Exam 1

Question 1

The name of the nervous system that contains the brain and spinal cord is:

A) the CNS

B) the PNS

C) the ANS

D) none of the above

Answer 1

the CNS

The central nervous system (CNS) is the part of the nervous systems which consists of thhe brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system (or PNS), is composed of nerves leading to and from the CNS.

Question 2

Which glands secrete products outside the body through a duct?

A) exocrine

B) endocrine

C) endocrine and exocrine

D) none of the above

Answer 2

Exocrine

Endocrine glands vs Exocrine glands Endocrine Glands secrete into the internal environment and do not possess ducts (ductless). They are involved in the secretion of hormones needed to influence important bodily processes to be carried. Examples of endocrine glands include the pineal gland, pituitary gland, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland and adrenal glands. Exocrine Glands secrete into the external environment and have ducts.

They are involved in the secretion of sweat, oil, and other body fluids. Examples of exocrin glands include the sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands.

Question 3

protects the lining of the stomach from stomach acids and digestive enzymes.

A) Mucus

B) Gastrin

C)Intrinsic factor

D) Gastric lipase

Answer 3

Mucus

The stomach’s cells produce several kinds of secretions that are collectively called as gastric juice. Each type of gastric juice has their own specific function to aid in digestion of food. The following are some of the stomach’s secretions:

1.Mucus-

This is produced by the mucus cells of the stomach and functions by protecting the stomach lining from stomach acids and digestive enzymes.

2. Gastrin-

Produced by the endocrine cells of the gastric glands, gastrin functions by

3. Intrinsic factor
   - Produced by the parietal cells of the gastric glands, intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 aiding in its absorption.
4. Gastric lipase-

This is produced by the chief cells of the gastric glands. It is responsible for digesting a minor amount of lipid.

5. Hydrochloric acid-

This is produced by the parietal cells of the gastric glands. It kills bacteria and is also responsible for converting pepsinogen into pepsin.

6. Pepsin-

Produced by the chief cells of the gastric glands, pepsin is referred to as activated pepsinogen. It functions by digesting protein into smaller peptide chains

Question 4

A prominent, narrow ridge of bone.

A) Line

B) Ramus

C) Sinus

D) Crest

Answer 4

Crest

A crest is defined as a prominent ridge. The key word here is “prominent.” An example would be the iliac crest.

Choice A. A line or linea is a long, thin projection, often with a rough surface. A line is sometimes called a low ridge.

Choice B. A ramus is a branch off the body and is beyond the angle.

Choice C. A sinus or labyrinth refers to cavity.

Question 5

Which are floating ribs?

A) 1-7

B) 8-10

C) 11 and 12

D) 13 and 14

Answer 5

11-12

Ribs 1-7 are known as true ribs because theey attach directly to the sternum. Ribs 8-10 are known as false ribs becauIse they attach to the sternum via costal cartilage Ribs eleven and twelve are known as floating ribs because they do not attach to the sternum or costal cartilage.

Question 6

In cardiac cycle, diastole is what?

A) Contraction

B) Constriction

C) Relaxation

D) Depolarization

Answer 6

Relaxation

Systolic

This is the top number in the blood pressure reading. This is the pressure measured when your heart beats. It contracts and pushes blood through the arteries to the rest of your body. This force creates pressure on the arteries

Diastolic

This is the bottom number in the blood pressure reading. It indicates the pressure in the arteries when the heart rests between beats.

Question 7

Where is the spine of the scapula?

A) #11

B) #10

C) #3

D) #2

Answer 7

3 T

he superior border of the scapula runs from the glenoid fossa up to the superior angle. It does not have any muscular or ligamentous attachments. The border is labeled as #11.

The glenoid fossa, also called as glenoid cavity, is a pear-shaped structure formed from the superolateral angle of the scapula. It articulates with the head of the humerus to form the glenohumeral joint or the shoulder joint. The glenoid fossa is labeled as #10.

The spine of the scapula is labeled as #3 and can only be found in the posterior view. Its base corresponds to the level of the spinous process of the 3rd thoracic vertebrae. The scapular spine serves as an important point of attachment to some muscles such as the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and serratus anterior.

The coracoid process is best viewed from the anterior portion of the scapula. It projects anterosuperiorly above the glenoid cavity and also serves as an important attachment site for muscles and ligaments. Among these include the coracoacromial ligament, the pectoralis minor which insert to the structure, and the coracobrachialis and short head of the biceps which originate from the coracoid process. The coracoid process is labeled as #2.

Question 8

This is located in the anterior neck region:

A) pineal

B) thyroid

C) adrenal

D) thymus

Answer 8

Thyroid

The thyroid is a butterfly-shaped gland at the base of the anterior neck. The thymus gland is located behind the sternum and between the lungs. It is only active until puberty. The adrenal glands are located on top of both kidneys. The pineal gland is located behind the third cerebral ventricle in the brain.

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of a biarticular muscle?

A) Gastrocnemius

B) Deltoid

C) Soleus

D) Vastus Lateralis

Answer 9

Gastrocnemius

Biarticular muscles cross two joints. Gastrocnemius crosses the knee and ankle joints. Other biarticular muscles include the long head of biceps brachii, sartorius (crosses both the hip joint and knee), TFL, rectus femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris, and some flexors and extensors of the forearm.

Question 10

The walls of this are only endothelium and basement membrane. They are the only vessels which permit exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid.

A) Arterioles

B) Veins

C) Capillaries

D) Venules

Answer 10

Capillaries

Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. Arterioles are small arteries. They serve to transport blood to the capillaries.

Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

Venules are small veins that collect blood from the capillaries.

Capillaries are small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; site of gas, nutrients, waste, and hormone exchange.

Question 11

Which of the following portions of the small intestine lies closest to the large intestine?

A) Ileum

B) Duodenum

C) Fundus

D) Jejunum

Answer 11

Ileum

The small intestine, a part of the digestive tract, lies after the stomach. Its main function is for absorption of nutrients, vitamins, electrolytes, and other small molecules that are needed by the body. The small intestine can be divided into 3 parts:

1. Duodenum is the proximal portion of the small intestine.
2. Jejunum, like the duodenum, is where the majority of nutrient absorption takes place. This is the middle portion of the small intestine.
3. ileum is the distal portion of the small intestine. It is connected to the large intestine via the ileocecal junction.

The fundus is the upper part of the stomach that lies next to the cardia (the proximal portion of the stomach that is connected to the esophagus).

Question 12

_______ involves repeated pressured strokes over lubricated skin with a smooth edge. A ceramic Chinese soup spoon, a well-worn coin, a simple metal cap, or piece of jade are commonly used to scrape the skin.

A) TCM

B) Reiki

C) Tui na

D) Gua Sha

Answer 12

Gua Sha

Gua Sha is a traditional Chinese treatment in which the skin is scraped with specific tools (usually a jade tool). It is believed to remove stagnant tissue from injured/ areas and stimulate blood flow and healing.

