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knes b LECT > Exam 3 Final > Flashcards

Exam 3 Final Flashcards

1
Q

Nervous System: releases neurotransmitters

A
  • Molecules: neurotransmitters released in response to nerve impulses that bind to receptors on target cells but act as local messengers
  • Site of action: close to site of release (at synapse) and binds to receptors on postsynaptic membrane
  • Types of target cells: muscle cells, gland cells, other neurons
  • Time to onset of action: within milliseconds
  • Duration of action: very fast (milliseconds)
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2
Q

Endocrine System: releases hormones

A
  • Molecules: hormones delivered to tissues through body by blood
  • Site of action: far from site of release and binds to receptors on or in target cells
  • Types of target cells: all cells throughout body
  • Time to onset of action: seconds, hours, or days
  • Duration of action: longer (seconds to days) because hormones have to manipulate target cells = effects take longer
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3
Q

Gland

A

single cell or mass of epithelial cells that specialize in secretion

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4
Q

Endocrine glands

A

secretes hormones that enter the interstitial fluid and diffuses into the bloodstream

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5
Q

Exocrine glands

A

don’t usually secrete hormones but secretes other substances that enter ducts that empty to the surface of a covering such as skin surface or the lumen of the stomach

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6
Q

Unicellular glands + goblet cells

A
  • single cells
  • produces mucin (mucin +water ⇒ mucus that protects and lubricates internal body surfaces) and is an exocrine gland
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7
Q

Multicellular glands

A

many cells that form distinctive microscopic structures or macroscopic organ

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8
Q

Hormone action in lipid-soluble hormones

A
  • Circulates around blood using transport proteins because they’re hydrophobic
  • Lipid-soluble hormones diffuses into target cells and does not need to bind to receptors on cell membrane because it travels through hydrophobic part of cell membrane
  • Binds to nucleus receptors that can alter gene expression that makes for a protein, thereby altering cell activity
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9
Q

Hormone action in water-soluble hormones

A
  • Circulates around blood freely with no need for transport proteins
  • Binds to receptors in target cells that’s attached to cell membrane protein that’s connected to change-inducing messenger
    • bind to G protein-coupled receptors on target cells activating enzymes such as adenylyl cyclase and cAMP which ultimately phosphorylate existing proteins leading to their activation
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10
Q

Hypothalamus and pituitary gland

A

work together to control other endocrine glands and connected by infundibulum

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11
Q

What hormones do the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland’s anterior lobe secrete? (7)

A
  • growth hormone (GH)
  • thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • prolactin
  • adrenocorticotropic hormone
  • melanocyte-stimulating hormone
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12
Q

Growth hormone (GH)

A

secretes insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) = promotes growth of body tissue by acting directly on target cells to enhance lipolysis and decrease glucose uptake

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13
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones by thyroid gland

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14
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A
  • Females: starts development of oocytes and induces ovarian secretion of estrogen
  • Male: stimulates testes to produce sperm
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15
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A
  • Females: stimulates secretion of estrogens and progesterone (builds wall of uterus), ovulation, and formation of corpus luteum (yellow body)
  • Males: stimulates testes to produce testosterone (primary sex hormone)
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16
Q

Prolactin

A

promotes milk production by mammary glands

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17
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

stimulates secretion of glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol) by adrenal cortex

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18
Q

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

A

produces pigmentation of skin when activated by UV light, suppresses appetite, and contributes to sexual arousal

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19
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus and pituitary gland’s posterior lobe secrete? (2)

A
  • Antidiuretic hormone
  • Oxytocin
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20
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

Increases facultative reabsorption of water, which decreases osmolarity of body fluids

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21
Q

Oxytocin

A
  • Mother’s uterus: enhances contractions
  • Mother’s breasts: stimulates milk ejection by mammary glands in response to suckling
  • released in response to stretch on cervix during childbirth
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22
Q

What cells make up the thyroid gland and their corresponding hormones? (2)

