Exam 1 (Focused) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 HGTC Integrated Concepts?

A
  1. Safety 2. Profession Behavior 3. Clinical Decision Making 4. Patient Center Care 5. Teamwork & Collaboration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an Example of each Integrated Concepts

A

Safety: PPE, Med Safety, & Procedure Skills. Prof Beh: Pt. Come First, Good Attitude, Being on Time, Uniform, & Being Prepared. Clin Dec: Quick Decision. Pt. Center Care: All About Patient. Team & Collab: Communication Skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 Aims of Nursing?

A
  1. Promote Health 2. Prevent Illness 3. Restore Health 4. Facilitate coping with Disability/Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give an Example of each Nursing Aim

A

Prom Health: Eat right, Exercise, No Smoking. Prevent Illness: Vaccination & Screening. Restore Health: Rehabilitation. Facil Coping: Helping Family & Pt Wishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does ADPIE Stand for?

A

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Interventions, Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An Exam that Must be Passed for Initial Licensure as a Practical Nurse.

A

NCLEX-PN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An Examination that Assesses the Knowledge and Skills Required for Nursing Practice.

A

NCLEX Exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the Standards of Care in Nursing Practice?

A

What Nurses Can do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Nurses Practice Acts?

A

How a Nurse Does Tasks (Vary by state)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Inductive Reasoning?

A

Using Multiple Concepts to Reach a Conclusion (2+2=4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Deductive Reasoning?

A

Working Backwards to Identify a Cause (4=2+2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Qualitative Research?

A

Gains Insight into Patient Experience “Art of Nursing”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Quantitative Research?

A

Provides Data & Numbers “Science of Nursing”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does PICOT stand for?

A

Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, & Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Gold Standard of Nursing Practice?

A

Evidence-Based Practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Normal Adult Temp?

A

96.4-99.5F or 35.8-37.5C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Normal Adult Pulse?

A

60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Normal Adult Respiration Rate?

A

12 to 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Normal Adult Blood Pressure?

A

120/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Normal Older Adult Temp?

A

96.4-98.3F or 35.8-36.8C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Infection Cycle?

A

Stages involved in the process of infection including: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, means of transmission, portals of entry, and susceptible host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an Infectious Agent?

A

Pathogens like bacteria, viruses, and fungi that cause infection, such as avian influenza and swine flu Found Everywhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene?

A

Guidelines for when to perform hand hygiene to reduce infection risk Moment 1: before touching a patient Moment 2: before a clean or aseptic procedure Moment 3: After a body fluid exposure risk Moment 4: After touching a patient Moment 5: After touching patient’s surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the Stages of Infection?

A

Incubation, Prodromal, Full Illness, and Convalescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the Incubation Stage of Infection?

A

Infection has entered the body. Little to no symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the Prodromal Stage of Infection?

A

Most contagious stage. Some symptoms Know you are sick but not with what

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the Full Illness Stage of Infection?

A

The disease is going to run its course. Sick role is taken on. Time varies”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the Convalescence Stage of Infection?

A

When we get better. Time depends on many factors. Restored to highest ability of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cardinal signs of acute infection/inflammation

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are Standard Precautions?

A

Infection prevention practices used for all hospitalized patients regardless of infection status gloves, gowns, masks, and eyewear Tier 1 precautions The first line of defense This applies to all patient Used when a there is risk of contact with blood, mucus membrane, or body fluids (ex., Giving a shot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are Transmission-Based Precautions?

A

Additional precautions for patients suspected of having infections that can spread by airborne, droplet, or contact routes Tier 2 Protocol provided Standard precautions are still in place as need be Always hand wash, cough etiquette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are Air Born Precautions?

A

Precautions used for diseases that spread through the air. M95 or higher mask are used. Goggles if actively coughing. Negative pressure (vented outside), isolation room. Door must be closed. Ex. Chickenpox, smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are Droplet Precautions?

A

Used for illness such as Flue, Mumps, COVID. Partials are heavier, if shot out, will hit the ground. Mask are used up close, but not far away. Gloves, goggles, and gown if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are Contact Precautions?

