Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Enterotoxaemia is often seen in lambs that are on?

A

Heavy ewes

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2
Q

What is Enterotoxaemia?

A

It is an overeating disease in lambs

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3
Q

Which disease is sometimes confused with a reportable disease?

A

Contagious Ecthyma can be confused with foot and mouth disease

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4
Q

What type of animal experiences high incidence of urinary calculi?

A

Wethers (castrated males)

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5
Q

Why do wethers have a higher incidence of urinary calculi?

A

Because they lack reproductive development due to less testosterone

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6
Q

Chronic mastitis is?

A

Often undetected

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7
Q

What is the appearance of Acute mastitis teats?

A

They have discolored, dark, mammary glands

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of abortion in sheep/goats?

A

Chlamydia abortus

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9
Q

What is the causative agent of gaseous lymphadenitis ?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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10
Q

What is the causative agent of foot rot?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum and Dichelobacter nodosus combination

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11
Q

What is the causative agent of listeriosis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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12
Q

What is the causative agent of epididymitis in rams/bucks?

A

Brucella ovis

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13
Q

What are some of the most common lab diseases?

A

Pregnancy toxemia Milk fever Mastitis Prolapses Abortion Epididymitis White muscle disease Urinary calculi

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14
Q

When is Pregnancy toxemia most likely to occur?

A

In late gestation

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15
Q

What should a healthy sheep or goat look like?

A

Walks without discomfort Chews the cud Regular normal vocal sounds No droopy ears Attentive and alert

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16
Q

What pathogen causes enterotoxemia?

A

Clostridium perfringes bacterium (Type C, D)

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17
Q

How can enterotoxemia be prevented?

A

Vaccination (Covexin 8)

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18
Q

Who are at highest risk and most affected by enterotoxemia?

A

Weanlings on lush pastures Lambs nursing on heavy ewes Weanlings on hot feeds

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19
Q

What are “hot feeds”?

A

Energy dense or high concentration feeds/diets Ex: silage

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20
Q

What are the affected areas in Soremouth disease?

A

It is seen around the eyes Nostrils Mouth Mammary gland vulva

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21
Q

What is the Tx for Soremouth?

A

Treatment is ineffective

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22
Q

How long does it take for Contagious ecthyma to resolve on its own?

A

1-4 weeks

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23
Q

Is Contagious ecthyma zoonotic?

A

Yes

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24
Q

What is Soremouth A.K.A?

A

Contagious ecthyma

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25
Q

What is the causative pathogen of Soremouth disease?

A

ORF virus

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26
Q

What bacteria causes Epididymitis?

A

Brucella ovis

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27
Q

What are the c/s of Epididymitis?

A

enlarged testicles can cause infertility Rams should be testes or be virgin prior to breeding

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28
Q

What is Enterotoxemia A.K.A?

A

Overeating disease

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29
Q

Largest lambs are affected by what disease?

A

Enterotoxemia

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30
Q

Is there an effective treatment for Epididymitis?

A

No real TX, prevent by using disease free rams

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31
Q

What are the c/s of White Muscle Disease?

A

Stiffness in rear limbs and tucked flanks Degeneration of skeletal muscle White stripes in cardiac muscle

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32
Q

What causes White Muscle Disease?

A

Selenium deficiency

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33
Q

How can WMD be treated/prevented?

A

Selinium supplement (pre-birth & post birth) Trace mineral block or injectable supplement

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34
Q

What is urinary calculi A.K.A?

A

Waterbelly

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35
Q

Who are most affected by urinary calculi?

A

Wethers (castrated rams)

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36
Q

What causes urinary calculi?

A

Calcium and phosphorus from high concentrate diets

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37
Q

What are the c/s of Waterbelly?

A

Calculi obstructs urethral process and prevents urine flow Urine can get backed up and rapture bladder

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38
Q

How can urinary calculi be prevented?

A

Acidifying feeds with ammonium chloride prevents formation of stones in acidic urine.

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39
Q

Treatments/surgery for urinary calculi?

A

Penile Urethrostomy: bypass sigmoid flexure Males urinate like females after Urethral process amputation

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40
Q

What is the main cause of abortion in sheep/goats?