A
  • follicular cells: Triiodothyronine and thyroxine hormones / thyroid hormones
  • parafollicular cells: calcitonin
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23
Q

Follicular cells

A

stimulated by TSH to produce thyroxine and triiodothyronine (thyroid hormones)

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24
Q

Triiodothyronine and thyroxine (thyroid hormones)

A
  • Help maintain normal body temp
  • increase basal metabolic rate
  • stimulate synthesis of proteins
  • increase ATP production
  • accelerate body growth
  • contribute to development of nervous system
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25
Q

Parafollicular cells

A

produces hormone calcitonin to help regulate calcium homeostasis

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26
Q

Calcitonin

A

lowers blood lvls of Ca2+ and HPO42+ by inhibiting bone resorption by osteoclasts vs. accelerating uptake of calcium and phosphates into bone extracellular matrix

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27
Q

What two cells make up the parathyroid gland?

A
  • chief cells
  • oxyphil cells
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28
Q

Chief cells

A

produce parathyroid hormone (PTH) that’s released when calcium lvls are low ⇒ increases Ca2+ reabsorption by kidneys, promotes calcitriol formation, increases bone resorption

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29
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

increases Ca2+ reabsorption by kidneys ⇒ promotes calcitriol formation ⇒ increases bone resorption

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30
Q

Oxyphil cells

A

secretes excess PTH in cases of parathyroid cancer

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31
Q

The adrenal gland is divided into 2 regions, what are they?

A
  • inner medulla
  • outer cortex
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32
Q

The outer cortex of the adrenal gland is divided into 4 regions, what are they from superficial to deep and what do they each secrete?

A
  • Zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids
  • Zona fasciculata: Glucocorticoids
  • Zona reticularis: Androgens
  • Adrenal medulla: Epinephrine / Norepinephrine
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33
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A
  • increases blood lvls of Na+ and water
  • decrease blood lvl of K+
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34
Q

Glucocorticoids

A
  • upregulate expression of anti-inflammatory proteins
  • regulates blood glucose lvls by stimulating gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
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35
Q

Androgens

A
  • helps in early growth of axillary and pubic hair in both sexes
  • Females: contribute to libido and source of estrogens after menopause
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36
Q

Epinephrine / Norepinephrine

A

increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles ⇒ increase breathing rate ⇒ bronchodilation

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37
Q

What does the pineal gland secrete? What does that do?

A

Melatonin: regulate body’s biological clock

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38
Q

What does the thymus produce and what do they do?

A
  • produces thymosin, thymic humoral factor, thymic factor, and thymopoietin
  • all promote maturation of immune system’s T cells
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39
Q

What are the pancreatic islet hormones and what are they secreted by? (4)

A
  • glucagon: secreted by alpha cells
  • insulin: secreted by beta cells
  • somatostatin: secreted by delta cells
  • pancreatic polypeptide: secreted by F cells
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40
Q

Glucagon: secreted from alpha cells

A

raises blood glucose lvl by accelerating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

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41
Q

Insulin: secreted from beta cells

A

lowers blood glucose lvl by accelerating glycogenesis ⇒ increasing lipogenesis and stimulating protein synthesis

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42
Q

Somatostatin: secreted from delta cells

A

inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon ⇒ slows absorption of nutrients from GI tract

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43
Q

Pancreatic polypeptide: secreted from F cells

A

inhibits somatostatin secretion, gallbladder contraction, and secretion of digestive enzymes

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44
Q

What is the impact of insulin/glucagon on blood glucose lvls (controlled by negative feedback)? What are the three conditions you can get?

