Exam 2 Flashcards
The L4 nerve root supplies which of the following dermatomes?
A) Buttock, posterior and lateral thigh, lateral aspect of the leg, dorsum of the foot, medial half of the sole, and first, second and third toes
B) Medial buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of the foot, big toe
C) Back, upper butoock, anterior thigh and knee, medial lower leg
D) Back, front of thigh to knee
Medial buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of the foot, big toe
The sensory distribution of each nerve root is called the dermatome. Dermatome is defined as the area of skin supplied by a single nerve root. The area innervated by a nerve root is larger than that innervated by a peripheral nerve. The L4 nerve root corresponds to the dermatomal level of the medial buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of the foot, and the big toe.
Choice A. The dermatomal level supplied by the L5 nerve root corresponds to the buttock, posterior and lateral thigh, lateral aspect of the leg, dorsum of the foot, medial half of the sole, and the first, second and third toes.
Choice C. The dermatomal level supplied by the L3 nerve root corresponds to the back, upper buttock, anterior thigh and knee, and the medial lower leg.
Choice D. The dermatomal level supplied by the L2 nerve root corresponds to the back, and the front of thigh to knee.
An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called:
A) acne vulgaris
B) pityriasis rosea
C) psoriasis
D) urticaria
urticaria
Urticaria, another name for hives, is a skin rash triggered by certain foods, medications, allergies, and stress.
The plane that divides the body into front and back sections is called the __________.
A) coronal plane
B) midsagittal plane
C) sagittal plane
D) transverse plane
coronal plane
Sagittal plane - runs vertically through the body, separating it into right and left portions. They are not necessarily equal.
Median plane / Midsagittal plane - passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal right and left halves.
Transverse (horizontal) plane - runs parallel to the ground, dividing the body into superior and inferior portions.
Frontal (coronal) plane - runs vertically from right to left and divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
Refusing to work with someone due to personal beliefs, race, religion, national origin, gender, disability, sexual orientation, or socioeconomic status is called:
A) harassment
B) bigotry
C) a power differential
D) self-disclosure
bigotry
Refusing to work with someone due to personal beliefs, race, religion, national origin, gender, disability, sexual orientation, or socioeconomic status is called bigotry.
Identify the muscle shown in the photo below.
A) Extensor pollicis brevis
B) Extensor pollicis longus
C) Extensor indicis
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
The photo shows us the extensor pollicis brevis muscle which lies at the posterior surface of the forearm. From the name itself “pollicis,” this muscle acts on the thumb.
Origin: Posterior surface of distal end of shaft of radius
Insertion: Base of proximal phalanx of the thumb
Action: Extends the metacarpophalangeal joints of thumb
Innervation: Deep branch of radial nerve
- Clients with _____________ may have a difficult time lying prone.
A) head congestion
B) large chests or breasts
C) chest congestion
D) Both A and B
Both A and B
Female clients with large breasts or any client with head congestion may be uncomfortable in the prone position. Females may need additional bolsters or try side-lying position. Head congestion may be best suited in the seated position.
What is another name for pink eye?
A) conjunctivitis
B) rotavirus
C) Fifth disease
D) diphtheria
conjunctivitis
Conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, is inflammation of the outermost layer of the white part of the eye and eyelids (the conjunctiva). The eye will appear pink or red. Often the affected eye may have increased tears, drainage or be “stuck/matted shut” in the morning. It can affect one or both eyes. It often occurs with other viral cold symptoms, but can also be caused from bacteria. It is HIGHLY contagious. It can get on surfaces, such as face cradles, and spread very easily. Make needed referrals and reschedule massage after the symptoms have resolved.
If you have a cut or injury on your hand, during each massage you need to ____________ to prevent disease transmission.
A) use gloves
B) only use gloves if the client is HIV positive or has Hepatitis
C) use gloves only if your client has an open wound
D) take a week off work until it heals
use gloves
If you have a cut or injury on your hand, during each massage you need to use gloves during EVERY massage until the wound is healed.
You can assess a client’s passive range of motion by:
A) Instructing the client to move through their normal range of motion.
B) Resisting the client as they move through their normal range of motion.
C) Asking the client to move through their normal range of motion.
