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Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In G1 of the cell cycle, you would expect all but which of these processes to occur?
- ATP synthesis
- translation of PFK (for glycolysis)
- translation of DNA polymerase
- endocytosis
- active transport

A

translation of DNA polymerase

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1
Q

Microtubules that form the mitotic spindle tend to originate from or terminate in

A

centrioles and kinetochores.

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2
Q

How does a cell know when to transcribe and translate (express) cyclin?

A

Growth factors initiate signal transduction to produce cyclin

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3
Q

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes move to the center of the cell?

A

metaphase

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4
Q

When the cyclin-CDK complex phosphorylates RB, the cell cycle progresses from _______ to _______.

A

G1 phase; S phase

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5
Q

Mitosis occurs after

A

the cell divides the nucleus.

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6
Q

The characteristic of DNA that allows it to make an exact copy of itself is its

A

complementary base pairing.

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7
Q

What is the term that refers to the template strand of DNA that is replicated discontinuously?

A

lagging strand

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8
Q

Ideally, PCR _______ increases the amount of DNA during additional cycles.

A

exponentially

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9
Q

If a template DNA strand has the base sequence 3’-GTC…CCA-5’, what would be the sequence of the corresponding mRNA?

A

5’-CAG…GGU-3’

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10
Q

When cells lose control of the cell cycle, cancer can develop. Of the following, which is not a way that we should treat cancer cells.

A

produce additional growth factors

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11
Q

When active and bound to cyclin, cyclin dependent kinase (CDK)

A

inactivates RB

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12
Q

In cancer cells that are influenced by tumor suppressor proteins, regulation of the cell cycle

A

is disrupted by preventing inhibition of the cell cycle.

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13
Q

In cancer cells that are affected by tumor suppressor proteins, then

A

cell division is no longer inhibited when cells are damaged.

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14
Q

Regulation of the cell cycle is dependent on cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases. The key that allows a cell to progress beyond the restriction point is

A

phosphorylation of RB by CDK

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15
Q

A subset of cells in the intestinal epithelium divides continually in order to replace dead cells. A microscopic examination of this population of cells would show that most of them

A

are in interphase

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16
Q

Which of the following molecules is always present in the cell?

A

CDK

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17
Q

In DNA replication, what is the relationship between a primer and primase?

A

Primase catalyzes the RNA primer synthesis

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18
Q

what is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide?

A

nucleoside is the nitrogenous base and pentose sugar but nucleotide is nitrogenous base and pentose sugar plus 3 phosphate group

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19
Q

what is the difference between a pyrimidine and purine?

A

pyrimidine: one carbon ring (U, C, T)
purines: two carbon rings (A & G)

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20
Q

how does nucleic acids form?

A

reaction called transesterification (adding 3’ OH to 5’ phosphate)
- resulting bond called phosphodiester bond

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21
Q

T-A pairs have how many hydrogen bonds and C-G pairs have how many?

A

T-A have 2 hydrogen bonds while C-G have 3
- means C-G takes more energy to break the bond

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22
Q

what is Chargaff’s rule?

A

complementary base pairs will equal each other in amount- all base pairs add up to 100%

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23
Q

what are the 5 features that define DNA?

