Exam 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

A type of eating disorder where there is a large restriction on calorie intake and focuses on low body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two subtypes of Anorexia?

A

Restricting and binge eating/ purging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Binge Eating

A

Involves binging, feeling of loss of control, and marked distress over binge eating episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Binge Eating Disorder

A

Episodes of binging large amounts of food and does not involve compensatory behaviors such as vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Body Mass Index (BMI)

A

An estimate of body fat calculated on the basis of a person’s height and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

involving distortion of body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by depression and self-induced vomiting, purging, or fasting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disordered Eating

A

A cycle of eating which is not normal in calorie intake or frequency of eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Eating conditions not elsewhere classified

A

A seriously disturbed eating pattern that does not fully meet criteria for another eating disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muscle Dysmorphia

A

a psychological disorder marked by a negative body image and an obsessive desire to have a muscular physique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Obesity

A

A condition involving a BMI greater than 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Purge

A

Ridding the body of food through laxatives, vomiting or excessive exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Frotteuristic Disorder

A

Recurrent and intense sexual urges, acts, or fantasies that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gender Dysphoria

A

Distress and impaired functioning resulting from an incongruence between a person’s gender identity and assigned gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Paraphilia

A

Recurring sexual arousal and gratification by means of mental imagery or behavior involving socially unacceptable objects, situations, or individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pedophilic Disorder

A

A disorder in which an adult obtains erotic gratification through urges, acts, of fantasies that involve sexual contact with a prepubescent or early pubescent child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transgender Identity

A

A person’s innate psychological identification as male or female does not correspond with the person’s biological sex

17
Q

Exhibitionist Disorder

A

Urges, acts, or fantasies of exposing one’s genitals to strangers, intent to shock

18
Q

Voyeuristic Disorder

A

Urges, acts, or fantasies involving observation of unsuspecting person disrobing or engaging in sexual activity

19
Q

Emancipatory Science

A

, seeks to generate knowledge relevant to the collective project of challenging human oppression and creating the conditions in which people can live flourishing lives

20
Q

Alfred Kinsey

A

founded the Institute for Sex Research at Indiana University

21
Q

Evelyn Hooker

A

administered several psychological tests to groups of self-identified male homosexuals and heterosexuals and asked experts to identify the homosexuals and rate their mental health

22
Q

The 5 Core Characteristics of BDSM

A

Exchange of power, role playing, mutual definition understanding, a sexual context, consent!!

23
Q

What are the four phases of the human sexual response cycle?

A

appetite (interest), arousal, orgasm, resolution

24
Q

What are the three major themes from the Kink Representation Outreach Project?

A

Social features, functional features, and personal development

25
Q

Advance Directive

A

Written statement providing guidance for medical and health care decisions in the event the person becomes incapacitated and unable to communicate his or her wishes

26
Q

Civil Commitment

A

The involuntary confinement of a person judged to be a danger to the self or to others, even though the person has not committed a crime

27
Q

Competency to Stand Trial

A

Requirements:

  1. Defendant must have a factual and rational understanding of the proceeding
  2. Defendant must be able to rationally consult with counsel in presenting his or her own defense
28
Q

Criminal Commitment

A

Incarceration of an individual for committing a crime

29
Q

Deinstitutionalization

A

The shifting of responsibility for the care of mental patients from large central institutions to agencies within local communities

30
Q

Durham Standard

A

Accused is not responsible if the unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect and is intended to give greater weight to expert mental health testimony

31
Q

Diminished Capacity

A

Law standard allowing defendant to be convicted of a lesser offense due to mental impairment

32
Q

Irresistible Impulse Test

A

Defendant is not criminally responsible if he or she lacked the will power to control his or her behavior

33
Q

M’Naghten Rule

A

Person can be acquitted if it can be shown at time of defense that:
They had defective reasoning and did not know what they were doing
They were unable to comprehend that the act was wrong

34
Q

Tarasoff Ruling

A

A California Supreme Court decision that obligates mental health professionals to break confidentiality when their clients pose a clear and imminent danger to another person

35
Q

Privileged Communication

A

A therapist’s legal obligation to protect a client’s privacy and to prevent disclosure of confidential communications without a client’s permission