Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ENVS 1126 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (1) What is really old-fashioned about nuclear power? (2) What is really cutting-edge and innovative about nuclear power? (3) What is really scary about nuclear power?
A

a. (1) it’s just heating water to rotate a turbine. (2) It can provide power for extremely long periods of time. (3) There is a possibility of a meltdown that harms humans and the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the approximate half-life of U-235?
A

700 million yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The concentration of U-235 needed to generate nuclear power is approximately
    (1) ___, but the concentration of U-235 needed to generate nuclear weapons is approximately (2)___.
A

a. (1) 4%, (2) 85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

???3. What is the difference between carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14? (Read carefully.) **this question was posted twice with 2 different answers, they are below**

A

D. Carbon-12 has an atomic mass of 12; carbon-13 has an atomic mass of 13; carbon-14 has an atomic mass of 14.
D. Carbon-12 has 6 protons and 6 neutrons; carbon-13 has 6 protons and 7 neutrons; carbon-14 has 6 protons and 8 neutrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

???4. What is nuclear fission? ***this question was posted twice with 2 different answers, they are below.

A

D. The splitting of an unstable atom into 2 or more stable atoms, often resulting in the release of free neutrons.
B. the splitting of an atom into two new atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Answer the 3 following questions regarding isotopes: (1) Does changing the number of neutrons change the number of protons? (2) Does changing the number of neutrons change the atomic number? (3) Does changing the number of neutrons change the atomic mass?
A

b. no, no, yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is the approximate half-life of U-235
A

d. 700,000,000 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The atomic number of oxygen is 8; this means:
A

c. Oxygen has 8 protons in its nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true about nuclear fission?
A

b. The energy from fission cannot be harvested by humans at the moment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Isotopes have:
A

B. The same atomic number but different atomic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1.Radon is an odorless radioactive gas that you cannot taste or see. Exposure to this naturally occurring gas can be dangerously high in any home in North America. Homes must be specially tested for exposure levels for residents to understand their risks. If risks are high, venting systems can be installed to significantly lower indoor levels of exposure. The most likely health problem associated with long-term exposure to this radioactive gas is →

A

Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States. This disease primarily affects

A

a. the respiratory passageways and alveoli of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Atmospheric scientists often measure gases in parts per million by weight (ppm). If CO2 is currently 0.04% of the atmosphere, the level expressed in ppm is
A

a. 400 ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which one of the following generally increases natural sources of the pollution of the air?
A

b. gases released by a volcanic eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. How might the 2011 Fukushima have potentially impacted seafood in the United States?
A

a. Organisms in the water could have migrated and entered the food chain in animals that migrate long distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A nuclear power plant:
A

D. Harness the energy produced fission reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is NOT a problem that must be taken into account when operating a nuclear power plant?
A

c. Production of acidic particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. What is nuclear fission
A

D. The splitting of an unstable atom into 2 or more stable atoms, often resulting in the release of free neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Air pollutants most often lead to human health problems of the:
A

b. circulatory and respiratory systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. From the events discussed in class, the most recent nuclear disaster took place in:
A

b. Fukushima, Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Your sister is a screenwriter. She has been tasked with writing a story in which the human race has run out of fossil fuels. In the U.S., which one of the following sources will most likely pick up the slack, and why?
A

a.Nuclear power because it is the next largest usage of energy consumption in the U.S. following the fossil fuels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. The air you breathe into your lungs on a daily basis mostly consists of
A

a. Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. This is NOT true about a nuclear power plant
A

C. Produces acid pollutants or particulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which one of the following would be the most practical way to reduce levels of smog in a city that frequently experiences this problem?
A

b. reducing the number of automobiles that burn gasoline and the amount of evaporated gasoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant in the troposphere but a beneficial component in the stratosphere?
A

B. ozone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. In the Chernobyl area, several organisms are rebounding, and their populations are expanding. (1) Why might this be the case, and (2) why might scientists be interested in testing these organisms?
A

b. (1) Absence of natural predators, (2) studying their DNA will shed light on how they
have survived in this area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What country is leading the way in building new nuclear reactors?
A

D. China

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. These isotopes differ in the number of
A

C. neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What event occurred in 1986 that caused a general public shift in interest in nuclear energy?
A

C. the Chernobyl nuclear accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Unlike naturally occurring sources of acid precipitation, anthropogenic sources of acid precipitation
A

C. are more concentrated in industrial and agricultural areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. NIMBY is:
A

D. a publicly perceived risk of siting a toxic or nuclear waste disposal facility near their homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. In Japan today, the greatest risk associated with the use of nuclear power is:
A