A
  • hyperglycemia (chronic high blood glucose)
  • Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
  • Type 2 Diabetes mellitus
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45
Q

hyperglycemia (chronic high blood glucose)

A
  • due to improper insulin secretion or insulin insensitivity
  • Insufficient release of insulin and/or insulin resistance ⇒ increased glucagon release ⇒ increasing blood glucose lvls
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46
Q

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

A

autoimmune disease characterized by destruction of beta cells ⇒ little or no insulin secretion

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47
Q

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance; target cells don’t respond to insulin normally

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48
Q

What are the growth factors? (5)

A
  • epidermal growth factor (EGF)
  • platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
  • fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
  • nerve growth factor (NGF)
  • tumor angiogenesis factors (TAFs)
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49
Q

Epidermal growth factor (EGF): Secreted by salivary glands

A
  • Stimulates proliferation of epithelial cells, neurons, neuroglia
  • Suppresses cancer cells
  • Secretion of gastric juice by stomach
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50
Q

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF): produced in blood platelets

A
  • stimulates proliferation of neuroglia, smooth muscle fibers, and fibroblasts
  • helps with wound healing
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51
Q

Fibroblast growth factor (FGF): found in pituitary gland and brain

A
  • stimulates proliferation of smooth muscle fibers, chondrocytes, endothelial cells
  • stimulates formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis)
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52
Q

Nerve growth factor (NGF): produced in salivary glands and hippocampus of brain

A
  • Stimulates growth of ganglia in embryo
  • Maintains sympathetic nervous system
  • Stimulates hypertrophy
  • Stimulates neuron differentiation
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53
Q

Tumor angiogenesis factors (TAFs): produced by tumor cells

A
  • stimulates growth of new capillaries/blood vessels, organ regeneration, and wound healing
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54
Q

Pituitary gigantism / Acromegaly

A

caused by excess secretion of growth hormone ⇒ overgrowth of hands, face, and feet

55
Q

Goiter

A

caused by reduction or overproduction of thyroid hormone ⇒ difficulty breathing and swallowing

56
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

caused by insufficient thyroid hormone ⇒ depression, weight gain, cold intolerance

57
Q

Graves disease

A

caused by excess thyroid hormone ⇒ irritability, muscle weakness, heat intolerance

58
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

caused by excess secretion of glucocorticoids ⇒ abdominal obesity, fragile skin that heals slowly, weak muscles and bones

59
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

carries sperm produced within them (spermatogenesis) out of testes

60
Q

Spermatogenesis

A
  • begins with spermatogonia (diploid cells) that differentiate into diploid primary spermatocytes
  • Primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis 1 to become two secondary spermatocytes (haploid) ⇒ meiosis 2 takes place and secondary spermatocytes become four spermatids
61
Q

Sperm

A
  • designed to reach and penetrate secondary oocyte to achieve fertilization and create zygote
  • head covered by acrosome that has enzymes to help with penetration
  • middle piece has mitochondira that make ATP for locomotion of sperm
  • end tail and principal piece for movement
62
Q

Ducts system structures and functions?

A
  • efferent ducts: carries sperm to epididymis
  • epididymis: where sperm matures and degenerated sperm reabsorbed + propels sperm to vas deferens
  • vas deferens: sperm exits to pelvis
  • spermatic cord: ascends out of scrotum
  • urethra: where semen and urine passes through
63
Q

What are the glands of the male reproductive system?

A
  • seminal vesicles
  • prostate
  • bulbourethral (cowper’s) glands
  • semen
  • penis
64
Q

Seminal vesicles glands

A

secrete alkaline, viscous fluid containing fructose, prostaglandins and proteins

65
Q

Prostate gland

A

secretes milky, slightly acidic fluid containing citric acid cycle, enzymes and acid phosphatase, promotes tail movement

66
Q

Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands

A

secretes alkaline fluid during sexual arousal that neutralizes acids from urine

67
Q

Semen

A

mixture of sperm and seminal fluid

68
Q

Penis

A
  • has glans: head of penis covered by prepuce
  • contains urethra, passageway for semen and urine
69
Q

What are the hormones that control testicular function? (5)

A
  • gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
  • luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • testosterone
  • dihydrotestosterone
70
Q

What happens during puberty for males and GnRH is released?