A

Gloves and gowns. Ex: C.diff & Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are Neutropenic Precautions?

A

Used for no immune system pt (like cancer pt.) You can’t give them something. Gowns, gloves, door closed, & no fresh fruit or flowers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Some Common Safety Risk Factors?

A

Falls, Fires, Poisoning, Suffocation/Choking, & Firearms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Biggest Future Indicator for a Fall?

A

A Past Fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are Some Fall Prevention Strategies?

A

Methods to reduce the risk of falls, including proper use of side rails, bed and chair locks, bed and chair alarms, shower and non-skid socks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does R.A.C.E. P.A.S.S. Stand for and What is it Used For?

A

Rescue Activate Confine Evacuate/Extinguish Pull pin Aim Squeeze Handle Sweeping Motion. Used for Fire Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What could Restraints cause?

A

Increased injury risk, skin injury, depression, anxiety/delirium, aspiration, & death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 6 Vital Signs?

A

Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, Blood Pressure, Pain, & Oxygen Saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should you assess vital signs (7)?

A

On admission, Based on policy and procedures, When there is a change, Loss of consciousness, Before and after surgical or invasive procedure, Before and after activity, & Before administering medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Normal Oxygen Saturation (O2 sat)?

A

> 95%

44
Q

What is the Primary Source of Heat in the Body?

A

Metabolism

45
Q

What are Some Ways Metabolism is Increased?

A

Hormones, Muscle Movements, & Exercise

46
Q

What is the Normal Oral Temperature for an Adult?

A

37.0C or 98.6F

47
Q

What is the Normal Rectal Temperature for an Adult?

A

37.5C or 99.5F

48
Q

What is the Normal Axillary Temperature for an Adult?

A

36.5C or 97.7F

49
Q

What is the Normal Tympanic Temperature for an Adult?

A

37.4C or 99.5F

50
Q

What is the Normal Forehead Temperature for an Adult?

A

34.4C or 94.0F

51
Q

What are some of the physical effects of fevers?

A

Muscle aches, fatigue, hr & rr increase, fluid & electrolyte imbalance, loss of appetite, headache, hot &/or dry skin thirst, & seizure &/or confusion

52
Q

What do seizures and confusion indicate?

A

Temperature is too High

53
Q

What are some treatments of fevers?

A

Comfort, medications, cool baths, increase fluid intake, & simple carbs

54
Q

What is the Pulse rate?

A

Number of contractions over a peripheral artery in 1 minute

55
Q

What HR indicates Tachycardia?

A

> 100

56
Q

What HR indicates Bradycardia?

A

< 60

57
Q

What is the name for the sounds heard durning BP?

A

Korotkoff

58
Q

What is the First sound/Top number heard in BP

A

Systolic

59
Q

What is the Change in sound/Bottom number in BP

A

Diastolic

60
Q

What arteries are commonly used to take blood pressure?

A

Brachial artery and popliteal artery

61
Q

What numbers indicate hypertension?

A

> 130/90

62
Q

What happens when the BP cuff is too big?

A

Decrease blood pressure

63
Q

What happens when the BP cuff is too small?

A

Increased blood pressure

64
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Movement of air in & out of the lungs
(Inhalation: in Exhalation: out)

65
Q

What is the term for normal, unlabored respiration 1 resp to 4 heartbeats

A

Eupnea

66
Q

What is the term for increased respiratory rate; may occur in response to an increased metabolic rate (>20)?

A

Tachypnea

67
Q

What is the term for decreased RR; that occurs in some pathologic conditions (<12)?

A

Bradypnea

68
Q

What is the term for period when no breathing occurs?

A

Apnea

69
Q

What is the term for difficult or labored breathing?

A

Dyspnea

70
Q

What is the term for changes in breathing when sitting or standing?

A

Orthopnea

71
Q

What is the purpose of a health assessment?

A

Establish relationship, gather data, identify strengths, identify health problems, & establish a base

72
Q

What is a comprehensive health assessment?

A

Conducted upon admission to health care facility. Must be done by a RN

73
Q

What is an ongoing partial health assessment?