Question 13

What is the name of this massage technique?

A) Vichy

B) Shirodhara

C) Cupping

D) Gua Sha

Answer 13

Cupping

Cupping therapy uses local suction on the skin to promote circulation and healing.

Question 14

Which bony landmark is located on the anterior side of the body, 1-2 inches superior to the genitals, and directly below the naval?

A) Pubic Crest

B) Coccyx

C) Greater Trochanter of the Femur

D) ASIS

Answer 14

Pubic crest

How to find the Greater Trochanter: Locate the middle of the iliac crest on the lateral side of the client. Slide finger pads down/distally (towards the toes and still lateral) about 4-6 inches.

The ASIS is on the anterior ilium. It is not directly below the navel.

The Pubic crest is on the anterior side of the body, just superior to the genitals and below the navel.

The Coccyx, or tailbone, is located at the top of the gluteal cleft at the inferior end of the sacrum.

Question 15

______________ refers to joint specific pattern of restriction of passive movements. Cyriax introduced this term.

A) Contractile tissues

B) Inert tissues

C) End feel tissues

D) Capsular patterns

Answer 15

Capsular patterns

James Cyriax first wrote about capsular patterns. This refers to a joint-specific pattern of restriction of passive movements.

A common example occurs in osteoarthritis of the hip. The first sign would be limitations with medial rotation of the hip joint. Next would be flexion of the hip joint.

Question 16

A client states they have a frozen shoulder. What is another name for this condition?

A) Peripheral neuropathy

B) Osteogenesis imperfecta

C) Adhesive capsulitis

D) Osteoarthritis

Answer 16

Adhesive capsulitis

Adhesive capsulitis is another name for frozen shoulder. Peripheral neuropathy is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves. It causes weakness, numbness, tingling, and pain, most often in the hands and feet. It is common in clients with diabetes.

Osteogenesis imperfecta is also known as brittle bone disease. It is a genetic disorder that causes bones to break very easily. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis. It is caused by aging, injury, or “wear and tear”.

Question 17

What muscle/muscles would you like to assess if you tell your client this: “Kindly do 25 tip toes.”

A) Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Biceps Femoris

B) Vastus lateralis, Vastus Medialis, Vastus intermedius, Rectus Femoris

C) Pectoralis major, Pectoralis minor

D) Gastrocnemius, Soleus

Answer 17

Gastrocnemius, soleus

The muscles responsible for doing tip toes or plantar-flexion of the ankle are the gastrocnemius and soleus. These 2 muscles are also referred to as the Gastrocsoleus complex or the Triceps Surae and are located at the posterior aspect of the lower leg.

Question 18

While waiting in the lobby, a patient suddenly falls to the ground and is experiencing a seizure attack. What would be the first best thing to do?

A) Hold her down and stop the movements.

B) Call 911.

C) Lay the patient on her side.

D) Put a cotton on her mouth.

Answer 18

Lay the patient on her side

Witnessing seizure attacks may truly be frightening however, these are usually not emergency situations. When someone is having a seizure attack, it would be best to lay the patient on her side in order to keep her airway clear. Holding the patient down and restricting her movements should not be done.

It would be better to stay with the patient, cushion her head and push objects away that may harm her. Do not put anything on her mouth. Calling for help such as 911 should be done given the following scenarios:

a) it is the patient’s first seizure attack,
b) seizure lasted for more than 5 minutes,
c) seizure lasted for more than 2 minutes than is usual for them,
d) patient has injured herself during the attack,
e) patient has difficulty breathing even after the seizure has stopped and
f) another seizure attack follows without any recovery in between.

Question 19

Your patient exhibits weakness pronating his forearm. All of the following are muscles participate in the movement, except:

A) Pronator quadratus

B) Pronator teres

C) Flexor carpi radialis

D) Flexor carpi ulnaris

Answer 19

Flexor carpi ulnaris

The following muscles are responsible for forearm pronation: Pronator quadratus Pronator teres Flexor carpi radialis Flexor carpi ulnaris cannot pronate the forearm, but can flex the wrist joint.

Question 20

While in a sitting position, you ask your patient to abduct her shoulders to 90 degrees with shoulders in external rotation and elbows flexed to 90 degrees. While maintaining the position, you ask her to slowly close and open her hands for 3 minutes. What are you testing for?

A) Strength of the Biceps brachii

B) Grip strength

C) Thoracic outlet syndrome

D) Lateral epicondylitis

Answer 20

Thoracic outlet syndrome

In the stem, your patient is performing the Roos stress test or the Elevated arm stress test (EAST). This test is used to confirm for the presence of thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS). It is considered positive if the patient cannot complete the test due to the presence of paresthesias, pain, pallor, cyanosis, or reproduction of patient’s symptoms. The test is considered negative if the patient cannot complete the test due to muscle fatigue only.

Question 21

The change in the quality of movement at the end of the movement is _________________.

A) an empty end feel

B) a soft end feel

C) a hard end feel

D) an end feel

Answer 21

An end feel

An end feel a unique feel feeling a joint has at the end of passive range of motion.

Question 22

SOAP is an acronym for:

A) Symptoms, Observations, Assessment, Plan

B) Subjective, Objective, Action, Plan

C) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

D) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Procedure

Answer 22

Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

Subjective

What did the client say? The subjective component includes a summary of what the client says. Their perception of the pain and how it affects their daily living should be included. Notes from other health care providers the client has seen can also be documented here.

Objective

What does the massage practitioner feel or see? The objective component includes the massage professionals observations of the client and the results of physical evaluations. Note swelling, skin color or temperature, weakness or muscle tone here. Palpation and gait assessment findings should be noted in this section.

Assessment

What did the massage practitioner do? The assessment component includes a summary of notes after treatment is conducted It should indicate whether or not progress made during the session. What is the pain scale number after treatment? Were there changes in range of motion or posture? You should document long and short-term goals and expected functional outcomes.

Planning

What is next? The planning component includes suggestions and reminders for future sessions. You may also include home care suggestions for the client.

Question 23

The level of the Iliac crest is at:

A) T4

B) T10

C) L4

D) S2

Answer 23

L4

The Iliac crest is at the level of the 4th Lumbar vertebral area, or L4. The Iliac crest serves as a proximal attachment site for some muscles including the Gluteus Maximus, Gluteus Medius and the Tensor Fascia Latae or the TFL. Choice A. The T4 level corresponds to the nipple area. This level is too high for the Iliac crest. Choice B. The T10 level corresponds to the umbilicus area. This level is too high for the Iliac crest. Choice D. The S2 level corresponds to the Posterior Superior Iliac Spine (PSIS) and the Dimple of Venus. This level is too low for the Iliac crest.

Question 24

In a SOAP note, which letter in the acronym contains the data the therapist takes from palpation?