C. an earthquake and/or tsunami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. This is not an example of a climate proxy found in sediment or ice cores
A

a. tree rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Where were the sediment core samples collected in the Sediment Cores video?
A

Coldfoot, AK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Scientists do not use sediment cores to:
A

B. Understand how weather patterns have evolved over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. In the sediment core videos there were ___ bottles in the sediment traps deployed to collect sediment.
A

D. 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. There were ___ bottles in the sediment traps deployed to collect sediment.
A

a. 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Risk in environmental health is most related to

A

hazards multiplied by vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Which is an example of cultural ecological control for pests affecting plants?
A

a. keep grass at least 3 inches high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. In the winter in North America, the common cold often shows
A

a. high morbidity but low mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Rachel Carson’s scientific credibility was due in major part to her
A

a. Meticulous documentation of the findings reported in her book.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which is NOT true about “Silent Spring”?
A

C. Contributed to the movement against genetically engineering crops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Studying environmental biology has got you thinking about what you do with your kitchen wastes, the discarded egg shells, orange and banana peels, coffee grounds, etc. Living at the edge of town, you have several options. Which of the following would be the least efficient (or slowest) way to allow natural decay of your kitchen wastes?
A

d. collecting your kitchen garbage in small plastic bags and disposing of it in a large city landfill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Which of the following natural threats to human health is least predictable, providing the least amount of lead time before the disaster strikes?
A

C. earthquakes, tsunamis, tornadoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Questions about the danger of a particular chemical hazard will relate to that chemical’s…
A

a. Toxicity, exposure, and dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Which of the following is true or accurate about malaria?
A

b. Mosquito saliva transmits tiny sporozoites to the victim when they are bitten.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. A person who dies of a heart attack at the age of 93 is more likely to have lived in a
A

b. developed country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. The H1N1 swine flu pandemic of 2009-2010 resulted in the immunization of millions of people. When the immunizations were first available, people under 25 or over 65 were given priority. This was done because
A

b. these age groups were most vulnerable to the hazard, putting them at greatest risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Industrial pollution from this oil refinery best represents a type of
A

b. chemical environmental hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

12.Which is not a problem related to chemical pesticides?

A

a. Embrittlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. What book by Rachel Carson, published in 1962, first alerted the general public to the problems posed by pesticides
A

a. Silent Spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Smoking is attributed to all of the following, except ___
A

A. Malaria and tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good example of a cultural hazard to public health?
A

c. Eating a high-sugar diet and engaging in little exercise, a man increasingly becomes
obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a problem associated with chemical pesticides?
A

a. it reduces crop yields and leads to decreased fruit sizes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good example of a chemical hazard to public health?
A

a. Before the switch to unleaded gas, children living near highways had high lead exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good example of a physical hazard to public health?
A

a. An earthquake kills more than 200,000 people in Haiti and destroys countless homes, roads and buildings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring showed that ___.
A

C.scientific expertise can help shape positive environmental policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a way that pesticide use may positively impact human health?
A

B. Use can minimize the production of ozone, which leads to less leaf loss in plants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Lyme disease is a serious bacterial infection of humans caused by the bite of infected deer ticks. Therefore, the vector of lyme disease is –
A

B. ticks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. The infectious diseases that cause the greatest mortality in the world today are?
A

B. acute respiratory infections, diarrhea, and HIV/AIDS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Carcinogens’ danger lies in their effect on
A

B. DNA molecules inside cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. People suffering from AIDS have a weakened immune system. Because of their disease, AIDS patients are
A

a. more vulnerable to bacteria, which are less of a risk to healthy people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. You are tired of watching your crops die in the field from several pest species. You decide that next year you are going to use every type of ecological pest control you can find to address your problem. Over the winter you get ready, ordering pheromones that interfere with the reproduction of the pests, sterile male flies that will try to reproduce with some of the pest flies that you have, and wasps that lay their eggs in the larvae of another of your pests. It is expensive, but you think this should work well. Which of the following forms of control are you not using?
A

D. cultural control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Which one of the following best illustrates a nonpoint source of pollution?
A

a. storm-water drainage from the parking lot around a football stadium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. Which of the following holds the highest levels of oxygen?
A

a. cold flowing water in a stream in Ontario in April

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. The best way to reduce the pollution of agricultural fertilizer runoff from farm fields is to
A