A

Chlamydia

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41
Q

What are some of the causes for abortions in sheep/goats?

A

Viral: Hairy shaker disease (a.k.a Border Disease) Nutritional: Toxic plant ingestion (false hellebore), ingesting too much Johnson grass Bacterial: Chlamydia

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42
Q

What are some of the common lambing/kidding diseases?

A

Pregnancy Toxemia Milk Fever Mastitis Prolapses Abortion

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43
Q

When does Pregnancy Toxemia occur?

A

During late gestation

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44
Q

Who are primarily affected by Pregnancy Toxemia?

A

Ewes that are thin, over fattened or are pregnant with multiple fetuses

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45
Q

What causes Pregnancy Toxemia?

A

Negative energy balance due to a lack of adequate nutrition

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46
Q

How is Pregnancy Toxemia treated? What other disease is similar?

A

Glucose, propylene glycol supplementation It is similar to Ketosis in cattle

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47
Q

What are the symptoms of pregnancy toxemia?

A

Down, won’t eat, lateral recumbency, muscle fasciculations

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48
Q

What causes Milk fever?

A

Hypocalcemia (low calcium)

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49
Q

How is milk fever treated?

A

Supplement calcium given

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50
Q

How is milk fever prevented?

A

Calcium supplementation

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51
Q

What is mastitis?

A

The inflammation of the mammary gland

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52
Q

What causes mastitis?

A

Physical injury or bacterial causes Staphylococcus, Pasteurella, Coliforms, E. Coli.

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53
Q

How is mastitis treated?

A

intramammary infusions, NSAIDS, antibiotics. Systematic antibiotics for acute mastitis

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54
Q

What are the signs of acute mastitis?

A

Discoloration of milk, purple and swollen teats yucky smelling discharge.

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55
Q

What are the signs of chronic mastitis?

A

Decreased milk production but it often goes undetected.

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56
Q

What are some of the drugs used to treat mastitis?

A

Tomorrow, Today, Pursue, penicillin base

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57
Q

How is prolapse treated?

A

Suture, spoon, harness

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58
Q

What are some common causes of abortions?

A

Viral: Hairy Shaker disease (Border disease=neurologic signs), similar to BVD Nutritional: Toxic plant ingestion (False heliborne) Bacterial: Chlamydia

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59
Q

Abscesses in sheep/goats

A

A.K.A Caseous Lymphadenitis

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60
Q

Caseous Lymphadenitis

A

Very contagious bacterial infection Submandibular lymph node affected Masses form in lymphatic joints

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61
Q

What pathogen causes lymphadenitis?

A

Cyanobacterium pseudotuberculosis

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62
Q

What disease is similar to strangles in horses?

A

Caseous lymphadenitis

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63
Q

How is Caseous Lymphadenitis treated?

A

Isolation Not very effective antibiotic tx. Take pus out and test @ lab Let it drain and take its course

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64
Q

What are the two types of Bloat?

A

Frothy and Gaseous

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65
Q

Gaseous Bloat

A

Tx: Nasogastric tube Trochar for vagal indigestion (Cranial nerve 10 = Valgus nerve)

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66
Q

Frothy Bloat

A

Hemicellulose increases surface tension of water Tx: dish soap Caused by legumes Trochar or stab it

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67
Q

Listeriosis

A

A.K.A Circling disease Caused by: Listeria monocytogenes

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68
Q

What are the c/s of Listeriosis?

A

Head pressing cornered, circling, “moon gazing”, head twisting

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69
Q

How can Listeriosis be treated/prevented?

A

No vaccine available Tx: antibiotics, but keep things clean

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70
Q

Pneumonia

A

Bacterial causes: Pasteurella multocida or Mannheimia haemolytica Viral causes: Influenza, Caprine arthritis & encephalitis (CAE) virus, aderovirus OPP (ovine progressive virus) Weaning increases susceptibility due to increased stress

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71
Q

Scrapie

A

C/S: Similar to mad cow disease -aggression -Intense rubbing -Tremors -Chronic weight loss

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72
Q

What is the oldest Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy known (TSE)?