A
  1. double-stranded helix
  2. right handed helix
  3. strands are antiparallel
  4. strands held together by complementary base pairing
  5. DNA has major and minor grooves
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24
does DNA replication happen semiconservatively or conservatively?
semiconservatively
25
what are the 3 phases of DNA replication?
1. initiation: DNA helix unwound to separate 2 template strands. each strand primed with RNA primer 2. elongation: DNA synthesis occurs from RNA primer 3. termination: DNA synthesis ends when all DNA regions have been replicated
26
what are the proteins used in DNA synthesis?
1. DNA helicase: unwinds double helix (using ATP) 2. single-stranded binding protein: binds to separated strands & prevents reformation 3. RNA primase: makes RNA primers 4. DNA polymerase: links new nucleotides & removes primers 5. DNA ligases: connects Okazaki fragments
27
what are the names for the 2 template strands?
one leading strand (3' to 5') one lagging strand (5' to 3')
28
what end to what end is nucleic acids read and what end to what end is DNA made?
nucleic acids ALWAYs read 3' to 5' & DNA ALWAYs made 5' to 3'
29
what are the 3 ways DNA prevent mistakes?
1. proof reading (DNA polymerase): corrects errors as they are made 2. mismatch repair: scans DNA after replication & corrects base pair mismatch 3. excision repair: removes damaged base pairs & replaces them
30
what does PCR need?
DNA, 2 primers, four dNTPS, DNA polymerase, and salts w/ buffer for neutral pH
31
what are the steps of PCR?
1. heat to near boiling to denature DNA 2. cool to allow primers to bind 3. warmed to optimal catalytic temp. for DNA polymerase *Use DNA polymerase form thermos aquaticus b/c hot
32
how does cell division work in prokaryotes?
DNA replicates bidirectionally from origin and ends at terminal - cytokinesis forms 2 rings of FtsZ (similar to tubulin)
33
what does interphase consists of?
G1 (each chromosome is single chromatid & cell does normal stuff) S (DNA replicated) G2 (preparation Ex: make centrioles)
34
what does progress through cell cycle depend on?
depends on activation of CDK (which depends on cyclin). when CDK active, it phosphorylate retinoblastoma protein (RB) to RB-P to inactivate it - CDK and cyclin example of allosteric regulation
35
what happens if DNA is damaged?
signal transduction makes p53 which phosphorylates to p21. p21 binds to CDK (not allow cyclin to bind)
36
what are the cell cycle checkpoints?
G1: check for DNA damage S: incomplete replication/DNA damage G2: DNA damage M: chromosome unattached to spine
37
what is the difference between sister and daughter chromatids?
sister chromatids share a centromere while daughter chromatids have their own
38
what happens in prophase and prometaphase?
prophase: centrosomes of 2 centrioles move to opposite ends (poles) and spindle fibers start to develop. centromere on chromosome develop kinetochores (one on each chromatid) where fibers attach prometaphase: nuclear envelope degrades & spindle fibers attach
39
what is anaphase controlled by?
M-phase CDK which activates anaphase promoting complex that activates separase to destroy cohesion (protein) b/w sister chromatids
40
what is the difference between cytokinesis in animals and plants?
animals: furrowing consisting of actin and myosin to contract plant: vesicles of cellulose by kinesis deposit into dividing line for new cell wall
41
what are the 2 types of microtubules (spindle fibers)?
polar microtubules: form framework and run from pole to pole kinetochore microtubules
42
what are the 6 different types of RNA?
rRNA (component of ribosome that catalyze peptide bond formation) mRNA (carrier of protein-coding sequence) tRNA (intermediate b/w mRNA and protein sequence micro RNA (miRNA): regulated mRNA stability & translation small interfering RNA (siRNA): regulates stability of other RNAs small nuclear RNA (snRNA) mediates mRNA processing
43
what are the transcription steps?
1. initiation: RNA polymerase binds to special DNA sequence called promoter (transcription factors help RNA polymerase find promoter) 2. elongation: energy released by rNTPs (removal of 2 phosphate groups) drive this 3. termination: there is a termination sequence
44
what is RNA processing?
there is pre-mRNA before mature. DNA has introns (non-coding) and exons (coding). when DNA transcribed, pre-mRNA has introns and exons, so introns has to be spliced out, which is RNA processing & done by snRNPs
45
how is pre-mRNA further processed?
it is modified with a 5' cap (signal to get out) and poly adenine tail (prolongs life after it leaves)
46
what are the different types of codons and what is a codon?
codon: 3 letter grouping of mRNA start codon: AUG (met) is initiation signal for translation sense codon: codons that encode amino acid info. nonsense/stop codon: those that don't encode and act as termination
47
what are the 3 factors of genetic code?
it is redundant, not ambiguous (one specific codon only codes for one amino acid), and nearly universal
48
what are the 3 sites for tRNA binding in ribosomes?