D) Moving the client to move through their normal range of motion yourself.
Moving the client to move through their normal range of motion yourself.
Active – AROM is when the practitioner allows a client to go through ROM alone.
Active Assistive – AAROM is when the practitioner assists a client through ROM.
Passive – PROM is when the practitioner moves a client through ROM. There is no effort from the client.
Active Resistive – ARROM is when the practitioner applies resistance during a client’s ROM.
A sprain is a stretching or tearing of a:
A) band of fascia
B) muscle
C) ligamen
t D) tendon
ligament
Strain and sprain are used interchangeably by clients, but they are different types of injuries.
A sprain is a stretching or tearing of ligaments while a strain is a stretching or tearing of a muscle tissue or tendon. Most commonly, the ankles are more prone to sprains while the hamstring muscle is more prone to strain.
What is not an official term for a bony landmark?
A) tubercle
B) trochanter
C) facet
D) bump
bump
A “bump” is not an official term for a bony landmark. All the other choices are official anatomical terms for various features of bones.
Choice A. A tubercle is a small, rounded projection from a bone.
Choice B. A trochanter is a large projection or tuberosity on the proximal femur.
Choice C. A facet is a flat to slightly concave/convex surface that articulates with other bones (example: vertebrae).
A type of massage that encourages body contouring, waste removal to lessen the appearance of cellulite.
A) Champissage
B) Aston Patterning
C) Facassage
D) Lypossage
Lypossage
Lypossage is a type of massage that encourages body contouring, waste removal to lessen the appearance of cellulite.
Champissage is also known as ‘Indian head massage’ and focuses on the head, neck and shoulders.
Aston patterning is a specific massage modality used to treat muscle pain.
Facassage is a trademarked massage modality by Bonita Howes. It is a face toning massage and myofascial release for the face, scalp, neck, and shoulders incorporating hot and cold therapies.
What does the letter T in the acronym METH stand for?
A) Treatment
B) Traction
C) Training
D) Tapotement
Traction
METH is a newer acronym used by health professionals as an alternative to RICE.
M= Movement
E= Elevation
T= Traction
H= Heat
The ________________ stroke applies pressure to soft tissues to squeeze them together without any slip. The tissues can either be pressed against the underlying bone, or they can be manually squeezed together with the practitioner’s hands and fingers.
A) compression
B) petrissage
C) friction
D) vibration
compression
Compression (Pumping) strokes are a form of friction. The strokes are directed vertically down into the belly of the muscle towards the bone or other tissues. There is no slip or glide with compression strokes.
A client asks to extend her massage session and would like to give you an extra payment. You politely decline and explain to her that therapists follow a timely schedule for each client. In this scenario, you are practicing a _____ boundary trait.
A) Healthy
B) Rigid
C) Weak
D) Inflexible
Healthy
Boundary Traits and Styles Rigid/Inflexible/Impermeable/Thick People with rigid boundaries are closed off as if there is a wall around them. They are unable to let others get close to them, physically or emotionally. They have few close relationships, are extremely protective of personal information, and often seem detached from others.
Weak/Permeable/Porous/Thin People with soft or weak boundaries are essentially unprotected and allow unwanted attacks or abuse. They have difficulty defining and asserting their own rights and responsibilities. They have trouble saying “no”, tend to overshare, and often fear rejection if they do not comply with the demands of others.
Healthy/Flexible/Semi-permeable People with flexible or healthy boundaries choose what to let in and what to keep out. They are able to do this on a situation-specific and case-by-case basis. People with healthy boundaries are difficult to manipulate and often form healthy relationships. They are accepting with others say “no”, share personal information in an appropriate manner, and can communicate their personal needs and wants.
This disease is characterized by the slow deterioration of muscle function due to myelin sheath decay is:
A) epilepsy
B) multiple sclerosis
C) muscular dystrophy
D) meningitis
multiple sclerosis
Muscular dystrophy is a disease is characterized by the progressive atrophy of skeletal muscles without nerve involvement. Symptoms begin in childhood. In Multiple Sclerosis, the immune system attacks the protective sheath (myelin) that covers nerve fibers and causes communication problems between your brain and body. Symptoms begin in adulthood.
