy

S21

57
Q

What population group would seek a penile prosthesis discussed in the lecture?

A
  • Diabetic patients
  • Spinal cord injury patients

S21

58
Q

Anesthetic considerations for scrotal and penile operations.

A
  • Preop anxiolytics
  • General: ETT vs LMA
  • SCIP (take care with prosthesis touching skin before insertion)
  • Supine
  • Penile Block (S2-S4)
  • Manipulation of genitals —vagal bradycardia, have glycopyrrolate ready

S22

59
Q

What is a Cystectomy?

A
  • Surgical removal of all or part of the urinary bladder. (usually for cancer)

S23 Andy

60
Q
  • What are the indications for cystectomy?
  • What do they require?
A
  • Simple-benign conditions
    • hemorrhagic cystitis, radiation cystitis
  • Radical - malignant conditions
    • invasice bladder cancer
    • includes removal of ureters, prostate, uterus, ovaries
  • Requires ileal conduit or bladder substitution

S24

61
Q

Preoperative anesthetic considerations for cystectomy.

A
  • Risk factors for CAD or pulmonary disease, CXR? (older patients)
  • Anticoagulant use? EKG.
  • Bowel prep likely

S25

62
Q

Intraoperative anesthetic considerations for cystectomy.

A
  • GETA, SAB, epidural
  • SCIP
  • Supine

S25

63
Q

What are common complications of cystectomy?

A
  • Blood loss: up to 3L
    • 1-2 PIV, type and crossmatch blood
  • 3rd space losses d/t open belly
  • Hypothermia
    • Use Bair Hugger or underbody water blankets

S25

64
Q

What is a TURP?

A
  • Transurethral Resection of Prostate
  • Surgical procedure that involves cutting away a section of the prostate using a laser or electrocautery.
  • Usually done on elderly patients to treat BPH, the gold standard

S26/27

65
Q

When would a TURP be performed?

A
  • performed after failure of medical therapy and recurrent symptoms
  • need for open resection?

S27

66
Q

What is the estimated blood loss of a TURP?

A
  • 100-200ml
  • 2-4 ml/min [andy]

S27

67
Q

What comorbidities will patients receiving a TURP procedure have?

A
  • Patients are generally in their 50-60’s:
    • Obesity
    • HTN
    • CAD
    • family history
    • Chronic Renal Insufficiency
  • men over 80 y/o > 90% affected

S28

68
Q

Preoperative anesthetic considerations for TURP?

A
  • Consider comorbidities
  • Consider if the patient is on anticoagulants
  • Large bore IV (18G or 16G)

S29

69
Q

Intraoperative anesthetic considerations for TURP?

A
  • General/ SAB (textbook: perform a SAB)
  • Lithotomy
  • Possible transfusion
  • TUR syndrome- w/ scope, we usually don’t have time for this to develop

S29

The reason why you want to perform a SAB for a TURP is to assess for TUR Syndrome. You can assess when a patient begins to become confused versus being under general anesthesia.

70
Q

What is TUR syndrome?

A
  • Symptoms r/t hypervolemic water intoxication d/t irrigation into now open vascular beds
  • Excessive volume expansion through venous sinuses
  • results in Hyponatremia

S30

71
Q

What are CNS and EKG changes with a serum Na+ level of 120 mEq/L?

A
  • CNS changes
    • Confusion
    • Restlessness
  • EKG changes
    • Widening of QRS

S30

72
Q

What are CNS and EKG changes with a serum Na+ level of 115 mEq/L?

A
  • CNS changes:
    • Somnolence
    • Nausea
  • EKG changes
    • Elevated ST segments
    • Widened QRS

S30

73
Q

What are CNS and EKG changes with a serum Na+ level of 110 mEq/L?

A
  • CNS changes:
    • Seizure
    • Coma
    • Death
  • EKG changes
    • V-tach
    • V-fib

S30

74
Q
  • What are the types of irrigants used in TURP?
  • What are considerations for them?
A
  • Saline- volume overload, current dispersion with monopolar cautery
  • Glycine- metabolized in liver to ammonia
  • Water- intravascular hemolysis
  • Sorbitol- metabolized to CO2 and fructose, volume overload

S31

75
Q
  • What is the irrigation rate for a TURP?
  • What is the absorption rate of irrigation fluid for a TURP?
A
  • Irrigation rate: 300 ml/min
  • Absorption rate: 20 to 200 ml/min
  • in 20min (@100mL/min), we get 2L of fluid absorption…

S32

76
Q

Greater than ____ (volume) of irrigation fluid absorption is usually required for TUR syndrome.