C. reduce the amount fertilizer leaving the farm fields through such techniques as no-till cultivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. Which of the following processes requires an oxygen-free environment and produces large volumes of methane that can be used for fuel?
A

a. Anaerobic sludge digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. (1)___ and (2)___ are examples of renewable energy sources. (3)___ and (4) are examples of non-renewable energy sources.
A

d. (1) Wind energy (2), solar energy (3) Coal, (4) natural gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. Noticing large amounts of algal growth in her small farm pond, a farmer adds about 20 grass carp to feed on the abundant algae and plants. After several years, the carp grow large, exceeding 20 pounds each in size. Late one summer, the farmer notices that the carp and most of the other fish are dead. The water also smells very bad. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for the death of these fish?
A

C. bacteria feeding on the large volume of carp feces depleted the oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. Dams:
A

a. Impede or prevent migration of fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. A small neighborhood pond averaging about 3 meters in depth reveals all the signs of cultural eutrophication, most likely from runoff of lawn fertilizers used by the residents. The water is very cloudy and oxygen levels remain very low, resulting in few fish that can survive. To provide some opportunities for the neighborhood kids to regularly catch fish, the neighborhood association decides to purchase, install, and run a large water fountain in the middle of the pond. How could this water fountain help address the eutrophication of this pond? The water fountain will
A

a. Increase the oxygen levels of the pond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

9.During a spring flood, a small lake receives a large influx of nutrients. We would expect that in this lake, the growth of phytoplankton will

A

a. increase and the growth of submerged aquatic vegetation will decrease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT considered a renewable resource?
A

D. Coal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. In the regions of the dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico just west of the Mississippi River delta, oxygen levels are
A

c. highest at the ocean surface, away from oxygen depleting bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. Good health in the modern world, with few cases of bacterial infection, is largely the result of
    sewage
A

D. clean water supplies and proper treatment of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Which is not true about solar energy?
A

a. Changes the biosphere’s energy balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Homeowners living in a heavily forested region surrounding a small 3-acre pond in Missouri decided to reduce air pollution in their neighborhood. In the fall, after the oak and maple leaves had fallen, the homeowners blew all of the dead leaves into the pond. About 8 months later, in July, they noticed a large number of dead fish in the pond. What is the most likely cause of the fish kill?
A

a. the bacteria decomposing the leaves depleted the levels of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. In 2007, heavy rains accompanied an outbreak of cholera in children living in war-torn Iraq. What was the likely cause of the spread of this disease?
A

C. pollution of waterways by raw sewage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. Water that comes up positive after fecal coliform testing indicates health risks most commonly associated with
A

B. a variety of pathogens in human sewage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. Which is NOT an energy source to develop a low carbon future?
A

C. natural gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. People with home septic systems often flush several cups of a powdered substance down their toilets every month or two to keep their systems healthy. These powdered substances most likely contain
A

a. bacteria and enzymes that help break down wastes.

82
Q
  1. This fire on the Cuyahoga River in 1969 most likely resulted from
A

d. industrial point source pollution.

83
Q
  1. If you collect a jar of muddy water from a puddle or ditch, and then let the mud settle out over many hours, you have separated much of the mud from the water using a process very much like the
A

c. primary treatment in a wastewater facility.

84
Q
  1. A farmer extending his farm field bulldozes the banks of a creek, greatly disturbing the creek bed and stirring up clay and humus. The higher levels of clay and humus in the water just downstream will most likely result in:
A

a. Fewer plants, fewer fish, and cloudy water.

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential environmental drawback (disadvantage) of wind energy?
A

C. The turbines kill migrating birds.

86
Q
  1. ___ is formed by the anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge to produce methane and nutrient rich fertilizer.
A

D.biogas

87
Q
  1. The largest renewable energy use in the United States is ___.
A

a. Biomass energy

88
Q
  1. Lake Springfield in the city of Springfield, Illinois, is a busy place where people swim and fish. The lake also supplies drinking water for Springfield residents and cooling water to a nearby coal-fired power plant. Beautiful homes surround most of the lake. Over the past 15 years, the bacterium Leptospira, commonly found in agricultural animal waste, has been detected in this lake water, and some people have become sick. The contamination of the lake by Leptospira may best be prevented by?
A

c. better control of agricultural nonpoint source pollution of the lake.

89
Q
  1. About 100 meters downstream of a raw sewage discharge outlet we would expect to find?
A

c. cloudy water, low levels of oxygen, and few, if any, fish.