A

Scrapie Affects the CNS Transmission: Ocular contact, placental, milk, potentially environmental (2-5 years incubation) No Tx

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73
Q

Foot diseases

A

Foot Rot Foot Scald

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74
Q

What are the causes of foot rot?

A

Bacterial: Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum produces a powerful enzyme that dissolves hoof horn and leads to the undermining of the sole.

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75
Q

What causes foot scald?

A

The bacteria Fusobacterium necrophorum causes a common disease known as foot scald

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76
Q

How can foot rot and foot scald be treated?

A

Sync and copper sulfate footbaths -antibiotics -Mastitis tx can be effective

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77
Q

Parasites

A

Internal External

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78
Q

Nematodes

A

Haemonchus contortus : Barber pole worm Trichostrongylus colubriforms -Bankrupt worm Teladorsagia circumcincta (formely Osstertagia) -Brown stomach worm Nematodirus

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79
Q

Nematodes life cycle

A

Abomasum Eggs in feces/environment L3 infective stage

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80
Q

How much blood can a H. contortus drink/day?

A

1 drop/day 1000 worms = 2 qts per month

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81
Q

Trichostrongylus colubriformis

A

c/s diarrhea, unthrifty appearance, rarely leads to death -Look like hookworm eggs

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82
Q

Telodorsagia

A

Nodules of abomasum Larval Hypobiosis = damage when they come out Do not drink blood

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83
Q

Nematodirosis

A

Adults seem immune -Severe diarrhea, may lead to death in lambs -Obstruction can kill them

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84
Q

Eimeria Ovina and Crandallis (commonly kwnon as Coccidia)

A

-Host specific -Big problem in young lambs -c/s: diarrhea, weakness, dehydration, glomerulonephritis (kidney shutdown), secondary bacterial infections of the intestines and fly strikes ( parasitic flies lay eggs in wounds/wool). -Problem usually in 1-6 mts old -Prophylactic Tx recommended -Lambs exposed from early age from ewe’s often develop lifelong immunity

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85
Q

Eimeria in goats similar to sheep

A

Mostly problem with kids during stressful times such as shipping and weaning

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86
Q

Eimeria Tx

A

Sulfur drugs, antiprotozoal Ex: TMC tabs once per day for 15 days

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87
Q

Internal parasites

A

Monitor with Famacha Card (made by Faffa Malan)

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88
Q

External parasites

A

ex: Lice, flies, ticks Control: Fly control, topical permethrin

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89
Q

Which operation would be the most expensive to operate, including al equipment?

A

Farrow-to-finish

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90
Q

Which breed is known for the leanest and mostly heavily muscled hog?

A

Pietrain

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91
Q

Which breed is considered a versatile breed?

A

Yorkshire

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92
Q

What causes the pungent smell that is associated with manure treatment?

A

Volatile fatty acids are byproduct of protein breakdown

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93
Q

Diamond-shaped derma lesions are pathognomonic for what disease?

A

Acute erysipelas

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94
Q

Arthritis and vegetative valvular endocarditis is seen in what disease?

A

Chronic erysipelas

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95
Q

What serovar are swine the maintenance host of?

A

L. Bratislava

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96
Q

What type of pneumonia can cause widespread issues in a hog operation?

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

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97
Q

Which disease causes severe damage to nasal turbinates?

A

Atrophic Rhinitis

98
Q

What is true about swine parvovirus?

A

It is endemic in hogs and often times infections are subclinical

99
Q

What disease are hogs the only reservoir and it can cause neurological signs in all animals?

A

Pseudorabies

100
Q

The principle lesion in Classical Swine Fever is what?

A

Generalized vasculitis

101
Q

How does Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus differ from Transmissible Gastroesnteritis?

A

PEDV has a longer incubation period than TGE, and only causes diarrhea

102
Q

What are the clinical signs in pseudorabies in non-porcine species?

A

-Sudden death -Neurological signs -Intense local pruritis

103
Q

What are the swine terms and their meaning?

A

Farrow: parturition Gilt: Female that has not farrowed Barrow: Castrated male Boar: Breeding male Sow: Breeding female Feeder pig: between weaning and finishing Market hog: usually 260-280 lbs Market weight: 253

104
Q

What is the temp, average age and weight, pigs/litter?