A
  • gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) ⇒ that stimulates cells in anterior pituitary gland to produce luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulated hormone (FSH)
    • Luteinizing hormone (LH): stimulates cells in testes to produce testosterone
    • Follicle stimulated hormone (FSH): stimulates spermatogenesis
71
Q

Testosterone and Dihydrotestosterone

A
  • Prenatal development
  • Male sexual characteristics
  • Development of sexual function
  • Stimulation of anabolism
72
Q

What does the Ovaries produce?

A

Produces gametes (mature into ova) and hormones (progesterone, estrogens, inhibin, relaxin)

73
Q

What are the main structures of the ovaries? (6)

A
  • Germinal epithelium: covers surface of ovary
  • Tunica albuginea: capsule of dense irregular connective tissue below germinal epithelium
  • Ovarian cortex: has ovarian follicles and stromal cells
  • Ovarian medulla: has connective tissue, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves
  • Ovarian follicles: has oocytes in various stages of development, follicular cells, granulosa cells
  • Corpus luteum: develops after ovulation when empty follicle produces progesterone, estrogen, relaxin
74
Q

What is the main function of the Uterus and what are its 3 layers (outer –> inner)

A
  • Where fertilized ovum will implant
  • perimetrium
  • myometrium (has 3 layers of smooth muscle)
  • endometrium
75
Q

Endometrium

A
  • has Stratum functionalis layer shed every month during menstruation
  • Stratum basalis layer is permanent and gives rise to new stratum functionalis after each menstruation
76
Q

Vagina

A
  • has Muscularis: composed of outer circular layer and inner longitudinal layer of smooth muscle ⇒ allows vaginal stretch during intercourse and childbirth
  • has Hymen: thin fold of vascularized mucous membrane that partially closes inferior end of vagina
77
Q

What are the glands of the female reproductive system? (4)

A
  • paraurethral (skene’s) glands: secretes mucus
  • greater vestibular (bartholin’s) glands: produces mucus during sexual arousal to provide lubrication
  • bulb of vestibule: has 2 masses of erectile tissue that engorges during sexual arousal to narrow vaginal orifice ⇒ applies pressure to penis during intercourse
  • mammary glands: produces milk (nipple has lactiferous ducts where milk emerges)
78
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

changes that occur during and after maturation of oocyte

79
Q

Uterine cycle

A

changes in endometrium that prepare it for implantation of developing embryo

80
Q

What are the hormones involved in the female reproductive cycle?

A
  • estrogen
  • inhibin
  • relaxin
  • progesterone
81
Q

Estrogen

A
  • promotes development and maintenance of female reproductive structures and secondary sex characteristics
  • increases protein anabolism
  • lowers blood cholesterol
  • stimulates proliferation of stratum functionalis after menstruation occurs
  • if released in moderate lvls ==> stops release of GnRH, FSH, LH
82
Q

inhibin

A
  • stops release of FSH ==> stops development of oocytes and induces ovarian secretion of estrogen
83
Q

Relaxin

A
  • Inhibits contractions of uterine smooth muscle
  • During labor, increases flexibility of pubic symphysis and dilates uterine cervix
84
Q

Progesterone

A
  • Stimulates endometrial glands to secrete glycogen and lipids, which serve as initial source for fertilized egg if implantation occurs
  • If released in high lvls ==> stops release of GnRH, FSH, and LH
85
Q

Ovarian Cycle Step-by-Step: maturation of follicle and egg

A
  • GnRH released by hypothalamus ⇒ stimulates anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
  • FSH stimulates growth of follicle
  • Follicle grows and secretes estrogen, by now FSH release is stops
  • Estrogen stimulates anterior pituitary to release one last high surge of LH to finish the job of maturing the follicle
  • Mature follicle with oocyte pushes against ovary wall, ruptures, and breaches wall to inject oocyte
  • Damaged follicle becomes corpus luteum
  • Corpus luteum secretes high levels of progesterone, moderate levels of estrogen, relaxin, and inhibin
    • High levels of progesterone: inhibits release of GnRH, FSH, LH
    • Moderate levels of estrogen: inhibits release of GnRH, FSH, LH
    • Relaxin: inhibits contracts of uterine smooth muscle
    • Inhibin: inhibits release of FSH
86
Q