A

Conducted at regular intervals. The 10 min assessment. Snapshot of comprehensive. Track progress. Frequency depends on facility. LPN can help, but RN at least every 24hr

74
Q

What is a focused health assessment?

A

Conducted to assess a specific problem/complaint

75
Q

What is an emergency health assessment?

A

Conducted to determine life-threatening or unstable conditions

76
Q

What are the 6 steps to preparing the environment for physical assessment?

A

Agree on time, Free of pain, Prepare table, Provide gown & drape, Gather supplies & instruments, & Provide a curtain or screen

77
Q

What are the 6 pieces of equipment used during a physical examination?

A

Thermometer or sphygmomanometer, scale, flashlight or penlight, stethoscope, metric tape measure and rule, and eye chart

78
Q

What visualization does a Sitting assessment allow?

A

Allows visualization of upper body

79
Q

What does a Supine assessment allow?

A

Allows relaxation of abdominal muscles

80
Q

What type of patients are Dorsal recumbent assessments used for?

A

Used for patients having difficulty maintaining supine position

81
Q

What does a Sim’s assessment assess?

A

Assessment of rectum or vagina

82
Q

What does a Prone assessment assess?

A

Assessment of hip joint and posterior thorax

83
Q

What does a Lithotomy assessment assess?

A

Assessment of female genitalia and rectum

84
Q

What does a Knee-chest assessment assess?

A

Assessment of anus and rectum

85
Q

What does inspections assess?

A

Assesses size, color, shape, position, and symmetry

86
Q

What does palpation asses?

A

Assesses temperature, turgor, texture, moisture, vibrations, and shape

87
Q

What does percussion assess?

A

Assesses location, shape, size, and density of tissues

88
Q

What does auscultation assess?

A

Assesses the four characteristics of sound, that is pitch, loudness, quality, and duration

89
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of masses determined by palpation?

A

Shape, Size, Consistency, Surface, Mobility & Tenderness

90
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of sound heard during auscultation?

A

Pitch, Loudness, Quality, & Duration

91
Q

What are the 4 aspects of a general survey?

A

General appearance, Vital signs, Height, weight, waist circumference, & Calculating BMI

92
Q

What are the 4 common thorax & lung variations in older adults?

A

Increased anteroposterior chest diameter, Increase in the dorsal spinal curve (kyphosis), Decreased thoracic expansion, & Use of accessory muscles to exhale

93
Q

What are common cardiovascular & peripheral vascular variations in older adults?

A

Difficult-to-palpate apical pulse and distal arteries, Dilated proximal arteries, More prominent & tortous blood vessels (varicosities common), increased systolic & diastolic bp, & Widening pulse pressure

94
Q

What is an abdominal variation commonly seen in older adults?

A

Decreased bowel sound & abdominal tone & Fat accumulation on the abdomen and hips

95
Q

What does Prone position look like?

A

The person lies on the abdomen with head turned to the side, the bed is flat

96
Q

What does Supine (dorsal recumbent) position look like?

A

The pt. lies flat on the back with head & shoulders slightly elevated w/pillow

97
Q

What does Fowler’s position look like?

A

Head of the bed is elevated 45-60 degrees, semi-sitting position

98
Q

What does Semi-Fowler’s position look like?

A

Head of the bed is elevated 15-45 degrees

99
Q

What does Lateral position look like?

A

Pt. lies on the side with a pillow bt legs, weight on lateral aspect of lower scapula and lower ilium

100
Q

What does Sims position look like?

A

Pt. lies on the side with a pillow bt legs, lower arm is behind pt and upper arm is flex at both the shoulder & elbow

101
Q

What does Trendelenburg position look like?

A

Pt. is supine on the bed with head decline below their feet at an angle of roughly 16 degrees

102
Q

What is the order for abdominal assessment?

A
  1. Inspect 2. Auscultate 3. Percuss 4. Palpation
103
Q

What position should the pt be in for an abdominal assessment?

A

Supine

104
Q

Why does BP increase in older adults?

A

Arteriosclerosis

105
Q

What is arteriosclerosis?

A

Hardening of blood vessels

106
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

The difference between systolic & diastolic