90
Q
  1. While the duckweed continues to cover the water’s surface of this pond undergoing eutrophication, it is most likely that the water clarity will
A

B. be high but the growth of submerged aquatic vegetation will decrease.

91
Q
  1. Devastating earthquakes struck Haiti in January 2010, forcing the native people to live under the most primitive of conditions. Which one of the following forms of immediate aid would most likely prevent the outbreak of cholera and dysentery in refugees who were not seriously harmed by the earthquakes?
A

C. water purification systems and supplies of bottles water

92
Q

In a small pond, which averages about 6 feet deep or less, eutrophication typically produces

A

a. low levels of dissolved oxygen and abundant amounts of submerged aquatic vegetation. Correct

93
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the cultural hazard that causes the most deaths per year?
A

a. Smoking

94
Q
  1. LD50 is:
A

a. the dose that it takes to kill half of a population

95
Q
  1. There are 4 types of environmental hazards. A carcinogen is an example of ______ environmental hazard.
A

B. chemical

96
Q

4.Some people in certain African countries are resistant to (1)___ because they have a (2)___ that makes their red blood cells form a sickle shape, and this makes the red blood cells difficult for (3)___ to invade.

A

c. (1) malaria, (2) mutation, (3) the plasmodium parasite

97
Q
  1. Uh-oh! Somehow millions of tiny birth control pills have spilled into Baton Rouge’s drinking water. You do the calculations and realize that the water you drank with your triple cheeseburger for lunch at noon exposed your body to 760 mg of estrogen. You google and find out that estrogen has a half life of 8 hours and makes breasts grow rapidly, regardless of gender. You further read that estrogen will only cause your breasts to grow if you have more than 100 mg in your body after a 24 hour time limit. You do the math. What comes next?
A

a. Whew! You dodged a bullet this time, as there will only be 95 mg of estrogen in your body at the 24 hour mark. Although, you do wonder if there are any long-term effects…

98
Q
  1. (1)___ is one example of one of the leading causes of death in developing countries, and (2)___ is one example of one of the leading causes of death in developed countries.
A

b. (1)Tuberculosis, (2)Heart attack

99
Q
  1. You are trying to wean yourself off Sudafed because you want to get a job at Chevron, and they frown on Sudafed use. You have lost a lot of weight and are down to 100 pounds. Your drug test at Chevron is Monday morning at 8:00 AM, and you know that the drug test has a lower limit of detection of 25 mg of Sudafed per 100 pounds and that Sudafed has a half life of at most 12 hours. The last time you took Sudafed was Friday night at 8:00 PM, and it was a dose of 0.73 grams of Sudafed. (1) How much Sudafed was in your system by 8:00 AM Monday morning? (2) Will you fulfill your dream of working at Chevron?
A

a. (1) 22.8 mg, (2) Yes

100
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the most accurate definition of risk as defined in your lecture?
A

a. (Sea level rise) TIMES (Proximity of one’s home to the ocean)

101
Q
  1. You are trying to wean yourself off the drug BCD because you want to get a job at the Peters, Bryce, and Johnson law firm (PB&J) and they frown on BCD use. You lost a lot of weight last year and are down to 200 pounds. Your drug test at PB&J is Monday morning at 8:00 AM, and you know that the drug test has a lower limit of detection of 12.5 mg of BCD per 100 pounds body weight and that BCD has a half life of at most 8 hours. The last time you took BCD was Friday afternoon at 4:00 PM, and it was a dose of 6 grams of BCD. (1) How much BCD remained in your system by 8:00 AM Monday morning? (2) Will you fulfill your dream of working at PB&J?
A

C. (1) 23.4 mg, (2) Yes hooray, your career is about to take off!

102
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a leading cause of mortality in developing countries?
A

C. communicable diseases

103
Q
  1. You are trying to wean yourself off Sudafed because you got a job as the Head Jelly Donut Filler at Krispy Kreme and they frown on Sudafed use. You have lost a lot of weight and are down to 100 pounds. Your drug test is Monday morning at 8:00 AM, and you know that the drug test has a lower limit of detection of 10 mg of Sudafed per 100 pounds and that Sudafed has a half life of at most 12 hours. The last time you took Sudafed was Friday night at 8:00 PM, and it was a dose of 0.48 grams of Sudafed. How much Sudafed was in your system by 8:00 AM Monday morning, and will you fulfill your lifelong dream as the Head Jelly Donut Filler at Krispy Kreme?
A

C. Bad news, you will not get the job because by Monday morning you will have 15 mg of Sudafed in your system. You will have to go back to working at Dunkin Donuts, which is your backup plan.