Uterine cycle Step-by-Step: prepares uterus to capture and nourish any mature fertilized egg

A
  • Menstrual phase: corpus luteum release of progesterone and estrogen decreases to become corpus albican ⇒ shedding of stratum functionalis
  • Proliferation phase: high levels of FSH and LH stimulates next round of follicles that increase estrogen secretion
  • Secretory phase: new growing follicles release estrogen and progesterone ⇒ maintains vascularity in stratum functionalis
  • Rising estrogen levels and growing follicles stimulates regeneration of endometrium to make it vascularized and a habitat for potential fertilized egg
  • When next new egg is released in wall ⇒ post ovulatory phase begins when ruptured follicle forms and corpus luteum begins
    • If no fertilization occurs: corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone ⇒ doesn’t maintain stratum functionalis nor stimulate endometrial glands to secrete nutrient for fertilized egg for implantation ⇒ menstruation occurs and stratum functionalis is shed
    • If fertilization occurs: corpus luteum continues to secrete progesterone ⇒ maintains stratum functionalis and stimulates endometrial glands to secrete nutrient for fertilized egg
      • Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) maintains corpus luteum
87
Q

What are the birth control methods? (3)

A
  • surgical sterilization methods (vasectomy, tubal ligation, non-incisional sterilization)
  • hormonal methods
  • intrauterine devices (IUDs)
88
Q

What are the surgical sterilization methods: intervention to render person incapable of reproduction? (3)

A
  • Vasectomy: for males, removes portion of vas deferens
  • Tubal ligation: for females, ties closed and cuts uterine (fallopian) tubes
  • Non-incisional sterilization: inserts coil made of plastic and metal to each uterine tube then scar tissue grows and blocks tubes
89
Q

hormonal methods

A

oral contraceptives that stop pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation or thickening of cervical mucous

90
Q

intrauterine devices (IUDs)

A

contains hormones or copper toxic to sperm

91
Q

Fertilization process Step-by-Step

A
  • enzymes of sperm’s acrosome and tail movement allows sperm to penetrate corona radiata
  • membrane proteins on sperm head bind to ZP3 receptor in zona pellucida
  • acrosomal enzymes releases ==> makes path in zona pellucida to penetrate oocyte/egg
92
Q

Fertilization

A
  • merging of genetic information from haploid sperm and haploid secondary oocyte
93
Q

Cleavage

A

series of mitotic division that the zygote undergoes after fertilization

94
Q

Blastomeres

A

smaller cells yielded after each mitotic division that the zygote undergoes after fertilization

95
Q

Morula

A
  • cluster of cells that resembles mulberry
  • surrounded by zona pellucida
  • still the size of the zygote
96
Q

What is a Blastocyst and its 2 different cell populations?

A
  • rearranged blastomeres into a large, fluid filled blastocyst cavity/mass
  • embryoblast (inner cell mass): develops into embryo
  • trophoblast (outer cell mass): develops into outer chorionic sac that surrounds fetus and fetal portion of placenta
97
Q

What is the Chorion and what are its functions?

A
  • made of extraembryonic mesoderm and trophoblast that surrounds embryo
  • Blocks antibody production by mother
  • Promotes production of T-lymphocytes ⇒ suppresses immune response in uterus
  • Produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
98
Q

What are the 4 stages of the sensory pathway?

A
  • Stimulation: any event that triggers specific physiological rxn in organ or tissue
  • Transduction: process of converting sensory signal to electrical nerve signal process by CNS
  • Sensation: conscious or subconscious awareness of changes in external or internal environment
  • Perception: conscious interpretation of sensations performed mainly by cerebral cortex
99
Q

What are the different classifications of sensory receptors by microscopic structures?