A

Temp: 102.5 253lbs in 170 days 8.3 pigs/litter Feed to gain ration

105
Q

How big are current big hog operations?

A

1,000-80,000 sows Total ~ 65,000 producers

106
Q

What are the production systems and how do they differ?

A

-Farrow to finish: from breeding to market, finish at 280lbs -Grower-finisher: No breeding, but everything else the same. Weanlings are brought to the farm

107
Q

What is All-in-All-out?

A

-Universal practice in swine production -Keep animals in the group -They are moved all together -Barn is cleaned in between group changes

108
Q

Berkshires

A

-high-quality meat, a lot of marbling, not popular due to new lean meat preferences -six white points

109
Q

Duroc

A

-Fastest growing -Red

110
Q

Hampshire

A

-Lean, heavy muscle, oreo belt color

111
Q

Landcrace

A

-Maternal breed -Long-bodied -Droopy ears

112
Q

Pietrain

A

-Black speckles -Good for crossbreeding -Porcine stress gene (PSG) -Capture Myopathy -Build up of lactic acid, causes squishy pork meat

113
Q

Poland China

A

Meat breed High growth rate

114
Q

Yorkshire

A

-CREAM OF THE CROP -Meat and versatile -Heave, lean muscle, and maternal breed

115
Q

Lean pigs have what shape?

A

Hourglass shape Need to reach market size quickly More sellable pork when it is lean

116
Q

What are some things to take into consideration for raising facilities?

A

-Temperature -Ventilation -Sanitation -Manure management -Food and water

117
Q

Farrow-to-Finish

A

Requires the most equipment Farrowing crates keep the sows from laying down on the piglets -#1 reason for piglets death is sows laying on them

118
Q

Describe characteristics of a Gestation Barn?

A

-Allows sows to move and interact with other sows

119
Q

What is the nursery?

A

Where piglets are kept at -82-85 F -Until they reach 50 lbs -Ideal temperature and humidity -Too cold, they don’t eat, too hot, they get stressed

120
Q

What is the finishing barn?

A

Kept at 75 F Good ventilation Manure is controlled, collected

121
Q

Aerobic manure treatment

A

-Uses oxygen to break down manure -Decreases amount of odor -Aerobic oxidizes organic material and nitrogenous compounds VFAs -VFAs culprit for the pungent odor

122
Q

Anaerobic Treatment of manure

A

-Uses bacteria to digest waste -Lagoons are most common -Methane byproduct can be use as energy source

123
Q

What are the different forms of Erysipelas disease?

A

-Acute -Chronic

124
Q

Erysipelas

A

one of the oldest recognize diseases that affect swine Acute form seen mostly in finisher/grower pigs

125
Q

Acute Erysipelas

A

-May find dead pigs without any signs -Common signs: Depression, febrile, inability to move, shifting leg lameness

126
Q

What shape are Pathognomonic lesion?

A

Diamond shape dermal lesions everywhere in the body

127
Q

Chronic Erypiselas

A

-Chronic arthritis -Vegetative valvular endocarditis (plaque that forms in the heart) -Can cause death via embolism cardiac insufficiency

128
Q

What is the Tx or prevention for Erysipelas?

A

-Penicillin: every 12 hours for minimum 3 days -Vaccination is very effective -Outbreaks seen when vaccines are not administered

129
Q

Leptospirosis (Deer disease)

A

-Two serovars: a. L. Pomona: Can see acute leptospirosis in younger pigs is most common b. L Bratislava: pigs are maintenance host, rarely develop acute, infertility is most common

130
Q

Acute Leptospirosis

A

In younger pigs: -Fever, anorexia, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), acute icterus, hemoglobinuria, hemolytic anemia In Sows: -Abortion during 2-4 wks before term of gestation

131
Q

Leptospirosis Tx Prevention

A

-Antibiotics for acute disease: Oxytet, pen G, Excede/Excenel, Draxxin, long acting oxytet and exceed appear to do best -Chronic disease: Cull, can be eaten Prevention: Vaccination

132
Q

What is Enzootic Pneumonia?

