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Fundamentals NUR 101 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is at the center of thoughtful practice?

A

Patient/person

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2
Q

What are the 4 components of thoughtful practice?

A

Reflective practice, Nurse’s attributes, knowledge, & experience, Clinical reasoning, judgment, & decision making, & Patient-centered nursing process

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3
Q

What are the 5 steps of the nursing process?

A

Assessing, Diagnosing, Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating

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4
Q

What is assessing in the nursing process?

A

Collecting, validating, and communicating patient data

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5
Q

What is diagnosing in the nursing process?

A

Analyzing patient data to identify patient strengths & problems

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6
Q

What is planning in the nursing process?

A

Specifying patient outcomes & related nursing interventions

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7
Q

What is implementing in the nursing process?

A

Carrying out the care plan

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8
Q

What is evaluating in the nursing process?

A

Measuring extent to which patient achieved outcome

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9
Q

What is the biggest benefit of the nursing process?

A

Coordinates care

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10
Q

What are the 4 steps in concept mapping?

A

Collect pt problems & concerns, Connect & analyze the relationships, Create a diagram, & Keep key concepts in mind

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11
Q

What is the order of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Need? (bottom to top) (50

A

Physiological needs, Safety & security needs, Love & Belonging needs, Self-esteem needs, & Self-actualization needs (must be met in this order)

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12
Q

What are physiological needs according to Maslow?

A

The basic requirements for human survival, such as food, water, warmth, and rest.

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13
Q

What are safety needs according to Maslow?

A

The need for security and protection from physical and emotional harm, including health and financial stability.

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14
Q

What are love/belonging needs according to Maslow?

A

The emotional need for interpersonal relationships, affection, and social belonging.

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15
Q

What are esteem needs according to Maslow?

A

The need for self-esteem, recognition, and respect from others.

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16
Q

What are self-actualization needs according to Maslow?

A

The desire for personal growth, self-improvement, and to realize one’s full potential.

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17
Q

What is the definition of health?

A

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity (financially stable)

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18
Q

What is the definition of illness?

A

The unique response of a person to a disease; an abnormal process involving changed level of functioning (pathology)

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19
Q

What is the definition of wellness?

A

An active state of being healthy by living a lifestyle promoting good physical, mental, and emotional health (the desire to be healthy)

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20
Q

What best describes health?

A

Individually described by each person

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21
Q

What are the 6 human dimensions composing the whole person?

A

Intellectual, Environmental, Spiritual, Sociocultural, Emotional, & Physical (nurses can treat all of these areas/ holistic care)

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22
Q

What is the best way to describe chronic illness?

A

Long term, long-standing disease (often predictable, no cure, only management) (exacerbation & remission)

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23
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of chronic illness?

A

Permanent change causes(ed by) irreversible alterations, requires special education, & requires a long period of care/support

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24
Q

What are the ranges for the health-illness continuum?

A

High-level wellness -> Good health -> Normal health -> Illness -> Death

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25
Q

What are the 6 risk factors for illness?

A

Age, Genetic factors, Physiologic factors, Health habits, Lifestyle, & Environment

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26
Q

What are the 4 factors that influence a person’s self-concept?

A

Past experiences, Interpersonal interactions, Physical & cultural influences, & Education

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27
Q

What is primary health promotion give examples?

A

Strategies and activities aimed at improving health and preventing disease before it occurs. Vaccinations, education, etc.

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28
Q

What is secondary health promotion give examples?

A

Strategies aimed at reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred. Screenings, risk assessments, etc.

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29
Q

What is tertiary health promotion give examples?

A

An approach aimed at helping individuals manage long-term, complex health problems to improve their quality of life (treatment). Rehabilitation, chronic disease management, etc.

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30
Q

What is Erickson (psychosocial) theory expand on?

A

Expanded on Freud to include cultural and social influences

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31
Q

What occurs in adolescents?

A

Puberty, searching for identity, trying out different roles, and self concept

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32
Q

What occurs in the young adult phase?

A

Relationships, choosing a vocation, setting long term goals, creative in thought, & objective/realistic

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33
Q

What are adolescents & young adults at risk for?