A
  • free nerve endings: pain, thermal, tickle, itch, some touch sensations
  • encapsulated nerve endings: pressure, vibration, some touch sensations
  • separate cells: receptor cells synapse with first-order sensory neurons in retina of eye, inner ear, tongue’s taste buds
100
Q

What are the different classifications of sensory receptors by receptor location

A
  • exteroceptors: sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body - hearing, vision, smell, taste, touch, vibration, pain
  • interceptors: any internal environment changes and impulses aren’t usually perceived but can be felt as pain or pressure
  • proprioceptors: any changes to body position, muscle length, tension and position of movement joints
101
Q

What are the different classifications of sensory receptors by type of stimulus detected? (5)

A
  • mechanoreceptors: detects mechanical stimuli - touch, pressure, vibration, proprioception, hearing, equilibrium, and stretching of blood vessels and internal organs
  • thermoreceptors: detects temp changes
  • nociceptors: detects painful stimuli from physical or chemical damage to tissue
  • photoreceptors: detects light that strikes eye’s retina
  • chemoreceptors and osmoreceptors: detects chemicals in mouth by monitoring taste, nose to smell, and any body fluid changes
102
Q

What are the somatic sensations? (3)

A
  • muscle spindles: type of proprioceptor that monitors muscle length and involved in stretch reflexes
  • tendon organs: type of proprioceptor that protects muscles and tendons from overstretching damage
  • joint kinesthetic receptors: responds to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration during movement and protects against excessive strain
103
Q

What are the sensations of the tactile receptors of the somatic sensations? (6)

A
  • Meissner corpuscles: onset of touch and low-frequency vibrations
  • hair root plexuses: movements on skin surface that disturb hairs
  • tactile discs: continuous touch and pressure
  • Ruffini corpuscle: skin stretching and pressure
  • Pacinian corpuscles: high-frequency vibrations
  • itch and tickle receptors: itching and tickling
104
Q

What are the somatic sensory pathways of first-order, second-order, and third-order neurons?

A
  • first-order neurons: impulses from somatic receptors to brain stem or spinal cord
  • second-order neurons: impulses from brain stem and spinal cord to thalamus
  • third-order neurons: impulses from the thalamus to primary somatosensory area of cortex on the same side
105
Q

Somatic sensory pathway

A

carries information from somatic sensory receptors to primary somatosensory area in cerebral cortex and to cerebellum

106
Q

what are the 5 somatic sensory pathways?

A
  • dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway
  • Anterolateral pathway: has 3 pathways
    • spinothalamic pathway
    • spinoreticular pathway
    • spinotectal pathway
  • trigeminothalamic pathway
107
Q

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway

A
  • detects touch, vibration, proprioception, pressure from limbs, trunk, neck, and posterior head
  • lesions to pathway ==> loss of vibration, joint sense, and ataxia
108
Q

Spinothalamic pathway

A
  • sends impulses for pain, temp, itch, and tickle
  • uses 3 neurons to convey sensory info
109
Q

spinoreticular pathway

A
  • sends impulses for painful stimuli and causes alertness, arousal
  • uses 4 lvls of neurons to convey sensory information
  • pathway passes through reticular formation in brainstem to thalamus
110
Q

spinotectal pathway

A
  • responsible for visual reflexes due to sensations like pain, temp, tactile
  • uses 3 lvls of neurons to convey sensory information
  • pathway terminates in superior and inferior colliculi in midbrain
111
Q

trigeminothalamic pathway

A
  • sends impulses for most somatic sensations from face, nasal cavity, oral cavity, and teeth
  • senses touch, proprioception, pain, and temp
112
Q

What are 2 cells and 1 gland of the olfaction?

A
  • supporting cells: used for physical support and nourishment for olfactory receptor cells
  • basal stem cells: undergoes mitosis to replace olfactory receptor cells
  • olfactory glands: produces mucus to dissolve odor molecules so that transduction occurs
113
Q

olfactory transduction

A
  • bindings of odorant molecule to olfactory receptor protein
  • Cyclin AMP (cAMP) causes depolarization → action potential travels to primary olfactory area → travels to frontal lobe (orbitofrontal area) for odor identification
114
Q

What are papillae and what are the 4 types of papillae?