A

Causative agent: Mycoplasm hyopneumoniae -Chronic, clinically mild penumonia C/S: Chronic cough, decreased growth rate, flare ups of dyspsnea, lung lesions in slaughtered hogs

133
Q

Tx for Enzootic Pneumoniae

A

When the disease first appears: Antibiotics Prevention: Good practices, All-in-all-out, Biosecurity, proper ventilation, no over crowding. VACCINATION 50/50

134
Q

Swine Influenza caused by

A

H1N1 virus

135
Q

What form of influenza if highly contagious?

A

Acute, type A influenza virus H1N1 A can affect other species: swine, people, chickens, dogs, cats -China unauthorized vaccine

136
Q

Who are the hosts of the classical swine flu?

A

Hogs

137
Q

What are the clinical signs of swine influenza?

A

Sudden onset and rapid spread Entire herd within 1-3 days -Depression, fever, anorexia, coughing, dyspnea, weakness, mucoid ocular and nasal discharge

138
Q

Mortality of influenza

A

Usually low, 1-4%

139
Q

What is the biggest loss with influenza?

A

Market weight delay

140
Q

What is the Tx for influenza?

A

No effective treatment Antimicrobials for secondary infections

141
Q

What vaccines are available for influenza?

A

H1N1 and H3N2 Have a strong immune response

142
Q

Atrophic Rhinitis

A

Disease that targets the nasal turbinates -causes atrophy, septum distortion, shorting or twisting of the mandibula

143
Q

What is the cause of Atrophic Rhinitis?

A

Bacterial cause: Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasturella multicocida (also in cattle BRD) Forms: a. Nonprogressive: Just B. bronchiseptica b. Progressive: P. multicocida and B. bronchiseptica

144
Q

Treatment and Prevention Atrophic Rhinitis

A

-Some chemoprophylaxis helps (feed additive) Tylosin, tetracyclines in feed -Toxoids are available (need for both pathogens) Bacterial-toxoid mixtures yields best results

145
Q

What is Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS)?

A

It is a viral infection -virus group: Arteriviridae

146
Q

What are the two phases of PRRS?

A

Reproductive failure and Post Weaning respiratory disease (progressive) -Big disease that plows through barrowing farms

147
Q

PRSS Reproductive

A

-Stillborn fetuses mummies 25-35% in the herd -Premature farrowing -weak weaned pigs

148
Q

Symptoms, Tx, prevention PRRS Reproductive

A

Anorexia, agalactia -increase in suckling piglet mortality -Piglets might be born viremic -Leads to phase 2-Respiratory

149
Q

PRRS Respiratory

A

PHASE 2

150
Q

Symptoms, Tx, prevention PRRS Respiratory

A

-If born viremic shed virus for 112 days -Leads to destruction of alveolar macrophages -allows for secondary infections to penetrate the lungs -No effective treatment Prevention is culling and proper management -Can reduce ADG (1lb per day normally) by 85%, increases mortality

151
Q

Porcine Parvovirus

A

-Reproductive failure in naive dams -Used to be the most diagnosis for infertility before PRRS

152
Q

What disease produces the largest number of mummified fetuses?

A

Porcine Parvovirus

153
Q

Porcine Parvovirus prevention, Tx

A

Vaccination It is endemic in pigs Very common infection usually subclinical

154
Q

Aujeszky Disease

A

AKA: Pseudorabies -Acute, fetal disease

155
Q

What causes Aujeszky Disease?

A

Herpes virus c/s: depend on the age of the animal

156
Q

What disease are pigs the only reservoir host for?

A

Aujeszky Disease -It can infect cattle, sheep, cats, goats, and wildlife

157
Q

What is Aujeszky Disease AKA?

A

Pseudorabies

158
Q

What are the c/s of Pseudorabies in young piglets?

A

-Highly susceptible -almost 100% mortality rates if <7 days old -Neurological signs: tremors, paddling

159
Q

What are the c/s of Pseudorabies in weanlings pigs?

A

-Mainly respiratory signs -Inhibits alveolar macrophages function

160
Q

What does Pseudorabies cause in all ages?