1. A (aminoacetyl-tRNA) site where anticodon binds to codon 2. P (peptidyl-tRNA) site where tRNA carrying growing peptide chain resides 3. E (exit) site where uncharged tRNA resides before released into cytosol *Codon-anticodon interactions only at P & A sites
49
how does tRNA's structure allow it to do its job?
1. tRNAs covalently bind to particular amino acid (3' end of tRNA - CCA) 2. tRNAs non-covalent hydrogen bond via tRNA's anticodon complementary to mRNA codon 3. tRNAs noncovalently interact with ribosomes b/c tRNA's 3D structure
50
what are the 3 steps of translation?
1. initiation: small subunit bind to 5' cap and moves mRNA along until start codon 2. elongation: large subunit catalyze 2 amino acids linking by breaking bond b/w tRNA & amino acid at P site & joining amino acid at P & A site (peptidyl transferase activity) 3. termination: stop codon binds to protein release factor, which hydrolyze bond b/w peptide chain and tRNA at P site
51
what is a polyribosome/polysome?
assembly of one mRNA, several ribosomes reading it, and polypeptide chain
52
what binds tRNAs to their amino acid?
aminoacetyl-tRNA synthases bind tRNAs to their amino acid using ATP
53
what are the somatic mutations?
somatic mutation occur in somatic cells that can't be passed down
54
what are germ-line mutations?
occur in germ-line (make gametes) & can be passed down
55
what are loss of function mutation?
cause gene not expressed/expressed to produce dysfunction RNA/protein (recessive)
56
what are gain of function mutation?
leads to gene product (protein) with altered function (dominant)
57
When inactive and not bound to cyclin, cyclin dependent kinase (CDK)
cannot help cells move to the next phase of the cell cycle.
58
Suppose the 5'-to-3' coding strand of DNA is GTCTATGCATTA. What is the template DNA strand that would be used for transcription?
3'-CAGATACGTAAT-5'
59
Which molecule(s) is/are not required for transcription? - A DNA template - RNA polymerase - A primer - Appropriate ribonucleoside triphosphates
a primer
60
A tRNA that forms hydrogen bonds with all of the three bases of the codon will most likely be _______ by the ribosome, and this process will involve _______ subunit(s) of the ribosome.
accepted; the small
61
The start signal for transcription is the _______ and is _______.
promoter; a sequence in the DNA
62
Which of the following is not involved in the process of transcription? - DNA - RNA - Amino Acids - RNA polymerase
amino acid
63
What three processes in posttranscriptional modification must be completed before transcripts can be translated in eukaryotes?
Splicing, capping, addition of a poly A tail
64
The signal used to stop transcription is the _______ and the signal to stop translation is the _________.
terminator sequence; stop codon
65
A mutation to a gene that results in a protein being expressed that is capable of working in a different way than before is categorized as:
gain of function
66
The function of the spindle to ______ and it is made up of _________ .
separate sister chromatids; microtubules
67
A protein made up of 3 different polypeptides
must be coded by 3 genes
68
Which of the following explains why DNA is double stranded AND why RNA can form 3-D structures?
Nitrogenous bases can hydrogen bond with each other.
69
Which statement about the genetic code is true?
The genetic code evolved in the common ancestor of all known life.
70
The ultimate origin of genetic variation is
mutation
71
Which of the following is part of mitosis?
dividing the nucleus
72
After transcription, you will always have
an RNA
73
Why are people often more concerned about germ line mutations than somatic ones?
Germ line mutations are transmitted to offspring, whereas somatic mutations are not.
74
The _______ strand of DNA is transcribed to produce an RNA strand by DNA bases pairing with _______ bases of RNA.
template; complementary
75
Embryos are often used to learn about how mitosis occurs in the development of plants and animals. If you observe an embryo undergoing cell division and it forms a contractile ring, what can you infer?
these are animal cells
76
After translation, the polypeptide chains of some proteins are cut by a process called
proteolysis
77
A mutation of the underlined G of following sequence 3' -TACTGGGTAACA-5' to a T would be a:
silent mutation
78
Promoters are made of
nucleic acid
79
what is a somatic mutation?
occur in somatic cells that can't be passed down
80
what is germ-line mutation?
occur in germ-line (make gametes) & can be passed down
81
what is loss of function?
cause gene not expressed/expressed to produce dysfunctional DNA/protein (recessive)
82
what is gain of function?
lead to gene product (protein) w/ altered function (damaged)
83
what is a positive and negative regulator?
positive: make cell cycle go (growth factor) - Oncogene negative: make cell cycle stop (RB) - Tumor Suppressor
84
what is the central dogma?
way information flows in cells: from DNA to DNA, DNA to RNA, & RNA to protein

Bisc 160 (8 decks)

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