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NSG 306 Pathopharmacology I > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Antigen

A

A foreign agent that triggers the production of antibodies by the immune system

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2
Q

Antibodies

A

Proteins used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign agents such as viruses and bacteria

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3
Q

Auto-antibody

A

An antibody made by the immune system that attacks an individuals own proteins.

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4
Q

Thymus

A

Located in the anterior superior mediastinum: functions are the development of T-Lymphocytes and the production and secretion of thymosins.

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5
Q

Lymphatic tissue

A

Connective tissue containing many lymphosytes; transports immune cells, antigen-presenting cells, fatty acids, and fats, filters body fluids.

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6
Q

Bone marrow

A

Soft, fatty tissue found inside bones. Contains stem cells and leukocytes.

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7
Q

Neutrophils

A

An infection-fighting agent. Usually the fist to arrive on the scene of an infection, neutrophils escape from the capillary wall and migrate to the site of infection. Once they get to the site, neutrophils phagocyte microorganisms, preventing the infection from spreading.

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8
Q

Basophils

A

When blood cells that bind IgE and release histamine in anaphylaxis

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9
Q

Eosinophils

A

White blood cells involved in allergic reactions

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10
Q

Monocytes

A

White-blood cells that replenish macrophages and dendritic cells in normal states and respond to inflammation by migrating to infected tissue to become macrophages and dendritic cells, which elicits an immune response

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11
Q

Macrophages

A

White Blood cells within tissues, produced by differentiation on monocytes. Functions are phagocytosis and stimulating lymphocytes and other immune cells to respond to pathogens.

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12
Q

Mast Cells

A

Connective tissue cells that contain histamine heparin hyaluronic acid slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis and serotonin

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13
Q

B cells (B lymphocytes)

A

B cells mature in the bone marrow where they differentiate into memory cells or immunoglobulin secreting (antibody) cells. B cells eliminate bacteria, neutralize bacterial toxins, prevent viral reinfection, and produce immediate inflammation response.

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14
Q

Plasma Cells

A

White blood cells that develop from B cells and produce large volumes of specific antibodies.

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15
Q

T cells

A

T cells are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus hence “T” cell. Two major types of T cells work to destroy antigens-regulator cells and effector cells.

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16
Q

Killer cell

A

A type of T cell that destroys cells infected with viruses by releasing lymphokines that destroy cell walls. Also called cytotoxic cells and effector cells.

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17
Q

Memory B cells

A

Type of B cells that activate of calls up B cells to produce antibodies.

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18
Q

NK lymphocytes

A

Natural killer cells that destroy cancer cells, foreign cells, and virus-infected cells.

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19
Q

Complement

A

A group of inactive proteins in the circulation that when activated stimulate the release of other chemical mediators promoting inflammation chemotaxis and phagocytosis.

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20
Q

Histamine

A

Release by mast cells and basophils, especially during allergic reaction triggereing the inflammation response. Increase the permeability of the capillaries to white blood cells and other proteins in order to allow them to engage foreign invaders in the infected tissues.

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21
Q

Kinins (e.g. bradyminin)

A

Induce vasodilation and contraction of smooth muscle.

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22
Q

Prostaglandins

A

A group of lipid compounds that have a variety of effects, including constriction or dilation in vascular smooth muscles cells control of cell growth and sensitizing spinal neurons to pain.

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23
Q

Leukotrines

A

Fatty molecules of the immune system that contribute to contracation of bronchiolar smooth muscles.

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24
Q

Cytokins (Messengers)

A

Small cell-signaling protien molecules that are extensively involved in intracellular communication. Include intrleukins interferons and lymphokines.

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25
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

A group of cytokines that can cause cell death (apoptosis)

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26
Q

Chemotactic factors

A

Attract phagocytes to the area of inflammation

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27
Q

Acquired Immunity: Natural Active

A

Pathogens enter the body and cause illness; antibodies form

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28
Q

Acquired Immunity: Artificial Active

A

Vaccine (live or attenuated organisms) is injected into the body. No illness results but antibodies form.