A

Anorexia, fever, and weight loss

161
Q

What is the primary site of viral replication for Pseudorabies?

A

Nasa, pharyngeal, or tonsillar epithelium. -Virus spreads via the lymphatic where replication continues -Spreads via nervous tissue to the brain -Replicates neurons of the pons and medulla Nose-Tonsils-Lymphatic-Brain-Dead

162
Q

Pseudorabies vaccine

A

Vaccine is the best prevention -Intranasal MLV sows and 1-7 days old piglets -Mass vaccination of all hogs -Develop immunity within 24 hrs

163
Q

Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE)

A

-Similar to parvo in puppies c/s: Vomiting and profuse diarrhea Dehydration within 18 hours of incubation -Causes villous atrophy, malabsorption, osmotic diarrhea, and dehydration -Vaccines are only control

164
Q

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea (PEDV)

A

-Corona viral diarrhea -Affects pigs of all ages -Resembles TGE REPORTABLE DISEASE -Pigs are the only host -Not related to any other member of the Coronaviridae

165
Q

How is PEDV different than TGE c/s?

A

No vomiting in PEDV

166
Q

PEDV Tx, prevention, etc

A

Diarrhea is the only virus direct clinical sign Watery diarrhea of all pigs Longer incubation period than TGE -3-4 days incubation No specific treatment Can be eliminated from herd by maximizing biosecurity: -All-in-all-out -Farrowing management -Good sanitation

167
Q

What is Classical Swine Fever AKA?

A

Hog cholera

168
Q

What are the c/s of CSF?

A

Contagious, fatal disease -High fever -Lethargy -Yellowish diarrhea -Vomiting -Cyanosis (reddening) of the skin

169
Q

What are the forms of CSF?

A

-Highly lethal -Acute -Chronic -Subclinical

170
Q

What are the c/s of CSF?

A

-Principal lesions: generalized vasculitis -CNS vasculitis leads to neurological signs -Necropsy lesions: Widespread petechial/eccchymotic hemorrhage

171
Q

How is CSF controlled and is it reportable?

A

Yes, REPORTABLE disease -CSF free countries: control movement of animals in and out of the borders -Forbid prophylactic vaccination Endemic countries: vaccinations

172
Q

Which type of operation is the most expensive to operate, incluiding all equipment?

A

Farrow-to-finish

173
Q

Which breed is knwon for being the leanest and most heavily muscled?

A

Pietrain

174
Q

Which swine breed is considered a versatile breed?

A

Yorkshire

175
Q

Diamond-shaped dermal lesions are pathognomic for what disease?

A

Acute Erysipelas

176
Q

Arthritis and vegetative vulvar endocarditis is seen in what disease?

A

Chronic Erysipelas

177
Q

What serovar are swine the maintenance host of?

A

L. Bratislava

178
Q

What type of pneumonia can cause widespread issues in a hog operation?

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

179
Q

What is true about swine parvovirus?

A

It is endemic in hogs and often times infections are subclinical

It can cause reproductive failure

180
Q

What disease are hogs the only reservoir and it can cause neurological signs in all mammals?

A

Pseudorabies

Neurological signs are most commonly seen in suckling pigs and respiratory signs are seen in weanlings

181
Q

The principle lesion in Classical Swine Fever is what?

A

Generalized Vasculitis

Subacute and chronic forms of the disease are also characterized by high fever, staggering gait, cough, diarrhea, purple discoloration of the skin, and death.

182
Q

How does Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus (PEDV) differ from Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE)?

A

PEDV has a longer incubation period (3-4 days) than TGE, and only causes diarrhea

TGE also causes vomitting and has a ~18 hr incubation period.

183
Q

What are the cilical signs of pseudorabies in non-porcine species?

A

Sudden death

Intense local pruritus

CNS circling, maniacal behavior, paralysis

“Mad Itch”

184
Q

Mycoplasmosis in poultry

A
185
Q

Avian Pox

A
186
Q

Pullorum Disease Poultry

A
187
Q

Lymphoid Leukosis

A
188
Q

Fowl Cholera

A
189
Q

What are the common bacterial diseases in poultry?