A

Injuries (MVA) (risk-taking behaviors), substance abuse, suicide, pregnancy/STDs, nutritional problems, & developmental & situational stressors

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34
Q

What occurs in the middle-age adult phase?

A

Hormonal changes, hair loss/color changes, hearing/vision changes, fatty tissue, mid life reassessment, & sandwhich generation

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35
Q

What does sandwhich generation mean?

A

a group of people who care for both their aging parents and their children simultaneously.

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36
Q

What is ageism?

A

Form of prejudice – stereotyped by characteristics found in only a few members of the group. View that older people are different

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37
Q

What are some issues that come with aging?

A

Social interaction, Living arrangements, Role reversal (used to provide care now the one cared for), chronic illness (polypharmacy), accidental injuries, dementia, Alzheimer’s disease, & sundowning syndrome

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38
Q

What is polypharmacy?

A

When a pt. takes multiple medications at the same time

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39
Q

What is sundowning syndrome?

A

a phenomenon in which individuals with dementia experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening

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40
Q

What are the 3 dimensions of self-concept?

A

Self-knowledge, Self-expectation, & Self-evaluation

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41
Q

What question describes self-knowledge?

A

“Who am I?”

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42
Q

What question describes self-expectation?

A

“Who or what do I want to be?”

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43
Q

What question describes self-evaluation?

A

“How well do I like myself?”

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44
Q

What are the three major self-evaluation feelings?

A

Pride, Guilt, & Shame

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45
Q

What is pride based on?

A

Based on positive self-evalution

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46
Q

What is guilt based on?

A

Based on behaviors incongruent with the ideal self

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47
Q

What is shame associated with?

A

Associated with low global self-worth

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48
Q

What is self-concept learned from?

A

From the environement and family

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49
Q

What are factors affecting self-concept?

A

History of success & failure, Developmental considerations, culture, internal & external resources, crisis or life stressors, aging, illness, & trauma

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50
Q

What are 4 aspects of assessing self-concept?

A

Personal identity, Body image, Self-esteem, & Role performance

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51
Q

What aga group does the Intamcy vs. Isolation phase apply to?

A

Young Adult

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52
Q

What aga group does the Generativity vs. Stagnation phase apply to?

A

Middle Age Adult

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53
Q

What age group does the Integrity vs. Despair phase apply to?

A

Older Adult

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54
Q

What are the positive outcomes for the Erikson phase for young adult?

A

Intimacy and strong relationships established

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55
Q

What are the positive outcomes for the Erikson phase for mild age adult?

A

Development of a sense of generativity, contributing to society and feeling productive.

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56
Q

What are the positive outcomes for the Erikson phase for older adult?

A

Achieving a sense of integrity and fulfillment in life.

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57
Q

What are the negative outcomes for the Erikson phase for young adult?

A

Struggles with intimacy, feelings of isolation, and difficulty establishing meaningful connections.

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58
Q

What are the negative outcomes for the Erikson phase for mild age adult?

A

Feelings of stagnation, unproductive contributions to society, and a lack of personal fulfillment.

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59
Q

What are the negatve outcomes for the Erikson phase for older adult?

A

Experiencing despair and regret over unachieved goals.

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60
Q

What are some examples of physiologic stressors?

A

Chemical agents, Physical agents, Infectious agents, Nutritional imbalance, Hypoxia, & Genetic or immune disorders

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61
Q

What are chemical agents of stress?

A

Substances that can cause physiological stress in the body, including drugs and illnesses.

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62
Q

What are physical agents of stress?

A

Environmental factors that can lead to physiological stress, such as extreme temperatures or mechanical forces.

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63
Q

What are infectious agents of stress?

A

Pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites that can induce stress on the body.

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64
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

A condition where there is a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues, causing stress.

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65
Q

What are some examples of psychosocial stressors?

A

Accidents, Stressful/traumatic experience of family and friends, Horrors of history, Fear of aggression or mutilation, Events of history, & Rapid changes in the world

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66
Q

What are the primary control of the physiological homeostasis coping mechanisms?

A

Autonomic nervous systems & endocrine system

67
Q

What are the secondary control of the physiological homeostasis coping mechanisms?