All of the following are actions of this muscle, except:
A) Eversion at the subtalar joint
B) Plantarflexion of the ankle
C) Support of medial longitudinal arch
D) Support of lateral longitudinal arch
Eversion at the subtalar joint
This is the flexor digitorum longus muscle. It lis deep into the posterior surface of the lower leg.
Origin: Posterior surface of shaft of tibia Insertion: Bases of distal phalanges of lateral four toes (this does not include the great toe)
Action: Flexion of the distal phalanges of lateral four toes (distal interphalangeal joints or DIP); Plantarflexion of the ankle; Support for the medial and lateral longitudinal arches
Innervation: Tibial nerve
If a business sells products, or offers services that are taxed, a ____ must be obtained.
A) Doing Business As
B) Federal Tax Identification Number
C) Spa Establishment License
D) Sales Tax Permit
Sales Tax Permit
Some states requires a sales tax permit to be obtained if the business sells tangible products or offers taxable services.
The sural nerve can be found by palpating:
A) between the olecranon and the medial epicondyle of the humerus
B) the mid to lower part of the leg, where calf muscles join to the Achilles’ tendon
C) the lateral epicondyle of the femur
D) the medial epicondyle of the femur
the mid to lower part of the leg, where calf muscles join to the Achilles’ tendon
The sural nerve can be palpated on the lateral aspect of the leg and foot. Here is the best description of how to find it - Reach down to the outside of your ankle. Put your finger on the lateral malleolus and slide it down inferior the malleolus about a centimeter. It can also be palpated along the midline of the back of the lower leg where calf muscles join to the Achilles’ tendon.
The most you will have to pay for covered medical expenses in a plan year through deductible and coinsurance before your insurance plan begins to pay 100 percent of covered medical expenses.
A) copay
B) deductible
C) coinsurance
D) out of pocket maximum
out of pocket maximum
A deductible amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin. A premium is money the insured pays to a health plan for a policy.
A co-pay is a fixed payment for a covered service.
Co-insurance is a portion of charges a person must pay, usually a percentage of the service. A fee schedule is a list of services or procedures indemnified by the insurance company and of the specific dollar amounts that will be paid for each service.
Out-of-Pocket Maximum is the most you will have to pay for covered medical expenses in a plan year through deductible and coinsurance before your insurance plan begins to pay 100 percent of covered medical expenses.
__________ is an abrupt restriction to a joint movement because pain.
A) An empty end feel
B) A soft end feel
C) A hard end feel
D) A squishy end feel
An empty end feel
Springy Block - During a PROM test a client withdrawals (rebounds) with some discomfort.
Empty - During a PROM test a client requests to stop and you are not able to assess the ROM.
Soft - During a PROM you notice a squishy, springy or yielding sensation.
Hard - During a PROM you notice a grinding sensation, or the feeling that two hard surfaces are articulating against each other.
Give the action of piriformis:
A) Adduct the thigh when the hip is flexed
B) Medially rotate the hip (coxal joint)
C) Flex the thigh/hip
D) Laterally rotate the hip
Laterally rotate the hip
The main action of the piriformis is lateral rotation of the hip/thigh. It can also ABduct the thigh the hip is flexed, not ADduct.
Which of the following is not a static stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
A) Inferior Glenohumeral ligament
B) Glenoid labrum
C) Glenoid fossa
D) Latissimus dorsi
Latissimus dorsi
The latissimus dorsi is a dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint. Static stabilizers include the glenoid, the labrum, the shoulder capsule, and glenohumeral ligaments.
Your client presents with tight hamstrings. As a part of the knee flexor group, how would you palpate for the the semimembranosus and semitendinosus?
A) Let the client lie in prone and resist knee flexion. Palpate the posterior medial knee and thigh.
B) Let the client lie in prone and resist knee flexion. Palpate proximal to the posterior lateral knee and thigh.
C) Let the client lie in prone and resist hip extension with knee flexion.
D) Let the client lie in prone and resist hip and knee extension.
Let the client lie in prone and resist knee flexion. Palpate the posterior medial knee and thigh.
Choice A refers to the palpation of the medial hamstrings- the semimembranosus and semitendinosus.