A) S

B) O

C) A

D) P

Answer 24

Objective

Subjective

What did the client say? The subjective component includes a summary of what the client says. Their perception of the pain and how it affects their daily living should be included. Notes from other health care providers the client has seen can also be documented here.

Objective

What does the massage practitioner feel or see? The objective component includes the massage professionals observations of the client and the results of physical evaluations. Note swelling, skin color or temperature, weakness or muscle tone here. Palpation and gait assessment findings should be noted in this section. You should document long and short-term goals and expected functional outcomes.

Assessment

What did the massage practitioner do? The assessment component includes a summary of notes after treatment is conducted It should indicate whether or not progress made during the session. What is the pain scale number after treatment? Were there changes in range of motion or posture? You should document long and short-term goals and expected functional outcomes.

Planning

What is next? The planning component includes suggestions and reminders for future sessions. You may also include home care suggestions for the client.

Question 25

What should you do FIRST when meeting a new client in your office?

A) Introduce yourself and remind the client to shut off their phone.

B) Greet the client by name and a firm embrace.

C) Greet the client by name and shake hands.

Answer 25

Greet the client by name and shake hands.

Greet the client by name and shake hands when meeting for the first time. Embracing (hugging) the client is not appropriate.

Question 26

To assess for the presence of tendinitis of the Biceps Brachii tendon, you select to perform the Yergason’s test. External rotation of the test arm is resisted by the therapist. This type of movement is known to occur in the _____ plane.

A) Horizontal

B) Sagittal

C) Coronal

D) Frontal

Answer 26

Horizontal

Movements that involve rotation such as internal and external rotation, pronation and supination all occur in the horizontal plane. This plane divides the body in the upper and lower parts.

Question 27

During palpation, the superior angle of the scapula lies at the level of the _____ spinous process.

A) T2

B) T3

C) T4

D) T7

Answer 27

T2

The superior angle of the scapula lies at the level of the T2 spinous process. The base of the scapular spine lies at the level of the T3 or T4 spinous processes. The inferior angle of the scapula lies at the level between the T7 and T9 spinous processes.

Question 28

The ________________________ are located the proximal end of the tibia. This widened, flat surface is where articulation with the femoral condyles occurs.

A) Fibular Notch

B) Medial Malleolus

C) Tibial Tuberosity

D) Tibial Plateau

Answer 28

Tibial Plateau

The tibial tuberosity is a superficial knob located on the shaft of the tibia, just distal to the patella. It is an attachment site for the patellar ligament.

The medial malleolus articulates with the tarsal bones to form part of the ankle joint. The tibial plateaus (medial and lateral) are located the proximal end of the tibia. This widened, flat surface is where articulation with the femoral condyles occurs. The fibular notch is located at the distal end of the tibia. This is where the fibula is articulates with the tibia near the foot.

Question 29

Which of the following describes the medial malleolus?

A) The medial malleolus projects farther distally.

B) The medial motion of the ankle is more limited than the lateral motion.

C) Palpation reveals that the medial malleolus has a more posterior location.

D) The medial malleolus is a prominent process of the enlarged distal portion of the tibia on the inner side of the ankle.

Answer 29

The medial malleolus is a prominent process of the enlarged distal portion of the tibia on the inner side of the ankle.

The malleoli of the ankles serve as important anatomical landmarks. The medial malleolus is a prominent process of the enlarged distal portion of the Tibia on the inner side of the ankle. The lateral malleolus however, is found on the outer side of the ankle and is considered to be the most distal portion of the fibula. Palpation of the lateral malleolus reveals that it projects farther distally than the medial malleolus. As a result, lateral motion is more limited than medial motion. In addition to that, the lateral malleolus has a more posterior location than the medial one. The axis of the ankle joint is identified by an imaginary line just distal to the tips of the malleoli.

Choice A. This describes the lateral malleolus, not the medial malleolus.

Choice B. This describes the lateral malleolus, not the medial malleolus.

Choice C. This describes the lateral malleolus, not the medial malleolus.

Question 30

In a SOAP Note, which letter in the acronym contains the information about changes in the client’s condition during the massage?

A) S

B) O

C) A

D) P

Answer 30

A

Subjective

What did the client say? The subjective component includes a summary of what the client says. Their perception of the pain and how it affects their daily living should be included. Notes from other health care providers the client has seen can also be documented here.

Objective

What does the massage practitioner feel or see? The objective component includes the massage professionals observations of the client and the results of physical evaluations. Note swelling, skin color or temperature, weakness or muscle tone here. Palpation and gait assessment findings should be noted in this section.

Assessment

What did the massage practitioner do? The assessment component includes a summary of notes after treatment is conducted It should indicate whether or not progress made during the session. What is the pain scale number after treatment? Were there changes in range of motion or posture? You should document long and short-term goals and expected functional outcomes.

Planning

What is next? The planning component includes suggestions and reminders for future sessions. You may also include home care suggestions for the client.

Question 31

Holding a yoga pose is a form of ______________________ stretching.

A) static

B) ballistic

C) passive

D) dynamic

Answer 31

Static

Ballistic Stretching

Ballistic stretching employs quick bouncing actions. This type of stretching is not recommended due to high rates of injuries.

Passive (or Relaxed) Stretching

Passive stretching uses slow, steady stretching with gentle force.

Static Stretching

Static stretching is holding a stretch in a constant position. Most forms of yoga include poses that are held for a certain amount of time. Some yoga movements are dynamic. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF Stretching) During a PNF stretch, a body part is moved and held for ten seconds. This individual then contracts muscle against resistance for five seconds. After that, the muscle is then stretched further. Reciprocal Inhibition RI is a stretching technique commonly used to relieve cramps. It involves engaging the antagonist to force the agonist, or prime mover, to release and relax.

Dynamic Stretching

Dynamic stretching means a stretch is performed by moving through a challenging (but comfortable) range of motion, often repeatedly. The end position IS NOT held.

Question 32

Which of the following are psychological effects of massage?

A) Blood pressure regulation.

B) Changes in muscle fiber structure.

C) Movement of food through the digestive tract.

D) Reduced anxiety and stress levels.

Answer 32

Reduced anxiety and stress levels.

Massage can have a positive impact on an individual’s mechanical, physiologic, and psychological levels. Psychologic effects include the following: Reduced anxiety and stress levels. Improved mind-body connection. Improved well-being. Psychologic effects of massage are subjective data that the client experiences.

Question 33

A new client is very nervous about their massage. Which of the autonomic nervous system divisions would cause their heart rate to increase and blood pressure to rise before their appointment?

A) Parasympathetic

B) Sympathetic

C) Somatic

D) Efferent

Answer 33

Sympathetic

The somatic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. This system is made up of nerves that connect to the skin, sensory organs and all skeletal muscles. The system is responsible for nearly all voluntary muscle movement. It also is in charge of processing sensory information (hearing, touch, and sight). The autonomic nervous system is involuntary and further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

The sympathetic nervous system is the system where the “fight or flight” response is in control. The parasympathetic nervous system is in control when housekeeping (digestion) and other restorative processes takes place. This is the system we want in control during a massage.