104
Q
  1. Malaria is an example of a biological hazard. In malaria, the relation Mosquito: Human: Plasmodium is equivalent to
A

a. Vector: host: parasite

105
Q
  1. The relation hazard : vulnerability is equivalent to
A

b. A hurricane : living in coastal Louisiana

106
Q
  1. What is the difference between the half-life of a radioactive isotope like U-235 and the half-life of a xenobiotic like benadryl?
A

a. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the length of time it takes for half of the amount of the isotope to decay, and the half-life of a xenobiotic like benadryl is the amount of time it takes for the chemical to be reduced to half of its original amount.

107
Q
  1. The leading cause of death in developing countries today is ….
A

B. infectious diseases.

108
Q
  1. The LD50s of Lantana Toxin, Butternut Toxin, and Monarda Toxin are 1500, 250, and 750 mg/kg body weight for lab mice. Which one of the following statements can be made?
A

D. Compared to Butternut Toxin, it would take three times as much Monarda Toxin to kill
30 lab mice.

109
Q
  1. Which of the following components of MSW has most recently shown the greatest increase?
A

B. Electronic Waste

110
Q
  1. An infant is exposed to a detrimental amount of radiation for 10 minutes. Later in life, at 85 years old, this person develops cancer. It is established the disease was caused by the mentioned radiation event. This is an example of
A

C. acute exposure and chronic effect (??? had to guess not sure if right)

111
Q
  1. Of the 4,000+ compounds in a cigarette at least ___ are carcinogenic.
A

a. 40

112
Q
  1. There are ____ pairs of chromosomes in a human cell
A

a. 23

113
Q
  1. Each year millions of women suffer through awkward and uncomfortable doctor visits so that they can be screened for the sexually transmitted virus HPV (human papilloma virus). The fact that it is a sexually transmitted infection is not so important when compared to the fact that it
A

d. causes cervical cancer

114
Q
  1. Which statement is false about cancer?
A

a. It cannot be caused by second hand smoke

115
Q
  1. In addition to the sheer volume, one of the greatest risks of adding e-wastes (electronic wastes) into landfills is
A

A. the leaching out of heavy metals into groundwater.

116
Q
  1. What is true about a lesion?
A

A. It is a change in the DNA sequence that can be temporary

117
Q
  1. Some women, such as Wanda Sykes and Angelina Jolie, may decide to have their breasts removed if they find out they have certain mutations in their ___ genes.
A

D. BRCA1 and-or BRCA2

118
Q
  1. Which of the following would reduce the greatest amount of MSW? (municipal solid waste)
A

a. Buying concentrated cleaning solutions and refilling cleaning bottles at home

119
Q
  1. Despite its many problems, one of the advantages of open burning of MSW is?
A

a. A reduction in the volume of MSW

120
Q
  1. A town is considering the uses of its former landfill. Some people want to use it as a park and others want to build office buildings and form an industrial park. Engineers advising the town council have strongly urged the group to not place any significant buildings on top of the landfill because of problems related to
A

a. settling.

121
Q
  1. How does sunbathing cause cancer?
A

c. UV light from the sun causes DNA dimers (formation of pairs) in skin cells.

122
Q
  1. Which one of the following choices does not qualify as human carcinogens?
A

a. Foods high in antioxidants

123
Q
  1. Lining a landfill with a thick tough plastic barrier is a good way to address problems related
A

a. to groundwater contamination.

124
Q

14.The main problem with constructing new landfills in the United States is that

A

a. nobody wants one built near them.

125
Q
  1. A home located about 500 feet from an abandoned landfill explodes in a giant ball of flames. This is a mystery, as the home only uses electricity for cooking and heating the home. Most likely, this disaster was caused by
A

c . biogas that seeped from the landfill along horizontal cracks and into the home.

126
Q
  1. PETE (code 1) and HDPE (code 2) plastics
A

a. can be recycled and made into many useful products.

127
Q
  1. Biogas in mostly produced in landfills
A

a. by the anaerobic decomposition of organic materials.

128
Q
  1. The well in a landfill is most likely being used to
A

d. capture methane

129
Q
  1. Which of the following are most commonly recycled from MSW, at the highest percentages?
A

C. yard wastes, paper, and paperboards.

130
Q
  1. One difference between common-source (CS) epidemics and propagated (person-to-person, PP) epidemic is:
A

C. CS epidemics are rarely lethal but PP epidemics are usually lethal

131
Q
  1. What is a vector?
A

D. an organism that carries the pathogen or parasite

132
Q
  1. Which is not true about cancer?
A

C. It is the leading cause of death/dead in the US

133
Q
  1. You have a bicycle accident. Although you are OK, the bike is a mess. The rear wheel is bent, it will need a new chain, and the front tire is punctured. The estimated cost of repair is about $ 100. You can buy a new bike for about $ 120. What is the most environmentally friendly option?
A

Answer: repair the bike

134
Q
  1. Water seeping through a landfill
A

b. promotes the decomposition of paper and other biodegradable organics.

