Exam 3 Flashcards
Action of Gemellus Superior:
A) Medially rotate hip/thigh
B) Laterally rotate hip/thigh
C) Medially rotate flexed knee
D) Weak plantar flexion of ankle
Laterally rotate hip/thigh
The action of Gemellus Superior is lateral rotation of the hip/thigh.
When a muscle is un-stimulated it is called?
A) Irritability
B) Contractility
C) Normal resting length
D) Extensibility
Normal resting length
Irritability/Excitability Muscles have the ability to react to stimuli.
Contractility When muscles contract, they have the ability to power movement (blood flow via the heart or skeletal movement).
Extensibility Muscle tissue has the ability of a muscle to stretch, unlike bone tissue.
Elasticity Muscles have the ability to return to the original shape after being lengthened, or stretched.
Where does this muscle insert to?
A) Tendinous ring on the posterior wall of orbital cavity
B) Passes through pulley and is attached to the superior surface of eyeball beneath the superior rectus
C) Lateral surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction
D) Lateral surface of eyeball deep to the lateral rectus
Lateral surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction
This is the lateral rectus muscle, a striated, extrinsic muscle of the eyeball.
Origin: Tendinous ring on the posterior wall of orbital cavity
Insertion: Lateral surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction
Action: Rotates eyeball so that the cornea looks laterally
Innervation: Abducens nerve (CN VI)
What does this muscle do?
A) Knee flexion and external rotation
B) Knee extension and lateral rotation
C) Knee flexion and internal rotation
D) Knee extension and internal rotation
Knee flexion and external rotation
This is the short head of the Biceps Femoris muscle. From the name itself “bi,” the muscle is composed of two heads- the short and long head. The biceps femoris is part of the hamstring group of muscles that makes up the major bulk of the posterior thigh.
Origin: Short head from linea aspera and lateral supracondylar ridge of shaft of femur
Insertion: Both heads insert to the head of fibula
Action: Flexes and laterally rotates the knee
Innervation: Common peroneal portion of sciatic nerve
The muscle shown in the photo is the _____.
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Internal obliques
D) External oblique
INSERT PHOTO
Internal obliques
The photo shows us the internal obliques on each side of the body. These muscles lie in the anterior surface of the abdominal wall.
Origin: Lumbar fascia, iliac crest and lateral two thirds of the inguinal ligament
Insertion: Lower three ribs and costal cartilages, xiphoid process, linea albea and symphysis pubis
Action: Supports and compresses abdomnal contents. Assists in forced expiration, micturition, defecation, parturition and vomiting. Assists in flexion and rotation of the trunk to the same side.
Innervation: Lower six thoracic nerves, iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves (L1)
The _____ serves as the distal attachment for the muscle shown in the photo:
A) Tibial tubercle
B) Posterior surface of tibia, just proximal to the soleal line
C) Posterior surface of tibia, just distal to the soleal line
D) Lateral femoral condyle
Posterior surface of tibia, just proximal to the soleal line
This is the popliteus, a relatively small muscle located at the posterior knee. It is known to “unlock” the knee during closed kinematic chain motions such as standing on both feet.
Origin: Lateral femoral epicondyle
Insertion: Posterior surface of the tibia, just proximal to the soleal line
Action: If the femur is fixed, medially rotates the tibia on the femur. If the tibia is fixed, laterally rotates the tibia on the femur. Unlocks the knee to allow knee flexion by laterally rotating the femur on the fixed tibia such as in standing.
Innervation: Tibial nerve
When the knee is extended, hip flexion is limited to 60-80 degrees because of passive insufficiency of:
A) Gluteus Maximus
B) Hamstrings
C) Rectus Femoris
D) Iliopsoas
Hamstrings
Passive Insufficiency occurs in biarticular muscles. These muscles cannot stretch maximally across both joints. The hamstrings limit the hip flexion while the knee is fully extended.
The _____ serves as the proximal attachment of this muscle:
A) Inferior border of the 12th rib
B) Iliolumbar ligament
C) Transverse processes of L1-L4
D) Posterior border of iliac crest
INSERT IMAGE
Posterior border of iliac crest
This is the quadratus lumborum. It is considered as a deep muscle which lies at the posterior and lower portion of the back. Due to its anatomical action, it is referred to as the “hip hiking” muscle.