Question 34

34. _____________ is the local application of moist heat.

A) Cryotherapy

B) Diathermy

C) Heliotherapy

D) Fomentation

Answer 34

Fomentation

Heliotherapy is the use of natural sunlight for the treatment of certain skin conditions.

Fomentation is the application of moist heat or compresses to an area.

Cryotherapy is the therapeutic application of cold and low temperatures.

Diathermy- Use of high-frequency electromagnetic currents for therapy.

Question 35

Which best describes the benefit of manual lymph drainage massage?

A) increase muscle detoxification

B) decrease muscle tension

C) increase edema

D) increase the flow of the lymphatic system in the body

Answer 35

increase the flow of the lymphatic system in the body.

The MAIN purpose of MLD is to increase the flow of the lymphatic system in the body. It can help remove excess fluids (reduce edema) from surgical sites after lymph nodes have been removed or damaged.

Question 36

The amount of pull (stretch) on the tissue (tensile stress) during a massage is called:

A) pressure

B) rhythm

C) directional force

D) drag

Answer 36

Drag

The purpose of lubricants (lotion, oil, cream) during a massage is to reduce friction and control the amount of drag and glide during a massage. Lotions allow for the most drag, or tissue stretch. Oils allow the most slip or glide over tissues, and the least tissue stretch.

Question 37

In a hospice setting, clients generally have a life expectancy of __ months or less.

A) 1

B) 6

C) 12

D) 18

Answer 37

6

Hospice is for people who have a limited life expectancy, typically less that six months. This doesn’t mean the client is going to die in the next six months, only that their health care provider believes their life expectancy is likely less than 6 months.

Question 38

Massage stroke designed to stimulate muscle spindle activity, especially useful in pre-event sports massage

A) Tapotement

B) Friction

C) Effleurage

D) Petrissage

Answer 38

Tapotement

Pre-Event Brisk and Up-tempo -

Tapotement can stimulate muscle fibers Prepares the athlete for activity Not to be longer than 30 minutes No deep tissue techniques Post-Event Soothing and restorative Within a couple hours after an event Reduces muscle tension and soreness and promotes relaxation and healing

Question 39

The most widely used massage stroke/techniques is ______________________.

A) kneading

B) vibration

C) gliding

D) tapotement

Answer 39

Gliding

Gliding, or effleurage, strokes are the most widely used massage strokes.

Question 40

The _________ stroke requires no movement, no slip, and no application of pressure. It requires you touch your client with therapeutic intent. It typically includes lightly resting your hands-on the client at the beginning of a massage.

A) Effleurage

B) Grounding

C) Resting

D) Nerve

Answer 40

Resting

Static Touch, or resting, is a gentle technique sometimes used at the beginning of a massage to gently introduce your touch to your client.

Question 41

A massage treatment room without showers or baths. A) Dry room

B) Sauna

C) Wet room

D) Sweat lodge

Answer 41

Dry room

A dry treatment room is a massage room without showers or baths. Dry rooms are still capable of offering spa treatments without the use of showers and baths with some basic equipment. Wet rooms typically have equipment like Vichy showers or wet tables for spa treatments. These rooms may require drains, slanted floors, and tiling along the walls.

Question 42

Term applied to lifting and squeezing technique of superficial fascia and underlying tissues.

A) petrissage

B) kneading

C) hacking

D) Both A and B are correct

Answer 42

Both A and B are correct.

Petrissage and kneading are both terms used to describe lifting and squeezing technique of superficial fascia and underlying tissues.

Question 43

You are performing effleurage towards the end of your treatment session. You know that the physiologic effects of massage are:

A) Release of certain neurotransmitters.

B) Reduced stress levels.

C) Improved mind-body connection.

D) Reduced anxiety.

Answer 43

Release of certain neurotransmitters.

Massage can have a positive impact on an individual’s mechanical, physiologic, and psychological levels. Physiologic effects include the following: Chages in the structure of muscle fibers. Changed in blood pressure. Release of hormones. Release of neurotransmitters.

Question 44

The asymmetric stance, or _____________ stance, has both feet shoulder-width apart, one foot in front of the other, and the back foot is laterally rotated. Weight is primarily on the back foot. This helps provide leverage for strokes that require a lot of pressure.

A) Archer

B) Bow

C) Lunge

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer 44

All of the above.

Bow Stance Archer, bow, asymmetric or lunge position is used when applying massage techniques that move from one point to the next along the client’s body.

Example: effleurage, or when greater pressure is needed. Both feet should be shoulder-width apart. One foot should be in front of the other with the back foot is laterally rotated. Weight is primarily on the practitioner’s back foot. This helps provide leverage for strokes that require a lot of pressure. Horse Stance Warrior, horse, straight, or symmetric stance is used to perform massage techniques that traverse relatively short distances, such as pétrissage and most friction strokes. The practitioner should place their feet just outside hip distance with toes pointing forward.

Question 45

A self-evaluation of your strengths and weaknesses is a:

A) Self-Assessment

B) Employer review

C) Peer Review

D) External audit

Answer 45

Self-assessment

A self-evaluation of your strengths and weaknesses is called a self-assessment.

Question 46

Also known as net worth, this is the difference between your total assets and liabilities.

A) accounts receivable

B) cash flow

C) equity

D) accounts payable

Answer 46

Equity

Total Assets - Liabilities = Equity

Question 47

Which is not true about laundering sheets?

A) Change sheets after every client.

B) Use hot water and bleach (or other disinfectant) to wash sheets.

C) Keep clean sheets separate from soiled sheets.

D) Use a scented detergent to cover up rancid oils smells.

Answer 47

Use a scented detergent to cover up rancid oils smells.

Sheets should be laundered so that all residue and odors are removed. Scented detergents may bother clients that are sensitive to perfumes and scents.

Question 48

Jane Doe just opened up “Harmony Hands.” Where should she register her fictitious name statement?

A) State massage Board

B) Better Business Bureau

C) County Government

D) Chamber of Commerce

Answer 48

County government

A trade name, fictitious name or “doing business as” (DBA) is a business name that is different from your personal name. DBA registration is done either with your county clerk’s office and/or with your state government. An Employer Identification Number (EIN) is also known as a Federal Tax Identification Number. It is used to identify a business. Sole proprietors usually use their Social Security Numbers (SSN).

Question 49

What does the abbreviation CDC mean in healthcare? A) Center for Diastolic Control

B) Concern for Digital Connections

C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

D) Center for Diathermy and Cryotherapy

Answer 49

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

The CDC is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is a U.S. federal agency under the Health and Human Services (HHS) Department that deals with health promotion and disease prevention.

Question 50

The __________ is a private or government organization that insures or pays for health care on behalf of beneficiaries.