135
Q

A home located about 500 feet from an abandoned landfill explodes in a giant ball of flames. This is a mystery, as the home only uses electricity for cooking and heating the home. Most likely, this disaster was caused by

A

biogas that seeped from the landfill along horizontal cracks and into the home.

136
Q
  1. About 6 hours after winning a raw oyster eating contest, you start experiencing nausea, vomiting, and watery diarrhea. Because you took Dr. Johnson’s ENVS 1126 class, you immediately know that it’s likely you have been infected with ___.
A

a. vibrio parahaemolyticus

137
Q
  1. You are a doctor and take on a new patient. You see the following symptoms: jaundice, dark urine, fatigue, anorexia, and nausea. The patient just returned from a humanitarian trip helping developing countries in Asia a month ago. He shared a household with the local people and ate lots of street food every day of his trip. From this information can you tell what is the most likely cause of this illness?
A

a. Hepatitis A Virus

138
Q
  1. Which one of the following illnesses is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A

a. Hepatitis

139
Q
  1. Hepatitis A can NOT be transmitted through
A

D. mosquito bites

140
Q
  1. The study of the presence, distribution, and prevention of disease in populations is called
A

a. Epidemiology

141
Q
  1. You arrive at school and see that some of your classmates are out sick. The school has issued an announcement that students are coming down with a cold but no one knows why yet. As the days go on more and more students are getting sick. The principal decides to call in an expert to understand how this cold is spreading. What type of expert should the principal call?
A

a. Epidemiologist

142
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true about waterborne diseases?
A

a. They are mediated by a vectoR

143
Q
  1. Earlier, we learned about Typhoid Mary and her eventful life. In this scenario, who was the vector, who was the host, and who was the parasite?
A

a. Vector EQUAL(S) Mary Mallon, host EQUAL(S) the people she sickened, parasite EQUAL(S) Salmonella typhi

144
Q
  1. An organism that can cause disease is called
A

D. Pathogen

145
Q
  1. Your ex-con Irish maid has prepared a nice creamy potato salad for you, and you become sick with a fever a week later. Meanwhile she is back in jail shanking the guards with carving forks that she steals from the jail’s kitchen. You have most likely been infected with ___.
A

a. Salmonella typhi

146
Q
  1. What bacterium is famously associated with Jack-in-the-Box because it contaminated ground beef and sickened many people in an outbreak?
A

a. E. coli

147
Q
  1. Why might antibiotics use cause a yeast infection in a woman?
A

D. The antibiotic kills off the natural flora in her body, allowing yeast to overgrow

148
Q
  1. You eat a rare (undercooked) hamburger from Reggie’s. Two days later you have bloody diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent (the pathogen) of your bloody diarrhea?
A

C. E. coli

149
Q
  1. This is not an example of a waterborne human pathogen:
A

A. Salmonellosis (Salmonellosis is not a pathogen, per se. It is a disease derived from a pathogen)

150
Q
  1. The ability of pathogens to cause disease is called:
A

a. Pathogenicity

151
Q
  1. Sheldon is such a fool. On a rainy night, he accidentally threw his rare beetle sample into the trash. His friends Penny, Leonard, Amy, and Raj helped him by digging through the wet dumpster. Unfortunately, they all were exposed to pathogens (and didn’t even find the beetle). Penny developed bloody diarrhea, cramps, and hemolytic uremic syndrome, with no fever. Leonard developed jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, fatigue, anorexia, and nausea. Amy developed diarrhea, anorexia, fever, headache, and cramps. Raj developed watery diarrhea but no cramping, no pain, and no fever. Which one of them will get sick first and why?
A

b. Raj, because he was exposed to Vibrio cholerae, which has an incubation period of 1-5 days

152
Q
  1. The U.S. and Syria are now the only two countries that are not part of the Paris Climate Agreement, an agreement signed by nearly 200 countries seeking to limit planetary warming by decreasing greenhouse gas emissions. Global warming effects we are experiencing today do not include:
A

a. shorter, less intense heat waves

153
Q
  1. The climate in coastal areas is often very pleasant. Both summers and winters are milder on the coast than they are farther inland. This is because of the ___ of the Ocean.
A

a. heat capacity

154
Q
  1. What is it of greenhouse gases that causes problems?
A

a. The imbalance

155
Q
  1. In your laboratory, you open a jar of a chemical that is known to have a very low LDL0. Therefore, your concerns about the safe handling of this chemical are primarily about
A

a. chronic effects.