A

Respiratory, cardiovascular, GI, & the renal systems

68
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The property of a system to regulate its internal environment to maintain stable conditions. (back to normal)

69
Q

What is the local adaption syndrome?

A

Involves only one specific body part (ex. Reflex pain response & inflammatory response)

70
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

A biochemical model of stress (ex. Alarm reaction, Stage of resistance, & Stage of exhaustion) (Fight or flight)

71
Q

What is the alarm reaction?

A

The initial response to stress that activates the body’s defense mechanisms

72
Q

What is the stage of resistance?

A

The body’s adaptation to prolonged stress after the alarm reaction. Hormone levels rise, body prepares to react. (adapt to stressor)

73
Q

What is the stage of exhaustion?

A

The final stage of the general adaptation syndrome, occurring when the body’s resources are depleted.

74
Q

T/F The inflammatory response is a response of the central nervous system to pain.

A

False
Rationale: The reflex pain response is a response of the central nervous system to pain.

75
Q

What are 6 nursing strategies to identify personal strengths?

A

Identify pt.’s strengths, help at-risk pt. maintain sense of self, replace self-nagation, notice & reinforce pt. strengths, encourage pt. to will strengths for themselves, and help pt. cope w/necessary dependency

76
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system?

A

A part of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for stressful or emergency situations, often referred to as the ‘fight or flight’ system. (Ex. Increase HR & cardiac output)

77
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

A part of the autonomic nervous system responsible for conserving energy and promoting rest-and-digest functions. (Decreases HR back to normal)

78
Q

What is the most common emotional response to stress?

A

Anxiety

79
Q

What is the mind-body interaction?

A

The relationship between physical health and emotional well-being.

80
Q

What level of anxiety can be beneficial?

A

Mild Anxiety

81
Q

What is the best way to describe moderate anxiety?

A

A level of anxiety that makes it difficult to focus

82
Q

What is the best way to describe severe anxiety?

A

A level of anxiety that significantly impacts daily life

83
Q

What is the best way to describe panic?

A

An intense and overwhelming fear that can occur during extreme stress

84
Q

T/F Mild anxiety narrows a person’s perceptual fields so that the focus is on immediate concerns, with inattention to other communications and details.

A

False
Rationale: Moderate anxiety narrows a person’s perceptual fields so that the focus is on immediate concerns, with inattention to other communications and details.

85
Q

What are coping mechanisms?

A

Strategies used to manage stress and emotional challenges.

86
Q

What are the 3 types of task-oriented reactions to stress?

A

Attack behavior, Withdrawal behavior, & Compromise behavior

87
Q

What are types of defense mechanisms?

A

Compensation, denial, displacement, introjection, projection, rationalization, reaction formation, regression, repression, sublimation, & undoing

88
Q

What is the compensation defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism where an individual attempts to make up for a perceived deficiency or weakness.

89
Q

What is the denial defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that involves refusing to accept reality or facts.

90
Q

What is the displacement defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that shifts emotional responses from the original object to a safer substitute.

91
Q

What is the introjection defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism where an individual internalizes the beliefs or attitudes of others.

92
Q

What is the projection defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to someone else.

93
Q

What is the rationalization defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that offers logical explanations for behaviors that are actually motivated by irrational factors.

94
Q

What is the reaction formation defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism characterized by converting unwanted or dangerous thoughts into their opposites. (little boy like little girl, so he pulls her pigtails)

95
Q

What is the regression defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism where an individual reverts to behaviors characteristic of an earlier stage of development.

96
Q

What is the repression defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out painful or unwanted thoughts and feelings.

97
Q

What is the sublimation defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that channels unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors.

98
Q

What is the undoing defense mechanism?

A

A defense mechanism that involves attempting to reverse or negate a thought or feeling by performing a contrary action.

99
Q

Which defense mechanism is portrayed in the following scenario? After throwing his lunch tray on the floor, a patient complains to the nurse manager about the quality of the food he is being fed during his hospital stay.

A

Rationalization

100
Q

What are some of the effects of long-term stress?

A

Affect physical status, increase risk of disease or injury, compromises recovery, & is associated with specific diseases

101
Q

What is caregiver burden?