A) agent

B) provider

C) payer

D) beneficiary

Answer 50

Payer

The payer is a private or government organization that insures or pays for health care on behalf of beneficiaries. The beneficiary is the person covered under the terms of the policy. An agent is an individual salesperson who is licensed to sell insurance. A provider is a person or institution that gives medical care.

Question 51

An expense you can legally subtract from your income when figuring your taxes.

A) Tax Audit

B) Tax Credit

C) Tax Deduction

D) Sales Tax

Answer 51

Tax deduction

A tax deduction is an expense you can legally subtract from your income when figuring your taxes.

A tax credit is an amount you can legally subtract from your tax owed.

Sales tax is based on the dollar value of a good or service being sold. An audit is an inspection of a filer’s tax return by the IRS.

Question 52

Which is not a rule to follow when cleaning a massage room and office?

A) Dust with a damp cloth to minimize the movement of dust

B) Clean from the cleanest to dirtiest area in the massage room

C) Store used linens in a closed bag or container

D) Store clean linens in a place that allows for cross contamination with soiled linens

Answer 52

Store clean linens in a place that allows for cross contamination with soiled linens

Store clean linens in a place that DOES NOT ALLOW for cross-contamination with soiled linens. All other choices are recommended cleaning procedures.

Question 53

Cash, furniture, and equipment are also known as _______________.

A) revenue

B) assets

C) capital

D) liabilities

Answer 53

Assets

An asset is anything owned that has a dollar value (example: massage table). A liability is any debt of an individual, business or other organization. Capital is the difference between the total assets and liabilities of a business. Also known as net worth or owner’s equity. Revenue is the same as income, earnings or money received.

Question 54

When a promise, contract, or duty is not honored it is called ______.

A) libel

B) incompetence

C) a statute

D) a breach

Answer 54

A breach

When a promise, contract, or duty is not honored it is called a breech. There is typically legal recourse if a person does not fulfill the terms their contract.

Question 55

The CDC handwashing guidelines recommend scrubbing hands for at least ____ seconds.

A) 20

B) 30

C) 45

D) 60

Answer 55

20

Wet your hands with clean, running water (warm or cold), turn off the tap, and apply soap. Lather your hands by rubbing them together with the soap. Be sure to lather the backs of your hands, between your fingers, and under your nails. Scrub your hands for at least 20 seconds. Need a timer? Hum the “Happy Birthday” song from beginning to end twice. Rinse your hands well under clean, running water. Dry your hands using a clean towel or air dry them.

Question 56

In a free market, the quantity of a product and how many people want the product.

A) Supply and Demand

B) Risk

C) Fiduciary Duties

D) Barriers to Entry

Answer 56

Supply and demand

In a free market, supply and demand are the quantity of a product and how many people want the product.

Question 57

If sheets become _______________, they should be replaced.

A) stained

B) threadbare

C) see-through

D) All of the above are reasons for sheets to be replace

Answer 57

All of the above

are reasons for sheets to be replace When linens become stained, fade, thin or threadbare, they should be replaced.

Question 58

A ____________ is an agreement between two or more parties.

A) by-laws

B) statute

C) contract

D) canon

Answer 58

Contract

A contract is an agreement between two or more parties. Statutes are laws enacted by state or federal legislatures. Canon is a regulation or dogma decreed by a church council. Bylaws are rules that an organization or company makes and that its members must follow. It may also be a rule/ordinance set by a local government.

Question 59

Name the muscle shown in the photo:

B) Quadratus femoris

C) Quadratus lumborum

D) Gluteus minimus

Answer 59

Piriformis

This is the piriformis muscle. It lies deep to the gluteal muscles but has a huge impact on trunk and lower limb flexibility and strength.

Origin: Anterior surface of the sacrum Insertion: Upper border of the greater trochanter of the femur

Action: Hip external rotation Innervation: First and second sacral nerves

Question 60

Insertion of Teres Minor:

A) Greater Tubercle of the humerus

B) Lesser tubercle of the humerus

C) Spine of the scapula

D) Axillary boarder of the scapula

Answer 60

Greater Tubercle of the humerus

ORIGIN Lateral or axillary border of the scapula. INSERTION Greater tubercle of the humerus.

ACTION Lateral rotation of the humerus.

Question 61

What action is produced if only one side of this muscle contracts?

A) Flexion and lateral flexion of the vertebral column to the same side

B) Flexion and lateral flexion of the vertebral column to the opposite side

C) Extension and lateral flexion of the vertebral column to the same side

D) Extension and lateral flexion of the vertebral column to the opposite side

Answer 61

Extension and lateral flexion of the vertebral column to the same side

This is the longissimus thoracis muscle. It is a part of the erector spinae group of muscles that act to stabilize and extend the vertebral column.

Origin: Iliocostalis lumborum, lumbodorsal fascia, transverse and mamillary processes of the lumbar vertebrae Insertion: Tips of transverse processes of all thoracic vertebrae and lower 9 or 10 ribs

Action: Unilateral contraction produces extension of the vertebral column and lateral/ side flexion to the same side. Bilateral contraction produces extension and hyperextension of the vertebral column. Also, these muscles draw the ribs down to help with breathing. Innervation: Dorsal rami of T7-L5 spinal nerves

Question 62

What is the action of this muscle?

A) Retraction of mandible

B) Protraction of mandible

C) Depression of hyoid bone

D) Elevation of hyoid bone

Answer 62

Elevation of hyoid bone

This is the digastric, a muscle of the neck. It is composed of two (2) bellies- the posterior and anterior bellies.

Origin: Posterior belly from the mastoid process of temporal bone. Anterior belly from body of mandible. Insertion: Intermediate tendon is held to hyoid by fascial sling.

Action: Depresses mandible or elevates hyoid bone. Innervation: Posterior belly by facial nerve. Anterior belly by nerve to mylohyoid.

Question 63

Origin of Rectus abdominis:

A) Iliac Crest

B) Pubic Crest and Pubic Symphysis

C) Costal Cartilages (ribs), Xiphoid Process, and Sternum

D) Linea Alba

Answer 63

Pubic Crest and Pubic Symphysis

ORIGIN Crest of pubis.

INSERTION Costal cartilage of ribs 5-7, xiphoid process of sternum.

ACTION Flexes trunk and compresses abdominal contents.

Question 64

The hamstring portion of this muscle can also _____. A) Flex the hip

B) Extend the hip

C) Internally rotate the hip

D) Externally rotate the hip

Answer 64

Extend the hip

This is the adductor magnus. As its name implies, it is the most powerful adductor muscle of the hip. It is also the largest one among the three adductor muscles which all lie in the medial portion of the thigh. It consists of two parts- the adductor portion and the hamstring portion.

Origin: Adductor portion from the ischiopubic ramus. Hamstring portion from the ischial tuberosity. Insertion: Adductor portion to the linea aspera of femur. Hamstring portion to the adductor tubercle of femur.