A
  • papillae: taste buds in elevations on tongue
  • vallate papillae
  • fungiform papillae
  • foliate papillae
  • filiform papillae
115
Q

what are the 3 cranial nerves involved in sense of taste and what do they do?

A
  • facial (VII) nerve: carries taste information from anterior of tongue
  • glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve: carries taste information from posterior of tongue
  • vagus (X) nerve: carries taste information from taste buds on epiglottis and throat
116
Q

palpebral muscles

A

controls eyelid movement and extrinsic eye muscle responsible for moving eyeball

117
Q

conjunctiva

A
  • thin, protective mucous membrane that lines eyelids
  • covers sclera
118
Q

tarsal plate

A
  • fold of connective tissue that give form to eyelids
  • has tarsal glands: specialized sebaceous glands that keeps eyelids from sticking to each other
119
Q

cornea

A
  • transparent anterior portion of eye
  • in eyeball’s fibrous tunic layer
120
Q

sclera

A
  • opaque white portion of eye
  • in eyeball’s fibrous layer
121
Q

choroid

A
  • darkly-pigmented membrane that stops scattering of light rays
  • in eyeball’s vascular tunic layer
122
Q

ciliary body

A
  • thickened tissue that encircles and shapes lens
  • in eyeball’s vascular tunic layer
123
Q

iris

A
  • controls size of opening in eye (pupil) based on nervous system
124
Q

optic disc

A

point where optic nerve exits eye

125
Q

fovea centralis

A
  • area of highest visual acuity
  • center of retina
126
Q

photoreceptors

A
  • rods: lets us see in dim light
  • cones: lets us see in bright light and produces color vision
  • in retina
127
Q

lens

A
  • changes in shape that lets us properly focus image that’s been inverted and right-to-left reversed due to refraction
128
Q

anterior vs posterior chambers of the eye + what are they separated by?

A
  • Anterior chamber: between iris and cornea filled with aqueous humor (clear, watery liquid)
  • Posterior chamber: behind iris and in front of lens that’s filled with vitreous humor (transparent, gelatinous substance)
  • both separated by iris (colored portion of eyeball)
129
Q

How does rods let us see in the dark?

A
  • rods release glutamate (inhibitory transmitter that inhibits the cell it’s connected to)
  • rods secrete glutamate ⇒ inhibits bipolar cells because that’s what they’re connected to
  • inhibits ganglion cells
  • brain doesn’t see anything
  • rod has disc membrane that has photopigment cis-retinal
  • in dark, photopigment doesn’t absorb light
  • nothing activates transducin proteins
  • cGMP is inactive
  • cGMP phosphodiesterase responsible for breaking down cGMP doesn’t activate
  • cGMP builds up in rods because it’s not being broken down, so it opens sodium channels
  • sodium floods in cell
  • cell is depolarized and activated
  • releases inhibitory transmitter glutamate ⇒ inhibits action of bipolar cells and stops them from firing ⇒ can’t activate ganglion cells ⇒ little electrical impulses in brain ⇒ we don’t see much
130
Q

What 4 structures make up the external ear and what do they do?

A
  • auricle: captures sound
  • external auditory canal: transmits sound to eardrum
  • tympanic membrane (eardrum): vibrates according to sound waves
  • ceruminous glands: secretes cerumen (earwax) to protect canal and eardrum
131
Q

what structures make up the middle ear and what do they do?

A

3 auditory ossicles: amplifies sound waves that’s been transmitted from eardrum on the way to oval window

132
Q

what 2 structures make up the inner ear and what do they do?

A
  • cochlea: translates vibrations to neural impulses that brain can interpret as sound
  • semicircular canals: works with cerebellum to sense rotational acceleration for balance + responsible for dynamic equilibrium
133
Q

saccule

A

senses vertical acceleration

134
Q

utricle

A

senses horizontal acceleration

knes b LECT (6 decks)

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