Origin: Posterior border of iliac crest
Insertion: Inferior border of 12th rib, Iliolumbar ligament, and transverse processes of L1-L4
Action: Unilateral contraction results in lateral flexion of vertebral column or “hip hiking.” Bilateral contraction results in depression of thoracic rib cage.
Innervation: T12 and L1-L4 Since neither of these attachments is on a limb, the proximal/distal attachments are in relation to the origin. In this case, the iliac crest is the origin and the proximal attachment.
Contraction of the right side of this muscle will produce:
A) Lateral flexion and rotation of the head to the left
B) Lateral flexion and rotation of the head to the right
C) Lateral flexion of the head to the right and rotation to the left
D) Lateral flexion of the head to the left and rotation to the right
INSERT IMAGE
Lateral flexion and rotation of the head to the right
This is longissimus capitis muscle which lies at the cervical area. It froms part of the long group of erector spinae muscles. Running down the spine, it connects to the longisismus cervicis and longissimus thoracis muscles.
Origin: Transverse processes of T1-T5 and articular processes of C4-C7
Insertion: Posterior margin of mastoid process and temporal bone
Action: Unilateral contraction produces ipsilateral side flexion and rotation of the head. Bilateral contraction produces extension and hyperextension of the head.
Innervation: Dorsal rami of spinal nerves C6-T4
What does this muscle do?
A) Radially deviates the wrist
B) Ulnarly deviates the wrist
C) Flexes the PIP joint
D) Flexes the DIP joint
Flexes the PIP joint
The photo shows us the flexor digitroum superficialis which lies at the anterior surface of the forearm. It is composed of two heads- the humeroulnar head and the radial head.
Origin: Humeroulnar head from medial epicondyle of the humerus and medial border of the coronoid process of ulna. Radial head from an oblique line on the anterior surface of shaft of radius.
Insertion: Middle phalanx of the medial four fingers (except the thumb)
Action: Flexion of the middle phalanx (proximal interphalangeal joint or PIP) of fingers; Assists in flexing the proximal phalanx and hand
Innervation: Median nerve
What muscle is being shown in the photo below?
A) Plantaris
B) Tibialis posterior
C) Peroneus brevis
D) Flexor hallucis longus
INSERT IMAGE
Flexor hallucis longus
The photo shows us hte flexor hallucis longus muscle. It lies at the posterior surface of the lower leg and from the name itself “hallucis,” acts on the big toe.
Origin: Posterior surface of the lower shaft of fibula
Insertion: Base of distal phalanx of the big toe
Action: Flexion of the distal phalanx of the big toe; Plantarflexion of the ankle joint; Supports the medal longitudinal arch of the foot
Innervation: Tibial nerve
What movements is the muscle capable of?
A) Flexion of hip and knee joints
B) Extension of hip and knee joints
C) Internal rotation of knee joint and extension of hip joint
D) External rotation and flexion of hip joint
Internal rotation of knee joint and extension of hip joint
This is the Semitendinosus muscle, a part of the Hamstring complex which makes up the major bulk of the posterior thigh. This muscle crosses two joints- the hip and knee joints, and thus has influence to both of them.
Origin: Ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Upper part of medial surface of shaft of tibia
Action: Flexion and medial/ internal rotation of the knee joint. Extension of the hip joint.
Innervation: Tibial portion of sciatic nerve
A client comes in and reports that they were just diagnosed with acute infectious sinusitis. You should:
A) explain that this is systemically contraindicated and reschedule.
B) proceed with massage as usual.
C) proceed with massage and use eucalyptus essential oil.
D) proceed, but use lymph drainage techniques only.
explain that this is systemically contraindicated and reschedule.
Like most other acute conditions, acute infections are systemic contraindications. Reschedule massage after infection is resolved.
An idiopathic disease is:
A) A disease in which the cause is unknown
B) A disease which is cancerous
C) A disease which is autoimmune in nature
D) A disease which results in bacterial infection
A disease in which the cause is unknown
Idiopathic means “of unknown cause.”
Any disease that is of uncertain or unknown origin may be termed idiopathic.
Procedures that affect or remove lymph nodes can cause __________ as a side effect.
A) fluid build up
B) lymphedema
C) edema
D) all of the above
all of the above
Procedures that affect or remove lymph nodes can cause lymphedema (excess fluid build up) or edema as a side effect.