Action: Both portions adduct the hip. Adductor portion can flex the hip while the hamstring portion can extend the hip. Innervation: Adductor portion by the posterior portion of the Obturator nerve. Hamstring portion by the sciatic nerve.

Question 65

Action of Sternocleidomastoid:

A) Lateral Flexion of Head

B) Rotation of head to opposite side

C) Bilateral flexion of head

D) All of the above

Answer 65

All of the above.

ORIGIN Manubrium of the sternum, clavicle. INSERTION Mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line.

ACTION Cervical rotation to opposite side (unilaterally), cervical lateral flexion to the same side (unilaterally), cervical flexion (bilaterally), raises the sternum and assists in forced inhalation (bilaterally).

Question 66

Where do these muscles insert to?

A) Articular processes of C4-C7

B) Transverse processes of T1-T5

C) Transverse processes of C2-C6

D) Posterior margin of mastoid process and temporal bone

Answer 66

Transverse processes of C2-C6

The photo shows us the longissimus cervicis muscle. It is a part of the erector spinae group of muscles that stabilize the vertebral column.

Origin: Transverse processes of T1-T5 Insertion: Transverse processes of C2-C6

Action: Unilateral contraction produces extension of vertebral column and lateral flexion to the same side. Bilateral contraction produces extension and hyperextension of the vertebral column. Innervation: Posterior branch of spinal nerves

Question 67

Adductor magnus is named for its:

A) Location

B) Shape

C) Attachment sites

D) Size and action

Answer 67

Size and action

Adductor magnus is named for its action (adducts the hip) and size (“Magnus” is Latin for “large”).

Question 68

What nerve innervates this muscle?

A) Posterior interosseous nerve

B) Anterior interosseous nerve

C) Median nerve

D) Ulnar nerve

Answer 68

Posterior interosseous nerve

The photo shows us the extensor digiti minimi. As its name “minimi” implies, this muscle acts on the little finger. Extensor digiti minimi traverses from the lateral side of the elbow down to the ulnar side of the extensor digitorum communis muscle.

Origin: Lateral epicondyle of the humerus Insertion: Extensor expansion of the little finger (Located at the base of the proximal phalanx of the little finger)

Action: Extends the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the little finger Innervation: Deep branch of radial nerve, also known as posterior interosseous nerve

Question 69

This striated skeletal muscle has its proximal attachment to the _____.

A) Lateral surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction

B) Medial surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction

C) Inferior surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction

D) Superior surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction

Answer 69

Superior surface of the eyeball just posterior to the corneoscleral junction

This is the superior rectus muscle. It is classified as an extrinsic muscle of the eyeball and is also a type of striated skeletal muscle.

Origin: Tendinous ring on posterior wall of the orbital cavity Insertion: Superior surface of the eyeball just posterior to corneoscleral junction

Action: Raises cornea upward and medially Innervation: Oculomotor nervr (CN III)

Question 70

Primary Hip Flexor beyond 90 degrees

A) Rectus Femoris

B) Iliopsoas

C) Sartorius

D) Tensor Fascia Latae

Answer 70

Iliopsoas Beyond 90 degrees

the Iliopsoas muscles primarily flex the hip. Rectus femoris and Sartorius are weaker hip flexors.

Question 71

A positive Cullen sign is indicative of ______.

A) Appendicitis

B) Diverticular disease

C) Chronic pancreatitis

D) Acute pancreatitis

Answer 71

Acute pancreatitis

Appendicitis refers to the inflammation of the vermiform appendix. It is characterized by pain that begins in the umbilical region and then localizes at the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, over the site of the appendix.

Diverticular disease may come in the form of Diverticulosis or Diverticulitis. In general, there is presence of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant with the iliopsoas and obturator tests. The pain may also refer to the lower back region. Basically, pancreatitis refers to an inflammation of the pancreas that may result in autodigestion of the pancreas of its own enzymes. It may come in two forms- acute and chronic pancreatitis.

Chronic pancreatitis refers to the progressive destruction of the pancreas with accompanying irregular fibrosis and chronic inflammation. There is persistent and recurrent epigastric and left upper quadrant pain. It may be referred to the upper left lumbar region.

Acute pancreatitis is caused by chronic alcoholism or toxicity of other agents. It is characterized by a bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area also known as Cullen sign and a reddish-brown discoloration of the flanks known as Turner’s sign.

Question 72

The space posterior to the knee that is bordered by the heads of the gastrocnemius and distal hamstring muscles is the _____________.

A) Sciatic Notch

B) Popliteal Fossa

C) Femoral Triangle

D) Inguinal Triangle

Answer 72

Popliteal fossa

Posterior knee The popliteal fossa contains: Popliteal artery Tibial nerve Common peroneal nerve

Question 73

All of the following are complications that bruxism may bring, except:

A) Chipped or loose teeth

B) Bell’s Palsy

C) Temporomandibular joint dysfunction

D) Tension-type headaches

Answer 73

Bell’s Palsy

Bruxism is a medical condition where a person unconsciously grinds, gnashes, or clenches his/her teeth. It can be categorized into two- sleep bruxism and awake bruxism. More commonly, sleep bruxism affects more people and leads to more complications since the bruxist is asleep and may not wake up immediately to stop the grinding. In addition to that, sleep bruxism is considered as a sleep-related movement disorder and more likely coincides with other sleep disorders such as sleep apnea and snoring.

Although the exact cause of the condition is yet to be determined, the risk factors that may predispose a person include: stress, anxiety, personality type, medications and other substances, intake of caffeine and alcohol, other family members with bruxism, and other medical conditions such as sleep apnea, epilepsy, Parkinson’s disease, gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD), attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and others. Bruxism produces several symptoms such as orofacial pain, headaches, sleep disturbances, pain in the jaw and neck, pain in the ear though the actual problem is not the ear, lock jaw that may not open or close fully. Short term and long term complications of bruxism are present as well. Due to constant and repetitive grinding of the teeth, the tooth may be chipped, there will be persistence of facial pain and headaches, and the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) may be affected as well.

Question 74

What is meant by a “functional short leg”?

A) One leg is shorter than the other leg from birth, trauma or lack of growth.

B) One leg is shorter than the other from altered body mechanics (foot problems, pelvic tilt, or other muscle imbalance).

C) One femur is shorter than the other femur. D) One tibia is shorter than the other tibia

Answer 74

One leg is shorter than the other from altered body mechanics (foot problems, pelvic tilt, or other muscle imbalance).

A functional short leg can be caused by one leg is shorter than the other from altered body mechanics (foot problems, pelvic tilt, or other muscle imbalances). This is not a true short leg that is caused by a true structural shortage (lack of growth in bone on one side, trauma, congenital deformity, or disease).

Question 75

It is a progressive disease that results in contracture of the palmar fascia.

A) Trigger finger

B) Polydactyly

C) Boutonniere deformity

D) Dupuytren contracture

Answer 75

Dupuytren contracture

Trigger finger is also termed as digital tenovaginitis stenosans. It is caused by the thickening of the flexor tendon sheath. When the person attempt to flex the finger, the tendon sticks and the finger lets go with a snap.