Choice B refers to the Biceps Femoris is also known as the lateral hamstring because of its lateral location on the posterior thigh. It acts as a hip extensor as well as a strong flexor of the knee. To palpate for the Biceps Femoris, have your client lie in a prone position and resist his knee flexion or knee flexion with tibial lateral rotation. The muscle may be palpated anywhere along the posterolateral thigh running from the ischial tuberosity to the fibular head.
Choice C assesses the strength of your Gluteus Maximus while
Choice D assesses the strength of your hamstrings.
The muscle shown in the photo is the _____.
A) Pectineus
B) Adductor brevis
C) Iliacus
D) Psoas minor
Pectineus
This is the pectineus muscle which lies at the anterior/ front compartment of the thigh.
Origin: Superior ramus of pubis
Insertion: Upper end of linea aspera of the femoral shaft
Action: Flexion and adduction of hip
Innervation: Femoral nerve
___________________ is the system of rules (based on values, morals, and standards of accepted conduct) that guide correct behavior.
A) Roles and Boundaries
B) Ethics
C) Professionalism
D) Applied Kinesiology
Ethics
Ethics is the determination between what is right and what is wrong, or a set of moral principles.
A code of ethics is a summary of a set of adopted guidelines for a specific group, such as massage therapists.
Ethics help determine our boundaries.
Boundaries are defined as limits between acceptable and unacceptable behavior.
_________ is any sexual-oriented behavior that occurs in the professional setting.
A) Prostitution
B) Sensual massage
C) Sexual Misconduct
D) Therapeutic massage
Sexual Misconduct
Sexual Misconduct is any sexual behavior that occurs in the professional setting. The sexual behavior is without consent or by force, intimidation, coercion, or manipulation. Prostitution is the practice of engaging in sexual relations in exchange for payment or some other benefit.
What is the action of this muscle?
A) Shoulder shrugging
B) Elevation of second rib
C) Elevation of ribs 1-2
D) Head extension
Elevation of second rib
This is the scalenus posterior or the posterior scalene, a part of the muscles of the neck.
Origin: Transverse processes of lower cervical vertebrae
Insertion: Second rib
Action: Elevation of second rib. Lateral flexion and rotation of the cervical part of the vertebral column.
Innervation: Anterior rami of cervical nerves
______________ are tissues that are not contractile (such as nerves, ligaments, and bones).
A) Contractile tissues
B) Inert tissues
C) End feel tissues
D) Capsular patterns
Inert tissues
Contractile tissues are the fibrous tissues that have tension placed on them during muscular contractions (muscles and tendons). Inert are tissues that are not contractile (such as nerves, ligaments, bursae, and bones).
A patient comes into your clinic following a flexor tendon repair. What technique will you use for her scars?
A) Deep friction massage
B) Superficial friction. massage
C) Effleurage
D) Tapotement
Deep friction massage
Deep friction massage can be used for adhesions and scars. Superficial friction massage is useful for warming the skin and superficial layers of the soft tissues only.
An injury in which a ligament is partially torn is called?
A) A sprain
B) Gout
C) Myalgia
D) A strain
A sprain
A sprain is a stretching or tearing of ligaments. Ligaments the tough bands of fibrous tissue that connect one bone to another in your joints.
A strain is an injury to muscle tissue. Strain and sprain are used interchangeably by clients, but they are different types of injuries.
This muscle inserts into the _____.
A) Temporal bone
B) Floor of temporal fossa
C) Zygomatic arch
D) Epicranial aponeurosis
Epicranial aponeurosis
This is the occipital belly of the Occipitofrontalis muscle, a muscle of the scalp.
Origin: Highest nuchal line of occipital bone
Insertion: Epicranial aponeurosis
Action: Moves scalp on skull and raises the eyebrows
Innervation: Facial nerve
A swollen and weakened wall in the side of an aorta in danger of bursting is known as
A) aneurysm
B) hemorrhoid
C) stroke
D) embolism
aneurysm
An aneurysm is a localized, blood-filled balloon-like bulge in the wall of a blood vessel. They can occur anywhere, but are most common in the brain, aorta, abdomen, or heart.