Endocarditis is
A) A local contraindication
B) An absolute contraindication
C) An endangerment site
D) Not a contraindication
An absolute contraindication
Endocarditis is an inflammation of the inner layer of the heart, the endocardium and requires medical attention. Endocarditis is a systemic contraindication during the infection. Massage may proceed after the infection has been resolved and no other pathologies are present.
A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of:
A) FSH
B) WBC
C) hCG
D) TSH
hCG
The human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test is done to check for the hormone hCG in blood or urine.
hCG is produced during pregnancy.
TSH - Thyroid-stimulating hormone
FSH - Follicle-stimulating hormone
WBC - White blood cell count
The surgeon smoothed the rough edges of the meniscus and repaired the anterior cruciate ligament. These procedures were performed on the:
A) finger
B) hip
C) knee
D) wrist
knee
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is located in the knee. ACL tears are one of the most common knee injuries.
What anxiety disorder consists of two parts: repetitive thought, urge, or emotions, and a repetitive act that may appear purposeful?
A) Panic Disorder
B) Phobia
C) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Panic Disorder is a psychiatric disorder in which debilitating anxiety and fear arise frequently and without reasonable cause. A phobia is a type of anxiety disorder, usually defined as a persistent fear of an object or situation the affected person will go to great lengths to avoid, typically disproportional to the actual danger posed.
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a mental disorder where people feel the need to check things repeatedly, perform certain routines repeatedly, or have certain thoughts repeatedly.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a mental disorder that can develop after a person is exposed to one or more traumatic events, such as sexual assault, warfare, traffic collisions, terrorism or other threats on a person’s life. Symptoms include disturbing thoughts or feelings related to past traumas intruding on the present, avoidance of trauma-related cues, alterations in how a person thinks and feels about themselves and the world, and hyperarousal, persisting for more than a month after a traumatic event.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive, uncontrollable and often irrational worry, that is, apprehensive expectation about events or activities.
The condition is caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system, part of the immune and circulatory systems.
A) mumps
B) lymphoma
C) lymphedema
D) infectious mononucleosis
lymphedema
Lymphedema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intercellular spaces. The condition is caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system, part of the immune and circulatory systems. It can be a general response of the body to injury or be caused by medications, infections, pregnancy, or other medical problems. It can affect a small or large area of the body.
An absence of menstrual flow is called:
A) Oligomenorrhea
B) Dysmenorrhea
C) Amenorrhea
D) Menstruation
Amenorrhea
-Rrhea means “discharge or flow.”
Example: Amenorrhea is a cessation of menstruation (Amenorrhea = without + menses + flow).
_______ is the loss of the sense of smell.
A) Tinnitus
B) Vertigo
C) Vitiligo
D) Anosmia
Anosmia
Tinnitus is a ringing, buzzing or clicking sound in the ears in the absence of auditory stimuli. It can have many causes and treatment vary.
Vertigo is when a person feels as if they or the objects around them are moving when they are not actually moving.
Vitiligo is a disease that causes the loss of skin color in blotches. The skin will have white patches. Vitiligo is not contagious or infectious skin condition.
Anosmia is the loss of the sense of smell.
It is characterized by extension of the PIP joint and flexion of the MCP and DIP joints.
A) Swan neck deformity
B) Boutonniere deformity
C) Trigger finger
D) Mallet finger
Swan neck deformity
Swan neck deformity is characterized by extension of the PIP joint and flexion of the MCP and DIP joints. This condition is caused by contracture of the intrinsics or tearing of the volar plate. It is a hand issue/deformity, not a neck/cervical issue.
Boutonniere deformity is caused by rupture of the central tendinous slip of the extensor hood. It is characterized as extension of the MCP and DIP joints and flexion of the PIP joints.
Mallet finger is caused by the avulsion of the extensor tendon where it inserts into the distal phalanx of the finger producing a flexed distal phalanx.
Trigger finger is also termed as digital tenovaginitis stenosans. It is caused by the thickening of the flexor tendon sheath. When the person attempt to flex the finger, the tendon sticks and the finger lets go with a snap.