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29
Q

Acquired Immunity: Natural passive

A

Antibodies are passed directly from mother to child to provide temporary protection

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30
Q

Acquired Immunity: Artificial passive

A

Antibodies are injected into the body (antiserum) to provide temporary protection or to minimize severity of an infection

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31
Q

First Line of Defense

A

Physical and chemical barriers

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32
Q

Second Line of Defense

A

Inflammation

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33
Q

Third Line of Defense

A

Immunity

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34
Q

Immune Processes: Innate Immunity

A

Nonspecific

Involves inflammatory processes

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35
Q

Immune processes: Adaptive (acquired) immunity

A

Targeted to a specific antigen

Involves T and B lymphocytes

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36
Q

A client with allergies is prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl), a first-generation antihistamine. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching concerning this medication?

“If I get any ringing in my ears, I should notify my HCP”

“I will have to taper off this medication when I am ready to stop taking it”

“It is not uncommon to get a moon face and elevated glucose when taking this medication”

“I will probably get drowsy when I take this medication”

A

“I will probably get drowsy when I take this medication”

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37
Q

Bob is learning that inflammation is important to understand in relationship to many diseases. He knows there are both signs of acute and chronic inflammation. Which of the following is an effect from an acute inflammatory response?

Select all that apply

Induration (hardened tissue)

Decreased temperature

Blisters

Erythema

pain

A

Erythema

Pain

38
Q

Cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Rubor (redness)

Tumor (Swelling)

Calor (heat)

Dolor (Pain)

Functio laesa (loss of fundtion)

39
Q

What are the benefits of inflammation?

A

Limit tissue destruction

Isolate infection

Initiate healing

40
Q

Which white blood cells release histamine during an acute inflammatory response

A

Mast Cells

41
Q

What occurs during the vascular stage of inflammation?

A

Local circulation is slowed and exudate forms at the site of injury.

42
Q

Phases of Acute Inflammation

A
  1. Stimulus (injury, infection, chemical agent).
  2. Vascular stage - slowing the local circulation and forming exudate at the site of inflammation.
  3. Cellular stage - the migration of neutrophils to the site.
  4. Either resolution where the tissue returns to normal, or persistence which can lead to chronic inflammation.
43
Q

A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is elevated. What should the nurse do?

A

withhold the aspirin and notify the provider

44
Q

A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset, as do other over-the counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?

A

It has minimal effects on cyclooxygenase inhibition at peripheral sites.

45
Q

What is the goal of phagocytosis?

A

To engulf and destroy foreign substances.

46
Q

Which characteristic best describes the inflammatory response?

A

Regulated by chemical mediators

47
Q

Which exudate contains watery fluid and results from plasma at the inflammatory site?

A

Serous

48
Q

________ should not be given during pregnancy and lactation due to effects on developing bones and teeth of the fetus/infant.

A

Tetracycline

49
Q

Which of the following methods has been identified as helping prevent the development of antimicrobial resistance?

A

Using narrow spectrum antibiotics when possible

50
Q

The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are essential for:

A

Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens.

51
Q

A patient is diagnosed with a viral infection and asks why they cannot get an antibiotic to help them feel better. The best response from the nurse is:

A

“Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections”

52
Q

The nurse effectively uses isolation equipment (gown, gloves, mask); how does this interrupt the chain of infection?

A

Blocks the mode of transmission

53
Q

Which of the following describes the incidence of a disease?

A

The number of new cases of a disease within a defined population.

54
Q

Which of the following impacts the ability of a pathogen to cause an infection?
Select all that apply.

The number of microorganisms present

Susceptibility of the host (patient)

Ability of the pathogen to enter and live in the host

Virulence of the pathogen

A

The number of microorganisms present

Susceptibility of the host (patient)

Ability of the pathogen to enter and live in the host

Virulence of the pathogen

AKA All of them

55
Q

Which of the following describes the incidence of a disease?

The number of new cases of a disease within a defined population.
The spread of disease beyond continental borders.
The number of active cases at any given time.
An abrupt increase in the number of cases.

A

The number of new cases of a disease within a defined population.

56
Q

How can nurses break the chain of infection? Select all that apply.

Following guidelines for dressing changes.
Avoiding patients with contagious diseases.

Wearing proper PPE.

Hand washing.

A

Following guidelines for dressing changes.
Wearing proper PPE.

Hand washing.

57
Q

A patient acquired an infection while in the hospital. This is considered a:

A

Nosocomial infection

58
Q

Why is it essential for patients with tuberculosis to be monitored during treatment?