A

Colibacillosis

Mycoplasmosis

Fowl Cholera

Necrotic Enteritis

Pullorum Disease

Fowl Typhoid

Infectious Coryza

Erysipelas

190
Q

What are the common internal parasitic infections in poultry?

A

Ascarids

Cecal worms

Gapeworms

Coccidia

191
Q

What are the common External Parasites in poultry?

A

Mites

Lice

Fowl Tick

Chiggers

192
Q

What are the common viral diseases in poultry?

A

Avian pox

Newcastle Disease

Infectious Bronchitis

Lymphoid Leukosis

Marek’s Disease

Infectious Bursal Disease

193
Q

What pathogen causes Colibacillosis?

A

E. coli

Coliform infections

194
Q

Colibacillosis

A

Combination of severe acute and mild common in young

E. coli toxins causes Air saculitis: inflamation (pus) systematic kills them

Respiratory disease, septicemic disease, enteritis, or combination of all of them.

195
Q

How can you treat/prevent Colibacillosis, Coliforminfections?

A

Difficult to treat

Best to manage thorugh sanitation, ventilation, good litter, low stress, and proper hatching conditions

196
Q

Mycoplasmosis is?

A

A significant respiratory disease

M. gallisepticum

M. meleargridis

M. synoviae

197
Q

What causes CRD?

A
198
Q

What causes Airsacculitis in turkeys?

A

Mycoplasma meleagridis

199
Q

What causes Infectious synovitis?

A

Macyplasma synoviae

Joint swelling

200
Q

CRD and Mycoplasm gallisepticum

A

In adults mild respiratory disease

Young birds “air sac disease”

C/S: coughing, sneezing, nasal discharge, severe infections involve the whole repiratory tract

Swelling underneath the eyes and animals don’t grow as well

201
Q

What is the treatment for CRD?

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

A

Eradication of organisms through National Poultry Improvement program

202
Q

What is Fowl Cholera caused by?

A

Pasturella Multicocida

203
Q

Fowl Cholera-Pasteurella multicocida

A

Found in feces, dead birds, contaminated water, fomite transmission

C/S: Stupor, anorexia, lameness, swollen wattles, dyspnea, watery yellowe-green diarrhea, cyanosis

Treatment:

Sanitation and Sulfa drugs/penecillin ccan control losses

204
Q

Necrotic Entritis is caused by?

A

Clostridium perfringes

205
Q

Necrotic Enteritis

A

Causes destruction of the intestinal lining

CAULIFLOWER LIKE LESIONS

Tx: antibiotics can be effective

Linked with coccidia contributing factor

206
Q

Pullorum Disease is caused by?

A

Salmonella pullorum

Highly fatal to young chicks/poults

Acutely dead chicks

c/s: dyspnea and white diarrhea

Tx: depopulation

Testing prior to hatching

207
Q

Fowl Typhoid

A

Caused by Salmonella gallinarum

Spleen enlargement

Mechanical transmission

c/s: sporadic mortality

Prevention: testing eggs prior to hatching

208
Q

Botulism

A

Clostridium botulinum

c/s: Flaccid paralysis, can’t breath, inability to swallow

Prevention: eliminate sources of toxis, wich are generallly dead animals

Rodent control is important

209
Q

Infectious Coryza

A

Hemophilus gallinarum

c/s: swelling of face/wattles, nasal discharge, swollen sinuses.

Prevention: Identify and removed infected birds

Antibiotics, but never fully gone

210
Q

Erysipelas

A

caused by Erysipelothrix insidiosa

ZOONOTIC

c/s: general weakness, anorexia, yellow/greenish

Necropsy diffuse hemorrhages in any tissue/organ

Tx: Penicillin

Tom’s snood swollen and purple

211
Q

Ascarids

A

Large intestinal roundworms

c/s: droopiness, emaciation, diarrhea

Tx: Piperazine

Stric sanitation

Sterilize area

212
Q

Cecal worms

A

Keterakins gallinae

found in cecum

No real disease, but is a vector for HISTOMONAS melegridis (Blackhead)

Tx: Fendbendazole trade name Panacur

213
Q

Gapeworms

A

Red worm found in the trachea

Causes “grapes” or open mouth breathing

Birds can die from suffocation

Tx: Fedbendazole

214
Q

Coccidia

A

Protozoan parasite Eimeria

Severe diarrhea

can lead to C. perfringes disease or Enteritis

Vaccination avialable

Anticoccidials (Corid mix with water)

215
Q

Poultry Mites

A

Main concern: Northern Fowl Mite (Ornithonyssus sylvairum)

Causes lower egg production and self mutilation

Tx: Permethrin

Most common chicken mite: Dermanyssus gallinae

216
Q

Poultry lice

A

Mainly causes irritation

Lice are species specific

Tx: Permethrin

217
Q

Fowl Tick

A

AKA Blue bug

can cause anemia

Tx: Environmental control

218
Q

Chiggers

A

AKA Red bugs

Local skin irritation

Diminshes carcass value

Tx: Permethrin

219
Q

Avian Pox

A

Caused by Fowl pox or canary pox virus

Direct/indirect contct

Dry or Wet form

Dry: Small whitish lesions

Wet: Oral cavity

No Tx

Vaccine effective

220
Q

New Castle disease

A

VVND most severe

Viserotropic velogenic Newcastle disease

Twisted neck (torticollis)

Neurologic signs are rare

Vaccines available

No tx

221
Q

Infectious Bronchitis

A

Extremely contagious

Vaccine avialable

No Tx

222
Q

Lymphoid Leukosis

A

Tumor in the liver and spleen

Prevention: do not mix birds

No Tx or vaccine

Control parasites

223
Q

Marek’s disease

A

AKA visceral leukosis dead quickly

C/S: Visceral

Neural

Ocular

Skin

Vaccine available >90% effective

REPORTABLE DISEASE

224
Q

Infectious Bursal Disease

A

AKA Gumboro

Acute highly contagious

Lesions Gelatinous film develops

No immunity anymore

Careful use of vaccine

225
Q

What is a vertical integration system poultry?

A

It is a production system where all segments of industry are owned by the same company

Ex: Tyson and Perdue own everything except the water, electricity, etc. at a chicken growing facility

226
Q

What is the breakdown of vertical integration in poultry?

A

Primary breeders

Feed mill

Breeders

Hatchery

Growing farms

Processing plants

Further processing

Transport and marketing

227
Q

Primary breeders

A

Make and reproduce elite breeds of chicken

Goal: make breeds that lay down abundant meat and have excellent feed efficiency

228
Q

Feed Mills

A

Ratios are made by nutritionist

Defined diet for each section of production

Many companies own mills that finished feed

229
Q

Breeders

A

Contract growers raise breeder chicks to adults

offspring becomes broilers

230
Q

Harchery

A

All fertilized eggs are sent here

Chicks are sexed and vaccinated

All of this takes place within 12 hrs of hatching

231
Q

Grower farms

A

Chicks rearing houses are very controlled

Ventillation and temperature

Broilers 9 lbs total feed consumed

5lb market weight

Farmer provides facilities, water, electricity, and management

232
Q

Processing plants

A

Electric water bath staunting

Carcass sold whole or further processed

233
Q

Further processing

A

Are specialized operations

sell for much higher than whole chicken

234
Q

Transport and Marketing

A

Tyson all covered by the parent company

refrigerated trucks take to store and restaurants

235
Q

Chicken breeds

A

Over 50 recognized by APA

Layers

Meat

Dual purpose

236
Q

Meat breeds

A

Fast growth rate

White Cornish breed cross with White Plymont Rock

237
Q

Layer breeds

A

White egg layers = white ear lobes

Red ear lobes = Brown

More energy used on egg production thatn muscle growth

238
Q

White Leghorns

A

Basis of commercial egg industry

239
Q

Rhode Island Red

A

Very hearty layers

Brown eggs

240
Q

Turkey breeds

A

8 breeds recognized

Broad brested Large white

Shorter breat bones

Shorter legs

Must be artificially inseminated

241
Q

What is the cause/pathogen for Erysipelas in swine?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes or

Erysipelothix rhusiopethac