All of the following are signs and symptoms associated with bruxism, except:
A) Earache
B) Dull pain at the occiput
C) Sleep disturbance
D) Pain at the side of the cheeks
Dull pain at the occiput
Bruxism is a medical condition where a person unconsciously grinds, gnashes, or clenches his/her teeth. It can be categorized into two- sleep bruxism and awake bruxism.
More commonly, sleep bruxism affects more people and leads to more complications since the bruxist is asleep and may not wake up immediately to stop the grinding. In addition to that, sleep bruxism is considered as a sleep-related movement disorder and more likely coincides with other sleep disorders such as sleep apnea and snoring. Although the exact cause of the condition is yet to be determined, the risk factors that may predispose a person include: stress, anxiety, personality type, medications and other substances, intake of caffeine and alcohol, other family members with bruxism, and other medical conditions such as sleep apnea, epilepsy, Parkinson’s disease, gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD), attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and others. Bruxism produces several symptoms such as orofacial pain, headaches, sleep disturbances, pain in the jaw and neck, pain in the ear though the actual problem is not the ear, lock jaw that may not open or close fully. Short term and long term complications of bruxism are present as well. Due to constant and repetitive grinding of the teeth, the tooth may be chipped, there will be persistence of facial pain and headaches, and the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) may be affected as well.
Which of the following is contagious?
A) Psoriasis
B) Lymphoma
C) Warts
D) Hyperglycemia
Warts
Warts are growths caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Warts are a local contraindication. The massage session may proceed, but the area should be avoided.
Which is not a type of pathogen?
A) flagellum
B) bacteria
C) virus
D) fungi
flagellum
4 Types of pathogens:
Virus - Examples: Common cold (rhinovirus), hepatitis, influenza
Bacteria - Examples: Staphylococcus
Fungi - Example: Histoplasmosis Parasite - Example: Malaria - A parasite benefits from living off their host. Some sources list 6, and sometimes 7, types of pathogens. They include: bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa, prions, algae and other micro-organisms/parasites.
A flagellum is a slender threadlike structure or whiplike appendage that enables many protozoa, bacteria, and spermatozoa to swim.
Muscle cell located in the heart wall:
A) Smooth muscle
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) All of the above
Cardiac muscle
Choice A. Smooth muscles are found in the walls of hollow organs, blood vessels, eyes, glands, and skin. They are spindle-shaped and have a single, centrally located nucleus.Smooth muscle cells do not have striations and gap junctions join some visceral smooth muscle cells together. Voluntary contraction is not possible with this type of cells.
Choice B. Skeletal muscles are those attached to bones and where one can palpate them. Their cells are very long and are cylindrical in shape and have multiple nuclei that are located in the periphery. Skeletal muscles have striations and voluntary contraction is possible. This type of muscle cells are the only ones not capable of producing spontaneous contractions.
Choice C. As the name implies, cardiac muscles are found specifically in the heart only. Their cells are cylindrical and branched and have a single, centrally located nucleus. The cells are attached to one another through the intercalated disks (a type of intercellular junction specialized for impulse conduction to contract heart). Cardiac muscle cells have striations and voluntary control is not possible. If the heart cells do not beat in unison, heart arrhythmias can occur.
Nerve that can pass under, alongside, or sometimes through the piriformis muscle.
A) Obturator
B) Sciatic
C) Femoral
D) Lumbosacral plexus
Sciatic
The sciatic nerve either passes alongside, under or sometimes goes through, the piriformis muscle before it continues down the back of the leg.
There are seven (7) ______________ vertebrae in the typical human skeleton.
A) sacral
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) cervical
cervical
There are a total of 33 vertebrae in the vertebral column (that is if you count the coccygeal vertebrae as 4).
Cervical: 7 vertebrae (C1–C7)
Thoracic: 12 vertebrae (T1–T12)
Lumbar: 5 vertebrae (L1–L5)
Sacral: 5 (fused) vertebrae (S1–S5)
Coccygeal: 4 (varies between 3–5) (fused) vertebrae (aka -Tailbone)
A large, round articular surface found on the distal end of the humerus and femur is known as:
A) fossa
B) foramen
C) head
D) condyle
condyle
A condyle is a smooth, rounded bump for bone articulations. The trochlea and capitulum of the humerus are condyles, even though they are not called named condyles. The medial and lateral condyles are found on the distal end of the femur at the knee joint. In contrast to that, an epicondyle is a bump or projection upon a condyle.