156
Q
  1. Getting ready to mow the lawn, Jerome spills gasoline on his hands as he tries to fill up the gas tank on the mower. About an hour later, his skin is very red and itches intensely, and he just does not feel well. Jerome is experiencing:
A

a. acute toxicity from the gasoline.

157
Q
  1. The young seedling oak tree you just planted will sequester 10 pounds (lbs) of carbon dioxide (CO2) this year. Your annual carbon footprint is 26,000 lbs of CO2. How many of these seedlings would you have to plant this year to reduce your carbon footprint by 10%?
A

B. 260

158
Q
  1. Switching from a carnivorous, meat-heavy diet to a vegan diet decreases your carbon footprint by 4,000 lbs of CO2 per year. The carbon footprint of a Prius is 6,000 lbs of CO2 per year, and the carbon footprint of the Hummer is 9,400 lbs of CO2 per year. So, who is better for the environment, a meat-eating Prius driver or a vegan Hummer driver? Why?
A

a. The vegan Hummer driver because he or she will have the smaller carbon footprint

159
Q
  1. Which one of the following global climate changes is most associated with increased hurricane activity?
A

c. warmer oceans

160
Q
  1. The climate of a region refers to its ___.
A

c. average temperature and precipitation long-term

161
Q
  1. If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmosphere, we would expect that
A

c. the Earth would cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease.

162
Q
  1. What does climate change have to do with coral reefs?
A

D. Warm water kills corals.

163
Q
  1. Which one of the following choices is false about global warming?
A

a. Global warming is a scam, there is no scientific consensus global warming is
happening

164
Q

13.Which region in the world has the highest CO2 emissions from fossil fuels?

A

D. Asia/Pacific

165
Q
  1. Your Prius-driving professor has decided to buy a bright canary yellow hummer. To reduce her guilt about this decision, she has decided to plant seedlings to reduce her carbon footprint. These seedlings sequester 25 lb CO2 per year. The carbon footprint of a Prius is 6,000 lbs of CO2 per year, and the carbon footprint of the Hummer is 9,400 lbs of CO2 per year. How many seedlings would your professor have to plant in a year to reduce her Hummer’s carbon footprint to that of a Prius?
A

d. 136

166
Q
  1. A carbon footprint is measured by how much CO2 _______ produces in a year.
A

D. a single person

167
Q
  1. Your brother decides to become a tree hugger. His goal is to promote legislation that prevents cutting down adult trees. He finds out that the average adult tree in Louisiana sequesters 40 lbs of CO2 per year. His annual carbon footprint is 27,800 lbs of CO2 per year. How many trees would he have to ‘‘hug’’ (protect) this year to reduce his carbon footprint by 10%?
A

a. 70

168
Q
  1. Global warming is linked to many phenomena, except
A

c. Increase in planetary albedo

169
Q
  1. In january 2010, three california condors died when they accidentally ate lead ammunition used to kill the animals they were consuming. The california condor’s deaths represent an example of
A

a. Acute toxic effects of consuming high levels of lead.

170
Q
  1. What is NOT true about carbon dioxide?
A

b. About 20% of the carbon dioxide emitted to the atmosphere as a result of fossil fuel burning and the oceans

171
Q
  1. The widespread poisoning of the nervous systems of people living in the fishing village of Minamata, Japan, in the mid-1950s revealed the toxic consequences of environmental pollution by
A

C. mercury

172
Q
  1. What is the difference between global warming and climate change?
A

a. Global warming is the increase of global average temperatures, mostly due to greenhouse gases and is one manifestation of climate change; climate change includes long-term changes in not just temperature but also precipitation, wind, and other factors.

173
Q
  1. Global climate change: Your Prius-driving professor has decided to buy a bright canary yellow hummer. To reduce her guilt about this decision, she has decided to plan seedlings to reduce her carbon footprint. These seedlings sequester 25 lb CO2 per year. The carbon footprint of a Prius is 6,000 lbs of CO2 per year, and the carbon footprint of the Hummer is 9,400 lbs of CO2 per year. How many seedlings would your professor have to plant in a year to reduce her Hummer’s carbon footprint to that of a Prius?
A

D. 136

174
Q
  1. Global climate change: The cleanup of hazardous waste accumulated in orphan sites is complicated because
A

b. there is no responsible party to clean up the waste.