A

To ensure they complete treatment.

59
Q

A client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What statement best describes this client’s immune response?

A

An immune response that no longer recognizes normal body tissue.

60
Q

Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who:

A

Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization.

61
Q

A 10-year old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:

A

IgE

62
Q

The most abundant class of antibody in the serum is:

A

IgG

63
Q

The first antibody to develop in a typical primary immune response is:

A

IgM

64
Q

Functions of antibodies include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Phagocytosis

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of vaccines?

A

Elevated liver enzymes

66
Q

A client has a severe anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. Which priority discharge intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?

A

Have an Epi-Pen available at all times.

67
Q

A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will be made by her body to fight the antigen?

A

Antibodies

68
Q

When the immunoglobulin crosses the placenta, what type of immunity does the fetus receive?

A

Passive

69
Q

Severe immune dysfunction, significant increase in risk of opportunistic infections, and a diagnosis of AIDS results when a person’s CD4+ cells/mm3 count falls below

A

200

70
Q

Antibodies are secreted from which cell type?

A

Plasma cells

71
Q

What causes the loss of cell-mediated and humoral immunity in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A

Loss of CD4 lymphocytes

72
Q

An Rh- mother gives birth to an Rh+ newborn, and the baby develops hemolytic disease of the newborn. What type of sensitivity reaction is this?

A

Type II

73
Q

You are administering a flu shot to a patient, and they ask, “How does this vaccine work?” What is the best response?

A

“Immunizations sensitize your body to prepare antibodies against the flu in case you are exposed to it in the future”

74
Q

With Autoimmune conditions, the body…

A

incorrectly recognizes some of its own tissues as foreign and attacks them

75
Q

Immunodeficiency results when the immune system…

A

loses the ability to react to anitgens

76
Q

Allergies occur when the body…

A

overreacts to antigens (hypersensitivity)

77
Q

Which of the following changes is expected in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?
High blood pressure due to tachycardia.
Low blood pressure do to bradycardia.
High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction.
Low blood pressure due to vasodilation.

A

Low blood pressure due to vasodilation.

78
Q

In anaphylaxis, degranulation of mast cells and basophils causes local and systemic responses leading to:

A

Dilation of vascular smooth muscle

Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle

Increase in vascular permeability

79
Q

You are administering an infusion of Belimumab (monoclonal antibodies) to a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus. What education should be provided?

A

The patient should be instructed not to get vaccines for 30 days after the infusion.

Avoid being around sick patients and recognize symptoms of infection

For infusion related reaction, slow the rate; watch for hypersensitivity

80
Q

Why would a patient be given emtricitabine and tenofovir (Truvada)?

A

To reduce the risk of infection with HIV.

81
Q

Which statements are true regarding HIV drug resistance? Select all that apply.
Correct!
Some patients are infected with drug-resistant HIV.
Correct!
Treatment non-adherence is the most common cause of drug resistance.
The drugs that were created to treat HIV are losing efficacy in most patients.
Correct!
Tests can be performed to guide drug selection when drug resistance occurs.

A

Some patients are infected with drug-resistant HIV.

Treatment non-adherence is the most common cause of drug resistance.

Tests can be performed to guide drug selection when drug resistance occurs.

82
Q

What are the three layers of human defense mechanisms?

A

Barriers

innate immunity

adaptive immunity

83
Q

When is innate immunity present?

A

From birth

84
Q

Is previous exposure to foreign antigens required for innate immune defenses?

A

no

85
Q

What are examples of physical and mechanical barriers in the human defense?

A

skin

mucous membrane

86
Q

What role do antibacterial peptides play in human defenses?

A

They provide a biochemical barrier against pathogenic microorganisms

87
Q

What is the function of normal bacterial flora in human defense?

A

It pervents colonization by pathogens

88
Q

What is inflammation?

A

A rapid and nonspecific protective response to cellular injury

89
Q

Where can inflammatio occur

A

Only in vascularized tissue

90
Q

What are the macroscopic hallmarks of inflammation?

A

Redness

swelling

heat

pain

loss of function

91
Q

What are the three key plasma protein systems involved in inflammation?

A

The complement system

The clotting system

and the kinin system

92
Q

How is the complement system activated?

A

By antigen-antibody reactions of bacterial polusaccharides

NSG 306 Pathopharmacology I (3 decks)

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