Choice A. Fossa is a general term for a depression.
Choice B. Foramen refers to a hole.
Choice C. Head refers to an enlarged and usually a rounded end
The bones of the forearm are made up of the:
A) Radius and humerus
B) Radius and ulna
C) Ulna and humerus
D) Humerus, radius and ulna
Radius and ulna
Basically, the forearm refers to the lower part of the arm that extends from the elbow to the wrist. It is composed of two bones, the radius and ulna. Based on the anatomical position, the ulna is located more medially while the radius lies laterally. In addition to that, the two bones articulate with the humerus superiorly.
Its general action is to mobilize the body’s nervous system fight-or-flight response.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) digestive system
D) exocrine system
sympathetic nervous system
The main purpose of the sympathetic nervous system is to activate the response of the body during stressful situations, including the fight-or-flight response. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for stimulation of “rest-and-digest” or “feed and breed” activities that occur when the body is at rest.
Which of the following muscles are innervated by both the medial and lateral pectoral nerves?
A) Subclavius
B) Serratus anterior
C) Pectoralis minor
D) Pectoralis major
Pectoralis major
The pectoralis major muscle is supplied by both the medial and lateral pectoral nerves from the Brachial plexus (C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1).
Choice A. Subclavius is innervated by the nerve to subclavius arising from the upper trunk of the Brachial plexus (C5, C6).
Choice B. The serratus anterior is innervated by the long thoracic nerve (C5, C6, and C7).
Choice C. The pectoralis minor is innervated only by the medial pectoral nerve from the Brachial plexus (C6, C7, and C8).
What bone articulates with # 1?
A) Tibia
B) Acetabulum
C) Lesser trochanter
D) Fovea capitis
Acetabulum
The tibia is also referred to as the shinbone. The femoral head does not articulate with the tibia rather, the distal portion of the tibia articulates the femoral condyles to form the knee joint.
The head of the femur forms about two thirds of a sphere. It articulates with the acetabulum of the hip to form the hip joint, a type of ball and socket joint.
Lesser trochanter is a part of the femur. It is located at the junction of the femoral neck and shaft and serves as an attachment point for several muscles such as the psoas muscle.
Fovea capitis is a small depression of the femoral head that acts as an attachment site for the ligament of the head or the ligamentum teres.
What type of feedback is primarily used in homeostasis?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Neutral
D) None of the above
Negative
Negative feedback is a type of control that is used in maintaining homeostasis. Sweating during a fever is a common example of negative feedback.
A fossa is a:
A) Slight depression
B) Canal
C) Tuberosity
D) deep notch
Slight depression
Basically, the word fossa is a general term for depression and is usually a shallow one. The mandibular fossa is the depression found in the temporal bones where the condyle of the mandible rests.
Choice B. A canal or meatus refers to a tunnel.
Choice C. A tuberosity or tuber may be referred as a knob and is larger than a tubercle.
Choice D. A notch in general, refers to a depression in the margin of a bone.
What muscle is not attached to the pes anserine?
A) Sartorius
B) Vastus Lateralis
C) Semitendinosus
D) Gracilis
Vastus Lateralis
Sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus all insert at the pes anserine. Vastus Lateralis (one of the quadriceps) inserts at the patella via the quadriceps tendon and tibial tuberosity.
The temperature in a massage room that is warm enough for most clients and cool enough for the practitioner to work is __________.
A) Body temperature, 98.6 F
B) 82 F
C) 78 F
D) 72 F
72 F
Room temperature should be between 72 – 78 degrees Fahrenheit. 75 degrees is the optimum temperature. The minimum room size is 10 feet wide and 12 feet long. Indirect lighting during a massage is best. Minimum lighting requirement is 5 foot candles. The room should remain barrier free. Three feet of space between items allows for room for most wheelchairs. The use of music during a massage is the choice of the client.
You may give business gifts up to $_____ per year per recipient to clients, associates, and employees and deduct them on your income tax return.
A) 25
B) 100
C) 500
D) 5
25
The IRS allows for a $25 tax deduction per year per recipient to clients, associates, and employees.
When should sheets be laundered after a massage?
A) Within an hour of use.
B) The same day they are used.
C) Within a week of use.
D) Within a month of use.
The same day they are used.
Sheets should be laundered the same day as a massage so that oil stains do not set in.