A
  • Greater than 2 Liters

S32

77
Q

How do you prevent TUR syndrome?

A
  • Limit resection time to 1 hour
  • Suspend the irrigation fluid < 30 cm above the table
  • Treat hypotension for SAB with vasopressors NOT IVF.

S33

78
Q

Treatment of TUR Syndrome (Mild vs Severe)

A
  • ABC’s
  • Stop the procedure
  • Consider invasive lines…for cardiovascular instability
  • For Mild symptoms (Na > 120): Fluid restriction and Loop diuretics
  • Severe symptoms (Na < 120): 3% IV saline

S34

79
Q

What are anesthetic considerations to take into account for robotic prostatectomy?

A
  • Insertion of an arterial line (we want to watch the blood pressure d/t to lack of fluid).
  • Phenylephrine drip
  • LIMIT IV fluids (<500cc)

S35

80
Q

What is a nephrectomy?

A
  • Surgical removal of a kidney, performed to treat several kidney diseases.

S36

81
Q
  • How many nephrectomies are performed each year?
  • Complication rate and complications?
A
  • 50,000 nephrectomies/yr
  • 20% post-op compilation rate
  • Complications: ** MAP HPV **
    • mortality
    • acute renal failure
    • peritonitis
    • Hernia
    • Hemorrhage
    • Pneumothorax
    • Visceral injury

S37

82
Q

What are the types of nephrectomy procedures?

A
  • Simple: Irreversible non-malignant disease (autoimmune), trauma, congenital disease (Polycystic Kidney disease)
  • Radical: Renal cell carcinoma, kidneys and adrenal glands removed
  • Donor

S38

83
Q

Positioning of nephrectomies is usually?

A

lateral decubitus with kidney rest and bed flexed.

S39

84
Q

Nephrectomies are commonly associated with these conditions.

A
  • CAD
  • CRI/ESRD
  • HTN

S40

85
Q

Preoperative anesthetic considerations for nephrectomy.

A
  • Anxiolytics
  • SCIP
  • Type/Screen or Type/Cross
  • 2 large bore IV

S40

86
Q

Intraoperative anesthetic considerations for nephrectomy.

A
  • GETA: avoid nitrous
  • Consider an arterial line
  • Consider a central line: Ipsilateral to the surgical site or large bore RIC line
  • Consider regional anesthesia for postop pain
  • Have these items available: Colloids, Blood, Rapid transfusion set up, mannitol, furosemide

S41

87
Q

Nephrectomies can possibly have what?

A

Vena Cava Tumor Thrombi

S42

88
Q

Which kidney has a long ureter and longer vascular supply?

A
  • Left Kidney, so we usually take this kidney if we have a choice.

S43 lecture

89
Q

What arteries and veins do transplanted kidneys attach to?

A
  • Transplanted kidneys are attached to the common iliac vein and artery

S43 lecture

90
Q

Do you re-anastomose the vein, artery, or ureter first in a kidney transplant?

A
  • Re-anastomose the vein first, then the artery, then the ureter.

S43 lecture

91
Q

What fraction of all nephrectomies are living donor nephrectomies?

A
  • one-third

S44

92
Q

What are the benefits of receiving a kidney from a living donor?

A
  • No physiological alterations compared to Donations after brain death or cardiac death donor.
  • Waiting times avoided
  • Decreases cold ischemic times

S44

93
Q

What are the parameters of being a living donor?

A
  • Healthy
  • Two Kidneys
  • No DM, HIV, Liver Disease, Cancer

S44

94
Q

Anesthesia Considerations for the Living Kidney Transplantation.

A
  • Similar to simple nephrectomy (anesthesia-wise)
    -Starts a couple of hours before recipient
    -Left kidney preferred
  • Aggressive isotonic hydration (10-20 ml/kg/hr)
  • Kidney needs low-level anticoagulation (5000u of heparin)
    -Protamine reversal (50 mg)
  • Need diuresis
    -Furosemide, mannitol to maintain 2 ml/kg/hr
       SKAN for the living donor

S45

95
Q

What physiological alterations/instability will occur in DBD?