175
Q
  1. In many other developing urban regions of developed nations around the world, suburban sprawl
A

C. and the car-dependent lifestyle are both increasing

176
Q

1.In the birds’ experiment conducted by Dr. Johnson on antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, this was not found:

A

b. All bird species studied contained antimicrobial-resistant bacteria

177
Q

2.In the Vibrio experimental study Dr. Johnson conducted in coastal Louisiana, several water parameters were measured. This is not one of the parameters:

A

c. Nutrient concentration

178
Q

3.We all know that humans have 46 chromosomes. You might also know that Blue Jays have 80 chromosomes and Bald Eagles have 66 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does Vibrio parahaemolyticus have?

A

b. 2

179
Q
  1. Where do most raw oysters come from in the U.S.?

5. Which one of the following is NOT a couple of the pathogenicity factors found in Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

a. Louisiana

a. Antibiotic resistance genes and TTSS1

180
Q
  1. Why or how might Vibrio vulnificus cause a fisherman to go from perfectly healthy one day to having his arm amputated the next day?
A

B. Because of its antibiotic resistance

181
Q
  1. Vibrio species are not
A

c. All pathogenic

182
Q
  1. Where do most raw oysters come from in the U.S.?
A

B. Louisiana

183
Q
  1. How do bacteria such as vibrios get inside oysters?
    . The bacteria come from increased nutrients resulting from fertilizers upstream of the Gulf of Mexico. Not sure if this is right
A

????

184
Q
  1. What were the 2 sources of bacteria used in the bird study?
A

a. the birds’ cloacas (bottoms) and fecal matter

185
Q

Which one of the following is an environmental parameter that Dr. Johnson measured in her study of vibrios (bacteria) in oysters?

A

???

186
Q
  1. Which of the following federal actions immediately after WWII might have significantly decreased urban sprawl during that post-war period?
A

d. grants to support dramatic improvements in city systems and services

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is not typical of U.S. suburbs?
A

a. residential density is as high as the inner city.

188
Q
  1. Over the past 50 years in the United States, the populations of
A

b. suburbs have increased while rural regions and city centers have declined.

189
Q

4.Urban sprawl is associated with

A

c. low residential density, high physical separation between homes, work, and shopping, and congested traffic due to inadequate road networks.

190
Q
  1. Prior to WWII, people living in cities in the United States enjoyed
A

a. widespread use of public transportation.

191
Q
  1. In most large cities, suburban commuters might benefit from the use of light rail systems for commuting. In most cities, if commuters switched from driving to rail commuting, they would
A

b. use fewer natural resources, especially fossil fuels.

192
Q
  1. Urban sprawl has resulted in
A

Wildlife habitat fragmentation

193
Q
  1. The most important limiting factor for most driver-commuters is…
A

a. At the time it takes to drive to their job.

194
Q
  1. ___ is the reason why summers in coastal areas are less hot than inland and winters are less cold.
A

b. Water’s heat capacity

195
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an example of a green house gas?
A

• Nitrogen gas

196
Q
  1. Many of us know of people who swear they can tell if it is going to rain by the pain in their bodies, usually their knees. It turns out that there is some truth to this. In people with joint pain, it is thought that normal atmospheric pressure helps to compress the joints (and therefore minimize the joint pain). But when atmospheric pressure (outside the body) drops, their joints swell, and it feels like there is increased pressure in their body (i.e., joint pressure, not atmospheric pressure). So, if your grandpa says he feels like his joint pressure is increasing, it is likely because atmospheric pressure is decreasing. What happens next (weather-wise)?
A

D. its going to rain

197
Q

The dense traffic and wide highways typical of cities like Riverside, CA and Atlanta, GA are the result of →

A

federal income taxes which are higher in urban areas.

198
Q
  1. Driving through slow, congested traffic on a busy Saturday afternoon, you barely have time to notice all of the signs on the shopping malls. Your friend wants you to head to the next town but it is unclear where one town begins and ends. Which of the factors just described are characteristic of urban sprawl?
A

D. abundant shopping malls, unclear boundaries between towns, and dense, congested traffic

199
Q
  1. What one of the following is least likely to occur as a result of air masses of different pressures and temperatures meeting?
A

d. Sea level rise

200
Q
  1. What were the 2 dirtiest birds in the antimicrobial resistance study?`
A

c. Brown Thrasher and Northern Cardinal

ENVS 1126 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions