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VHS 350 > Exam 1 & 2 > Flashcards

Exam 1 & 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Infectious keratoconjunctivitis is caused by what vector?

A

Face flies

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2
Q

M. avium sub. paratuberculosis causes what disease?

A

Johne’s disease

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3
Q

A bred cow that has never been vaccinated, is exposed to an NCP stain of BVDV at 3.5 months of gestation. If the calf is born alive, what will it be known as?

A

Persistent infector

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4
Q

A cow with a 200lb calf nursing was grazing normally yesterday, then was found lateral with paddling convulsions and vocalizations is most likely suffering from what nutritional disease?

A

Grass tetany

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5
Q

If a CIDR is placed in a female, what hormone is consistently released inside her body?

A

Progesterone

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6
Q

Which if the following is considered a primary spermatic abnormality?

A

Double head

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7
Q

L. monocytogenes is the bacterial cause of what disease?

A

Circling disease

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8
Q

What bacteria is transmitted by wildlife in urine that can cause abortion storms or weak calves?

A

Leptospirosis spp.

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9
Q

Easiest way to treat acetonemia?

A

Oral propylene glycol

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10
Q

White muscle disease would be seen in a calf that has a … deficiency?

A

Selenium

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11
Q

A decrease in fertility, livability, and longevity is known as?

A

Inbreeding depression

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12
Q

An intact female that has not produced offspring is known as?

A

Heifer

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13
Q

A cervical prolapse with no necrotic tissue present is considered what grade?

A

3

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14
Q

A dairy cow presents with an arched back, off feed, a positive grunt test, and has a left sided heart murmur. What is the most likely disease?

A

Traumatic reticulopericarditis

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15
Q

What is the best treatment for Johne’s disease?

A

No treatment

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16
Q

Secondary spermatic abnormalities occur where in the male reproductive tract?

A

epididymis

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17
Q

Bacterial causes of BRD are?

A

P. multocida and M. haemolytica

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18
Q

An F1 progeny had an estimated yearling weight of 950lbs but instead weighted 1000lb. What is the percentage increase in heterosis?

A

5%

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19
Q

Black angus cattle are known for?

A

Carcass traits

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20
Q

In rotation-terminal breeding system, mature cows are?

A

Placed in another breeding group with a new bull of a different breed

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21
Q

At what point is Prostaglandin-F2-Alpha released?

A

Once the uterus realizes there is no fertilization of the ovum

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22
Q

An F1 heifer is retained and bread back to the same breed as her dam. How much less heterosis will the heifer’s offspring have?

A

1/2

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23
Q

A group of backgrounding calves has been placed on a pasture that previously was a junkyard. Two days later, several of the calves are noted to be grinding their teeth, having muscle tremors, and violent convulsions. What have they been exposed to?

A

Lead, lead poisoning signs

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24
Q

3-methylindole is a natural byproduct that is pneumotoxic and causes what disease in cattle?

A

Fog fever

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25
Q

A newly freshened cow on a local dairy has a down cow. One clinical sign noted is that the cow has acetone breath, what is wrong with this cow?

A

Ketosis

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26
Q

A calf presented with two rear limbs showing through the birth canal. This presentation is known as what?

A

Posterior

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27
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy has been linked to what as a possible cause?

A

Prions

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28
Q

A specific type of inbreeding that elevates the influence of a genetic line, while minimizing inbreeding depression is known as?

A

Linebreeding

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29
Q

A continuous breeding system, is a system where?

A

heifers are kept as replacements

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30
Q

A feedlot producer will most likely buy?

A

yearling stock

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31
Q

This ischemic disease that affects cattle when exposed to an endophyte fungus is?

A

Fescue foot

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32
Q

A neonate absolutely requires colostrum within how many hours after birth?

A

24 hours

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33
Q

A bull presented for a breeding soundness examination; he was noted to have a persistent frenulum. Will this bull be considered a satisfactory potential breeder?

A

Eventually he could be, if the frenulum is detached, and he passes a BSE after next spermatic cycle

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34
Q

F. necrophorum, a normal flora of the rumen causes what disease when exposed to large amounts of concentrate ratios (simple carbs)?

A

Rumenitis

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35
Q

Which of the following is considered a secondary spermatic abnormality?

A

Folded tail

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36
Q

Luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone are produced in response to what two hormones?

A

GnRH and Estrogen

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37
Q

In a static terminal breeding system the female F1 progeny is retained and bred to?

A

A breed different than her parents

38
Q

Terminal breeding systems allow for more flexibility in choosing sires because?

A

all offspring is sold, so no replacement heifers are kept back

39
Q

If lutalyse is given to a cow at the beginning of diestrus, what will occur?

A

Corpus luteum is destroyed, returns to proestrus

40
Q

EPDs compare an individual with?

A

another individual of the same breed

41
Q

The most common cause of gaseous bloat is?

A

Foreign body in esophagus

42
Q

Where are the ganadotropins produced?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

43
Q

An F1 progeny results from a breeding where the sire and dam are?

A

Two different breeds

44
Q

The hypothalamus produces what hormone during estrous cycle?

A

GnRH

45
Q

What breed pair will give the most heterosis?

A

a British breed and a Tropical breed

46
Q

What structure releases progesterone?

A

Corpus luteum

47
Q

Primary spermatic abnormalities occur where in the male reproductive tract?

A

Testis

48
Q

What structure releases Prostaglandin-F2-Alpha?

A

Uterus

49
Q

A feedlot steer is found laterally recumbent and is noted to have dorsomedial strabismus, what if affecting the steer?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

50
Q

What hormone increases during metestrus?

A

Progesterone

51
Q

A very young lamb will have which of the following?

A

Two break joints

52
Q

Which of the following is not a finishing goal?

A

Have moderate excess fat

53
Q

Which meat goat grade is said to have superior meat type conformation?

A

1

54
Q

USDA inspection occurs at what point during the slaughter process?

A

All of the above

Before slaughter, during processing, after processing

55
Q

What is the official goat meat grading system?

A

There is no official grading system in the U.S

56
Q

A very young lamb will have wich of the following?

A

Two break joints

57
Q

Young stock bull growth has a negative impact how?

A

May be over-conditioned and need to lose weight prior to breeding season

58
Q

A lamb carcass with a break and a spool joint, and slightly abundant flank streaking will have a quality grade of?

A

Prime

59
Q

What gland senses daylight in sheep and goats?

A

Pineal

60
Q

A feed that is high in fiber and low in digestible nutrients is sonsidered?

A

Roughage

61
Q

A 35-month old steer is slaughtered and has a modest amount o fmarbling would receive a quality grade of what?

A

Choice

62
Q

Which of the following has a high affinity for copper and leads to a copper deficiency?

A

Molybdenum

63
Q

What period would be an ideal time to regain lost body condition for a brood cow?

A

Mid lactation/Mid gestation

64
Q

Gossypol is a natural toxin found in what feed source?

A

Whole cottonseed

65
Q

What is the standard energy feed, to which all others are compared?

A

Corn

66
Q

Why is it important to ensure proper nutrition soon after parturition?

A

A decrease in dry matter intake can be seen after parturition, predesposing to milk fever

67
Q

What is the principal supplementary protein source in many livestock diets?

A

Soybean meal

68
Q

Wool grows in crimpled, elastic, clusters, known as ?

A

Staples

69
Q

What does Prostaglandin-F2-Alpha work on?

A

Corpus Luteum

70
Q

What hormone controls the ovine reproductive cycle?

A

Melatonin

71
Q

The ultimate goal for finishing cattle is?

A

Improve quality of meat

72
Q

What is the most crucial nutritional period in a beef cow

A

Early lactation

73
Q

Why is goat milk used in aromatic products?

A

Goats are browsers, which allows them to consume aromatic plants …

74
Q

A lamb with a break and a spool joint with narrow ribs and small flank streaks would receive what quality grade?

A

Choice

75
Q

Hormonal implants like Ralgo, are used to do what in cattle?

A

Imporve feed efficiency and average daily gain

76
Q

At what point are the lowest energy requirements needed in beef cattle?

A

Mid gestation/ mid lactation

77
Q

The most common form of stunning in cattle slaughter is?

A

Mechanical

78
Q

The main pathology behind gossypol toxcicity is?

A

It renders amino acids unavailable, affects enzymatic reaction

79
Q

What is an example of a stored roughage?

A

Baled hay, silage, straw

80
Q

What makes up the calculation in yield grading in cattle?

A

Rib eye area, Kidney, pelvic, heart fat, fat thickness.

81
Q

Which of the following meats is considered most tender?

A

Cabrito

82
Q

A cow was weak in the rear limbs one day, then found dead the next. What is the most likely cause?

A

Clostridium botulinum

83
Q

Ionophores improve average daily gain by?

A

Increasing propionic and decreasing acetic and butyric acid

84
Q

Which is the cheap non-protein nitogen source that can be used to increase protein in ruminant diets?

A

Urea

85
Q

Where are the gonadotropins produced?

A

Anterior petuitary gland

86
Q

Which of the following does not go into quality grading in sheep?

A

Rib eye area

87
Q

Meat goats have what reproductive cycle?

A

Polyestrus with short day peaks

88
Q

Mold on feed that leads to ataxia, depression, hemorrhage, and icterus is most likely caused by what toxic agent?

A

Aspergillus flavus

89
Q

What structure releases progesterone?

A

Corpus Luteum

90
Q

What hormone increases during metestrus?

A

Progesterone

91
Q

What is the second most crucial period in a cows year when many poorly informed producers will decrease feed to supposedly reduce dystocia?

A

Late gestation

92
Q
A

VHS 350 (4 decks)

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