A

Neurological, cardiac, pulmonary, and metabolic instability

S46

96
Q

What neurological instability will occur with brain death?

A
  • neurologic instability happens in hours to days
  • Cushing’s sign: HTN, bradycardia, wide pulse pressure
  • Catastrophic ICP elevation

S46

97
Q

What cardiac instability will occur with brain death?

A
  • Massive release of catecholamines
  • Acute MI (40% occurrence)
  • Cardiovascular collapse (catecholamines run out, massive dilation)

S46

98
Q

What pulmonary instability will occur with brain death?

A
  • Neurogenic pulmonary edema
  • SIRS [Systemic inflammatory response syndrome]

S46

99
Q

What metabolic instability will occur with brain death?

A
  • Dysfunction of the hypothalamus and pituitary systems
  • Thermoregulation, hormones, insulin, electrolytes, DIC

S46

100
Q

Anesthesia Considerations for the Cadaver Donors.

A
  • Don’t need anesthetic….need stabilization until retrieval
  • Maintain hemodynamics with short-acting agents [vaso, levo/neo, dopamine, dobutamine]
  • Significant bradycardia not responsive to anticholinergics…use isuprel [isoproterenol]
  • Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids and PRBC’s
  • Avoid glucose-containing solutions, can metabolize and become a hypotonic solution
  • PEEP/lung protective ventilation: 6-8 ml/kg of ideal body weight and 5-10cm PEEP
  • Steroids to attenuate immune response (in recipient)
    (Stabilize PASSCI)

S47

101
Q

Donor Management Goals:
CVP

A
  • 4-10 mmHg
  • 6-8 mmHg for lung transplant

S48

102
Q

Donor Management Goals:
MAP

A
  • 60-120 mmHg

S48

103
Q

Donor Management Goals:
PaO2

A
  • > 300 mmHg on 5cm PEEP on 100% O2

S48

104
Q

Donor Management Goals:
PaCO2

A
  • 35-45 mmHg

S48

105
Q

Donor Management Goals:
ABG pH

A
  • 7.35-7.45

S48

106
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Urine Output

A
  • Greater than 1 mL/kg/hr

S48

107
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Sodium

A
  • 135-160 mEq/L

S48

108
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Glucose

A
  • less than 150

S48

109
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Ejection Fraction

A
  • > 50%

S48

110
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Hemoglobin

A
  • > 9

S48

111
Q

Donor Management Goals:
Pressors

A

1 and low dose

S48

112
Q

Ischemic time for kidney

A
  • 48-72 hours

S49

113
Q

What happens to the donor kidney during ischemia?

A
  • Lack of O2
  • Depletion of ATP/glycogen
  • Failure of Na/K Pump
  • Increase intracellular sodium….edema

S49

114
Q

What are preop evaluations for the kidney recipient?

A
  • Need to know last dialysis and K+ level
  • Diabetic (blood sugar, insulin)
  • 40% have CAD, and most have HTN (EKG, Heart Cath)
  • If PCKD, is nephrectomy concurrent? (Consider positioning)

PCKD = Polycystic kidney disease?

S50

115
Q

Intraoperative consideration for kidney transplantation.

A
  • GETA, may use Anectine if K+ appropriate
  • Consider cisatracurium (not cleared by liver or kidney)
  • Supine; watch AV access
  • CVP/art line…..STERILE. Pt will be on immunosuppressants.
  • Donor anastomoses to recipient (vein, artery, ureter)
  • Steroids, mannitol, lasix, bumex, antithymocyte, albumin
  • Extubate on table…to ICU (D/C next day)

S51

116
Q

What is an anti-thymocyte?

A
  • Infusion of rabbit-derived antibodies against human T cells to prevent/treat acute rejection

S52

117
Q

What is the side effect of an anti-thymocyte?
Treatment?

A
  • Cytokine release syndrome: high-grade fevers (over 39C), chills, and possibly rigors.
  • Treatment:
    • steroids (normally methylprednisolone)
    • diphenhydramine 25–50 mg
    • acetaminophen 650 mg

S52