Polydactyly is the presence of more than the normal number of fingers or toes.

Boutonniere deformity is caused by rupture of the central tendinous slip of the extensor hood. It is characterized as extension of the MCP and DIP joints and flexion of the PIP joints. Dupuytren’s contracture basically refers to contracture of the palmar fascia. It is characterized by flexion of the MCP and PIP joints and is usually seen in the 4th or 5th finger.

Question 76

A condition where a muscle loses strength and decreases in size because of a lack of use (may be by choice or because of nerve damage).

A) Tendonitis

B) Atrophy

C) Fibromyalgia

D) Ischemia

Answer 76

Atrophy

Atrophy is a condition where a muscle loses strength and decreases in size because of a lack of use.

Question 77

The weakening of the muscular portion of an artery that causes the vessel to dilate abnormally and potentially to rupture is called a/n _______________. A) aneurysm

B) varicosity

C) bypass

D) atrophy

Answer 77

Aneurysm

The weakening of the muscular portion of an artery that causes the vessel to dilate abnormally and potentially to rupture is called aneurysm,

Question 78

A condition where endometrial tissue escapes from the uterus is known as:

A) ectopic pregnancy

B) adhesions

C) endometriosis

D) polycystic ovarian syndrome

Answer 78

endometriosis

A condition where endometrial tissue escapes from the uterus is known as endometriosis. A pregnancy outside the uterus, where a fertilized egg attaches to the fallopian tube, is an ectopic pregnancy. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is an endocrine system disorder.

Question 79

______ is a condition in which white patches develop on the skin due to the destruction of pigment-forming cells known as melanocytes.

A) Melanoma

B) Vitiligo

C) Psoriasis

D) Albinism

Answer 79

Vitiligo

Vitiligo is a condition in which white patches develop on the skin due to the destruction of pigment-forming cells known as melanocytes. People with vitiligo are usually born with normal pigmentation in their skin and hair, but over time, as the melanocytes die, their skin takes on a patchy appearance. In albinism, the little or no pigment in the skin, hair, and/or eyes are usually present at birth.

Question 80

Which is the most severe type of bone fracture?

A) simple

B) compound

C) greenstick

D) stress

Answer 80

compound

Types of Fractures:

Greenstick fracture: an incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent or the fracture is not complete.

Most common in childhood since bones are more flexible during that time.

Stress fracture: minor fracture that is a hairline crack.

Compound fracture: most severe type of fracture.

Question 81

What system is most commonly affected when a client complains of frequent heartburn or indigestion? A) Cardiovascular

B) Gastrointestinal

C) Neurological

D) Cancer

Answer 81

Gastrointestinal

Signs and symptoms pertaining to the cardiovascular system do not include frequent heartburn or indigestion. Instead, pathology of the said system presents with shortness of breath, dizziness, pain or feeling of heaviness in the chest, discolored or painful feet, and swelling with no history of physical trauma.

Frequent heartburn or indigestion is indicative of problems with the gastrointestinal system or the genitourinary system. Other signs and symptoms include frequent or severe abdominal pain, nausea or vomiting, unusual menstrual irregularities, and changes in or problems with bladder/ bowel function. Neurological signs and symptoms include changes in hearing, frequent or severe headaches with no history of injury, problems of swallowing or changes in speech, vision changes, drop attacks, sudden weakness, and problems with balance, coordination, or falling. Signs and symptoms related to cancer are indicative of red flag findings and should be referred immediately to the physician. An acronym that should be remembered is CAUTION

This stands for changes in bladder/bowel habits, a sore that does not heal in 6 weeks, unusual bleeding or discharge, thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere in the body, indigestion or difficulty swallowing, obvious change in size or appearance of a mole or wart, and nagging cough or hoarseness.

Question 82

Which endangerment area is bordered by the sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius, and clavicle? A) Medial Brachium

B) Axilla

C) Posterior Triangle of the Neck

D) Anterior Triangle of the Neck

Answer 82

Posterior Triangle of the Neck

It is bordered by the SCM, trapezius, and clavicle. This area contains the brachiocephalic artery and vein.

Question 83

What is the name of the pathology caused by inflammation inside of a vein?

A) Deep vein thrombosis

B) Pyelonephritis

C) Phlebitis

D) Embolism

Answer 83

Phlebitis

Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, usually in the legs. It is often a sign of a DVT, or blood clot. Any of these conditions, circumstances or symptoms contraindicate massage. Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Question 84

What disease is marked by inflammation of the liver caused by a blood-borne virus?

A) AIDS

B) HIV

C) Hepatitis

D) Nephritis

Answer 84

Hepatitis

Hepatitis– Inflammation of the liver caused by viruses Hepatitis A– Hepatitis A is transmitted by contaminated food or water. It causes upset stomach and abdominal pain. It is not a chronic disease. Hepatitis B– HBV spreads by contact with an infected person’s blood, semen or other body fluid. HBV can resolve after a few months, or become chronic and last a lifetime. Chronic HBV can lead to scarring of the liver, liver failure or liver cancer.

There is a vaccine for HBV. Hepatitis C- HCV spreads through contact with infected blood, sex with an infected person or from mother to baby during childbirth. The infection can be chronic and may lead to scarring of the liver or liver cancer.

Question 85

A massage therapist explains to a client the benefits of using hydrotherapy heat packs. The client appears to understand the therapist’s explanation. However, the client suddenly seems nervous and asks the therapist not to use the heat packs. The most appropriate therapist action is to:

A) Reassure the patient that the heat will not be harmful and continue using them

B) Use only slightly warm packs

C) Tell the client that is fine and select another appropriate therapy they consent to using- other than the heat packs

D) Ask the client to explain their past experience with heat packs and counsel them until they relax and okay the use of heat packs

Answer 85

Tell the client that is fine and select another appropriate therapy they consent to using- other than the heat packs If the client does not agree to the things you discuss, they have the right of refusal.

This is the right not to have a massage, or parts of the massage. They may refuse the massage before it takes place, or during the massage. This right also extends to the therapist.

A massage professional can refuse to perform massage on a client. If the client is misleading about their health, inappropriate, late, or unwilling to pay the fees set, you may refuse service.

Question 86

A sign of _____________ is when the practitioner tries to find ways to be involved with the client outside the therapeutic setting (massage clinic).

A) Polarity

B) Countertransference

C) Self-Disclosure

D) Transference

Answer 86

Countertransference

Transference vs. Countertransference

Transference occurs when the client makes the professional relationship personal. The client transfers onto a current relationship thoughts or feelings that originated in a different, past relationship. Countertransference goes in the opposite direction of transference. The therapist, or professional, transfers onto the client their own issues from the past. It also occurs when the professional is unable to separate the therapeutic relationship from their personal feelings surrounding the client.

Question 87

A client with Crohn’s disease would be referred to which specialist?

A) Urologist

B) Nephrologist

C) Gynecologist

D) Gastroenterologist

Answer 87

Gastroenterologist

Crohn’s is and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Gastroenterologists are physicians who specialize in the digestive/gastrointestinal system.

Question 88

What is the purpose of public policy/law with respect to licensed massage therapists?

A) protect the public by ensuring massage practitioners are competent

B) protect the profession of massage by ensuring practitioners are competent and separate from illegitimate massage

C) protect the profession of massage by ensuring clients are held accountable for their actions

D) none of the above

Answer 88

protect the public by ensuring massage practitioners are competent

The purpose of massage laws and acts is to protect the public by ensuring massage practitioners are competent.

Question 89

A massage therapist has a home business and has been found in violation of a zoning ordinance. The massage therapist may ________________________.

A) pay the fine and keep on massaging at home

B) get a conditional permit or obtain a zoning variance

C) remove the business sign and tell clients not to tell anyone that the business is still running within the home

D) notify the zoning committee that health care facilities are exempt from zoning regulations

Answer 89

get a conditional permit or obtain a zoning variance

If a massage therapist has a home business and has been found in violation of a zoning ordinance, the massage therapist may get a conditional permit or obtain a zoning variance. Health care facilities are not exempt from zoning laws and regulations.

Question 90

A client called and canceled their appointment and said they would call back and reschedule in a couple weeks. After a few weeks, they do not call. You know that massage is really beneficial to their condition and think about calling them and getting them back on a schedule. What ethical principle would you be violating?

A) Fidelity

B) Non-maleficence

C) Autonomy

D) Justice

Answer 90

Autonomy

Autonomy is respect for another’s right to self-determine a course of action or a support of independent decision making. It is their decision to make the appointment, not the practitioner’s decision.

Question 91

Which of the physical devices below is within the scope of massage therapy?

A) Laser therapy

B) Ultrasound

C) TENS unit

D) None of the above

Answer 91

None of the above.

Unless a massage therapist has separate license or permit, the general use of these devices is not permitted within the scope of massage therapy.

Question 92

In what situation could a practitioner disclose information about a client without the client’s consent?

A) Due to HIPAA no such situation exists where you can disclose information.

B) You may disclose information when talking with your spouse.

C) You may disclose information when talking with the client’s spouse.

D) You may disclose information when under law or court order, or when necessary for the protection of the public.

Answer 92

You may disclose information when under law or court order, or when necessary for the protection of the public.

You may ONLY disclose HIPAA protected information when under law or court order, or when necessary for the protection of the public.

Question 93

You wake up one morning with a mild fever (99 degrees). What is the best step?

A) Take fever reducer and go to work

B) Reschedule clients until after 24 after a fever has disappeared

C) Go to work but avoid socializing with people.

D) Go to work, but wear a mask

Answer 93

Reschedule clients until after 24 after a fever has disappeared Staying home when ill protects the public.

We all the ethical obligations to prevent harm to others and illness causes harm. Staying home when ill protects the public. We also need to take care of ourselves when we are under the weather.

Question 94

A male client falls asleep and experiences an erection during a massage session. He makes no verbal or nonverbal communication about it. What is the best response to this by the massage therapist?

A) Ignore it and continue the session

B) Report it to the client’s spouse

C) End the session immediately and terminate the client/therapist relationship

D) Refer the client to a doctor for an evaluation

Answer 94

Ignore it and continue the session

“The parasympathetic system is responsible for the body’s “rest and digest” function hence, after ingestion of a huge amount of meal, it would stimulate the parasympathetic division. This results in constriction of the eyes, stimulation of the salivary glands, decreased heart rate and myocardial contraction, constriction of the lungs, vasodilation of the blood vessels, increased motility of the GI tract, contraction of the detrusor muscle, relaxation of the sphincter, AND erection of the genitals.

This may just be a parasympathetic response to the massage. The best answer here is if the client makes no inappropriate mention of it, ignore it and continue with the massage. However, you can also choose to address the situation, the intent, and if needed - explain about the parasympathetic response. Every situation is different.

Question 95

__________ created national standards to protect an individual’s medical records and other personal health information (PHI).

A) CHIP

B) Medicare

C) Social Security

D) HIPAA

Answer 95

HIPAA

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was enacted by the U.S. Congress in 1996. HIPAA created national standards to protect an individual’s medical records and other personal Health Information (PHI). HIPAA information can be found on the government’s HIPAA website

Question 96

Which is not an example of a violation of time boundaries?

A) Missed appointments

B) Showing up late to appointments

C) Failing to work for the entire session length

D) Asking if a practitioner takes walk-ins

Answer 96

Asking if a practitioner takes walk-ins Simply asking if a practitioner takes walk-ins is not a violation of time, or any other, boundary.

Missing appointment (by either party), showing up late (by either party), or failing to provide a client with the entire session amount (if they were on time) are violations of the time boundary.

Question 97

When a client fails to keep an appointment, the massage professional should:

A) bill the appointment fee to the insurance company B) document the failed appointment in the client’s chart

C) call the client’s nearest relative to check on their well-being

D) Ask them on their Facebook wall why they missed their appointment their family or post it on Facebook.

Answer 97

document the failed appointment in the client’s chart

The best thing to do when a client fails to keep an appointment is to mark the failed appointment in their chart. Charging the client for the missed appointment is up to the practitioner, but the client’s insurance should not be charge Ethically, it is not appropriate to contact

Question 98

During a massage session, the therapist asks their client (a lawyer) for advice on a legal matter. This action:

A) is an example of bigotry.

B) exploits the power differential.

C) is sexual misconduct.

D) practicing outside the scope of practice.

Answer 98

exploits the power differential.

There is a natural power differential in all relationships. A client that is on the table, undressed, with the therapist over them, is in a vulnerable position. They may feel obligated to answer the therapist’s questions, even though the therapist has crossed a professional boundary.

Question 99

In _____, health care professionals provide appropriate information to patients/clients to help them make decisions regarding their own health care.

A) Informed consent

B) Dual relationships

C) Beneficence

D) Autonomy

Answer 99

Informed consent

Informed consent means providing and explaining to the patient/client appropriate information to help them in the decision-making process about their own health care.

Question 100

During a massage session, your female client intentionally stroked your genitals. What is your best course of action?

A) Talk to your client that her action was inappropriate and that you have to end the massage session.

B) Disregard the action and pretend that you did not feel anything.

C) Immediately terminate the session and ban the client from the clinic.

D) Ask another massage therapist to finish the session for you.

Answer 100

Talk to your client that her action was inappropriate and that you have to end the massage session.

The client not just crossed physical boundaries but sexual boundaries as well. The genitals, perineum and anus should be covered at all times and should never be touched by the massage therapist or the client. It would be best to talk to your client and explain that her actions will not be tolerated. You may end the massage session and refuse for a reschedule.