A

the physical, emotional, and financial strain experienced by individuals providing care to someone who is ill, disabled, or elderly

102
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting stress and adaptation?

A

Sources of stress, Types of stressors experienced, & Personal factors

103
Q

When does developmental stress occur?

A

Occurs when person progresses through stages of growth and development

104
Q

What is true about how situational stress occur?

A

Does not occur in predictable patterns

105
Q

T/F An example of situational stress is the stress related to a marriage or divorce.

A

True
Rationale: An example of situational stress is the stress related to a marriage or divorce.

106
Q

What are stressful activities in nursing profession?

A

Assuming responsiblities while unprepared, working with unqualifies personnel, Working in an environment w/unsupportive supervisors, Caring for pt. in cardiac arrst or dying, and Experiencing conflict with peers

107
Q

What are some health activities of daily living?

A

Exercise, Rest and sleep, Nutrition, Use of support systems, & Use of stress management techniques

108
Q

What are 6 stress management techniques?

A

Relaxation, Mediation, Anticipatory guidance, Guided imagery, Biofeedback, & Crisis intervention

109
Q

What is anticipatory guidance?

A

A proactive approach to preparing patients and their families for expected developmental milestones and potential challenges.

110
Q

T/F In the stress management technique known as anticipatory guidance, a person creates a mental image, concentrates on the image, and becomes less responsive to stimuli.

A

False
Rationale: In the stress management technique known as guided imagery, a person creates a mental image, concentrates on the image, and becomes less responsive to stimuli.

111
Q

What are the 5 elements of crisis intervention?

A

Identify the problem, List alternatives, Choose from alternatives, Implement the plan, & Evaluate the outcome

112
Q

What kind of skill is communication?

A

Technical

113
Q

What are the 5 parts of the communication process?

A

Stimulus or referent, Sender or source of message (encoder), Message itself, Medium or channel of communication, & Receiver (decoder)

114
Q

What determines the type of vocabulary used in communication?

A

The status of the sender

115
Q

What are the 4 levels of communication?

A

Intrapersonal, Interpersonal, Small group, & Organizational

116
Q

What is intrapersonal talk?

A

self-directed conversation or dialogue that occurs within an individual.

117
Q

What is interpersonal talk?

A

communication and conversation that takes place between two or more individuals.

118
Q

What are the 7 characteristics of effective & ineffective groups?

A

Group identity, Cohesiveness, Patterns of interaction, Decision making, Responsibility, Leadership, & Power

119
Q

What are the 8 factors influencing communication?

A

Development level, Gender, Sociocultural differences, Roles & responsibilities, Space & territoriality, Physical, mental, & emotional state, Values, & Environment

120
Q

What needs to align in order for you to been seen as honest?

A

Verbal and Nonverbal communication

121
Q

What are the 3 phases of the helping relationship?

A

Orientation (purpose), Working (delivering care), & Termination (leave)

122
Q

What are the 4 dispositional traits?

A

Warmth & friendliness, Openness & respect, Empathy (not sympathy), & Honest, authentic, & caring

123
Q

What are the 4 rapport builders?

A

Privacy, Environment, Pacing, & Specific objectives

124
Q

What are open-ended questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that allow for a free-form response rather than a simple yes or no.

125
Q

What are closed questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that can be answered with a simple yes or no.

126
Q

What are validating questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that seek to confirm understanding or feelings.

127
Q

What are clarifying questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that aim to clear up confusion or gain more detail.

128
Q

What are reflective questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that encourage the responder to think back on their experiences.

129
Q

What are sequencing questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that ask for information in a specific order or series.

130
Q

What are directing questions (interviewing techniques)?

A

Questions that guide the conversation toward a specific topic or response.

131
Q

What is the most important characteristic of assertive nurse’s self-presentation?

A

Admitting mistakes & taking responsibility for them

132
Q

What are some blocks to communication?

A

Using clichés, Using questions containing the words “why” & “how” (puts blame on pt.), Giving false assurance, Using judgemental comments, Failure to listen, etc.

133
Q

What are the 4 aims of teaching and counseling?