A client comes in with a topical prescription from their doctor. They ask you to measure out a pea-size amount and rub it on an area on their back. What is the best course of action?
A) Document the date and time of administration, the drug name and dose, and site in the client’s charts
B) Where gloves when administering the prescription
C) Explain to the client that administering medication is not within your permitted scope of practice
D) Both A and B are correct
Explain to the client that administering medication is not within your permitted scope of practice
Administration of medication is outside the scope of practice for massage. Explain to the client that it is not within your permitted scope of practice.
A client is 8 weeks post-op from a hysterectomy. Which is the most common concern for post-op clients seeking massage?
A) cerebrovascular accident
B) thrombus
C) anemia
D) fluid loss
thrombus
A thrombus, or blood clot, is the most common concern for a massage session. The possibility of blood clot should be ruled out with all post-op massage clients before a massage can takes place.
The _____ serves as the proximal attachment for this muscle:
A) Ischial tuberosity
B) Superior ramus of pubis
C) Inferior ramus of pubis
D) Intertrochanteric line
Ischial tuberosity
This is the quadratus femoris, a deep muscle located at the posterior surface of the hip.
Origin: Lateral border of the ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Intertrochanteric crest
Action: Hip lateral/ external rotation and adduction. Stabilizes the femoral head in the acetabulum.
Innervation: Nerve to Quadratus femoris (L4-S1)
What class of lever is best used for balance and stability?
A) Class 1
B) Class 2
C) Class 3
D) Class 4
Class 2
Class 1 - Balance and Stability
Class 2 - Power
Class 3 - Speed
There is not a Class 4 lever.
What structure would be least likely injured if the tibia is dislocated directly posterior?
A) Tibial nerve
B) Popliteal Artery
C) Common Peroneal Nerve
D) Ant. Cruciate Ligament
Common Peroneal Nerve
The common peroneal nerve travels over the lateral knee. It is the least likely to be injured. The other structures are either within the knee or directly posterior.
A client experiences pain while abducting the shoulder. The muscle most likely involved would be:
A) Pectoralis Major
B) Rhomboid Major
C) Deltoids
D) Infraspinatus
Deltoids
The deltoid is the only muscle listed that aids in abduction of the arm/humerus.
Ribs 1-7 are known as ________________.
A) floating ribs
B) false ribs
C) true ribs
D) sternal
true ribs
Ribs 1-7 are known as true ribs because they attach directly to the sternum.
Ribs 8-10 are known as false ribs because they attach to the sternum via costal cartilage.
Ribs eleven and twelve are known as floating ribs because they do not attache to the sternum or coastal cartilage.
Identify the muscle shown in the photo below:
A) Longus colli
B) Rectus capitis anterior
C) Longus cervicis
D) Platysma
Longus colli
The photo shows us the longus colli, a deep cervical flexor muscle. It is divided into three portions- superior oblique, inferior oblique, and vertical portions.
Origin: Superior oblique portion originates from transverse processes of C3-C5. Inferior oblique portion originates from bodies of T1 and T2. Vertical portion arises from bodies of C5-C7 and T1-T3.
Insertion: Superior oblique inserts to the tubercle on the anterior arch of atlas. Inferior oblique into the transverse processes of C5-C6. Vertical portion into the bodies of C2-C4.
Action: Cervical flexion, ipsilateral lateral/ side flexion and some rotation
Innervation: C2-C6
Unilateral contraction of the left side of these muscles will produce _____.
A) Trunk lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left
B) Trunk lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right
C) Trunk flexion and rotation to the left
D) Trunk flexion and rotation to the right
Trunk lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right
The photo shows us the multifidus muscles. These are deep and small muscles yet, are very important for stabilization of the spine.
Origin: Posterior surface of sacrum, posterior superior iliac spine, mamillary processes of lumbar vertebrae, transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae, and articular processes of C4-C6
Insertion: Spinous processes of vertebrae except C1, and 2-4 bones above origin
Action: Unilateral contraction produces ipsilateral lateral flexion and contralateral rotation of the spine. Bilateral contraction produces extension of the spine. Also included in the core group of muscles, the multifidus are also very important for lumbar and overall spinal stabilization.
Innervation: Dorsal rami of spinal nerves