A

Maintaining and promoting health, Preventing illness, Restoring health, & Facilitating coping

134
Q

What are the 2 overall goals of teaching?

A

Have the pt. learn & create new behaviors

135
Q

What are the 3 focus points of patient education?

A

Preparation for receiving care, preparation before discharge from a health care facility, & documentation of pt. education activity

136
Q

What does the acronym T.E.A.C.H. stand for?

A

Tune into the pt.
Edit pt. info
Act on every teaching moment
Clarify often
Honor the pt. as a partner in education process

137
Q

What are the 3 learning domains?

A

Cognitive, Psychomotor, & Affective

138
Q

What is cognitive learning?

A

Storing & recalling of new knowledge in the brain (ex. Lecture)

139
Q

What is psychomotor learning?

A

Learning a physical skill (ex. Lab)

140
Q

What is affective learning?

A

Changing attitudes, values, & feelings (ex. Role modeling)

141
Q

What are the assessment parameters (learning/teaching)?

A

Knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to be independent, Readiness to learn, Ability to learn, & Learning strengths

142
Q

What are the 5 steps to providing culturally competent pt. education?

A

Develop understanding, Work w/multicultural team, Be aware of assumptions, biases, & prejudices, Understand core cultural values, & Develop written material in pt. preferred language

143
Q

What are the 6 teaching plan for older adults?

A

Id learning barriers, Allow extra time, Plan short teaching sessions, Accommodate for sensory deficits, Reduce environmental distractions, & Relate new info to familiar activities or info

144
Q

What are some key points to effective communication?

A

Avoid too much detail & stick to the basics, listen and do no interrupt, use simple vocabulary, ask for questions, be sincere & honest, etc.

145
Q

What is the gold standard for obtaining feedback about learning?

A

The teach-back method

146
Q

What are the 4 parts of documentation of the teaching-learning process?

A

Summary of the learning need, The plan The implementation of the plan, & Evaluation results (did the pt. understand?)

147
Q

What are the 2 types of power?

A

Explicit and implied

148
Q

What the 5 steps to achieving self-knowledge?

A

Identify strengths, Evaluate how you accomplish work, Clarify your values, Determine where you belong and what you can contribute, & Assume responsibility for relationships

149
Q

What is the autocratic leadership style?

A

A leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group members.

150
Q

What is the democratic leadership style?

A

A leadership style that encourages group participation in the decision-making process.

151
Q

What is the Laissez-faire leadership style?

A

A leadership style that allows team members to make decisions and complete their work independently. (not very effective)

152
Q

What is the servant leadership style?

A

A leadership style focused on serving others and prioritizing the needs of team members.

153
Q

What is the quantum leadership style?

A

A leadership style that adapts to changes quickly and encourages innovation. (data driven)

154
Q

What is the transactional leadership style?

A

A leadership style based on a system of rewards and punishments.

155
Q

What is the transformational leadership style?

A

A leadership style that inspires and motivates team members to achieve their fullest potential.

156
Q

What are the 3 steps of Lewin’s Theory of Change?

A

Unfreezing, Change, & Refreezing

157
Q

What is the unfreezing phase?

A

The first stage in Lewin’s Theory of Change where existing behaviors are challenged and prepared for change.

158
Q

What is the change phase?

A

The phase in Lewin’s Theory of Change where new behaviors and practices are developed and implemented.

159
Q

What is the refreezing phase?

A

The final stage in Lewin’s Theory of Change where new behaviors are solidified and made a permanent part of the organization.

160
Q

What are the 5 steps for using time effectively?

A

Establish goals, Evaluate goals, Establish time line, Evaluate success, & Use results to direct priorities & time line

161
Q

What are the 6 factors to consider prior to delegating pt. care?

A

Qualifications & capabilities of the UAP, Stability of the pt. condition, Complexity of the activity to be delegated, The potential for harm, The predictability of the outcome, & The overall context of other pt. needs (know when, how, & why to delegate)

162
Q

What can not be delegated?

A

Responsibility (only tasks can be delegated)

163
Q

Who is responsible & accountable for nursing practice?

A

The RN

164
Q

What is the purpose of UAP?

A

To work in supportive role to the RN

Fundamentals NUR 101 (8 decks)

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