Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Animal Nutrition > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

AA and nitrogen metabolism in non-ruminants

A

Stomach- protein goes to peptides
SI- degrades to AA
Liver- AA goes to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AA and nitrogen metabolism in ruminants

A

Rumen- AA +energy= microbial protein, AA to ammonia goes to liver to be nitrogen
Liver- AA to Nitrogen to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do we need continuous replacements of proteins?

A

Metabolic turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How are proteins absorbed and metabolized?

A

Free amino acids (some small peptides too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Major metabolic fates of absorbed AA

A

Protein synthesis, catabolism (deamination, oxidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AA catabolism

A

Liver- AA to keto acids, AA to NH3 + CO2= urea
Kidney urea to urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does AA catabolism take place?

A

All tissues but mainly liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ketogenic and glucogenic AA can be metabolized to yield ___

A

Energy-rich ketones or glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is AA catabolism increased?

A

1) Gluconeogenesis from AA is increased (starving animal)
2) Dietary protein intake exceeds requirements
3) Composition of absorbed AA is unbalanced (1+ AA is limiting regardless of total protein intake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do optimal rates of tissue protein synthesis require?

A

1) Adequate total quantity of AA
2) Mixture of AA that matches the compositions of the proteins being synthesized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is biological value?

A

Ability of a specific dietary protein to supply AA in the relative amounts required for protein synthesis to body tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is biological value influenced by?

A

Essential AA composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Biological value is not fixed but varies with what?

A

Varies with the varying needs of different species, and physiological and nutritional states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What AA is the most limiting?

A

Methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Limiting AA theory

A

Once the most limiting AA is met, the next limiting becomes halts the process, before that is met, and this continues until all AA are at their requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does glucose get from the gut lumen to the bloodstream?

A

Active transport from gut lumen to epithelial cell, facilitated diffusion from epithelial cell to interstitial fluid, passive diffusion from interstitial fluid to capillary cell to bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the ultimate source of energy for most animals?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the major source of energy in the diet?

A

Carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Carbs are a higher proportion relative to other sources in ___ diet compared to ___ diet

A

Herbivore, carnivore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most important vehicle for post-absorptive carb metabolism?

A

Blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The __ provides an important source of glucose

A

Diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sources of glucose other than diet

A

Glycogenolysis in the liver, Gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In what form is glucose stored?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is glycogen stored in animals?

A

Straight chain of alpha 1,4 linked glucoses, further chains branching off by alpha 1,6 bond (same as start in plants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

Muscle (~2%), liver (8%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How much weight is stored as carbs?

A

Less than 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

Mainly in liver, also in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the rate of gluconeogenesis in nonruminants?

A

Rate varies inversely with rate of glucose absorption, precursors are of endogenous origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do glucose absorption, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis change as time after feeding increases?

A

Absorption- peaks at hour 6 and gradually decreases
Glycogenolysis- peaks at hour 12 and decreases, leveling out
Gluconeogenesis- Dips at hour 6 and gradually increases before leveling at hour 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens when dry matter intake does not meet the energy requirement?

A

Plasma NEFA increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two metabolic fates of glucose?

A

Catabolism and anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Glucose fates in catabolism

A

Glycolysis–> lactate
Oxidation–> CO2+H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Glucose fates in anabolism

A

Glycogen synthesis
Lipid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens in a glucose deficiency?

A

Glycogenolysis to release glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can occur in periods of glucose deficiency?

A

Ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is fatty liver?

A

Accumulation of triacylglycerol (fat) in liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do lipolysis and ketogenesis occur?

A

Adipose tissue–> NEFA in blood –> NEFA in liver–> TAG, CO2, Ketones. Ketones in liver–> ketones in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three ketone bodies?

A

3-hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate, acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the three major controls of feed intake control?

A

1) Physical capacity of digestive tract and its rate of emptying (Ballast theory)
2) Availability of feed
3) When neither of the above apply, metabolic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Ballast Theory?

A

The physical capacity of the digestive tract is physically limited by volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are factors that influence the capacity of the digestive tract?

A

Volume of abdominal organs (fat, pregnant uterus), voume of GI tract (long period of under-nutrition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is distention of the GI tract relieved?

A

1) Extent of digestion (greater extent, the more the tract empties)
2) Rate of digestion of digestible material (faster the rate the quicker the tract empties)
3) Rate of passage of indigestible DM (faster the rate, sooner the tract empties)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the trend of litter size compared to daily DM intake?

A

As litter size increases, daily DM intake decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Feed intake is higher at a given digestibility/ME for animals with ___

A

High feed requirement, showing compensatory growth, poor body condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Feed intake is lower at a given digestibility/ME for animals with ___

A

Low feed requirement, no growth, good body condition, diseases or parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ballast theory holds best for ___

A

Ruminants, low quality feeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Eventually ___ declines as ___ increases

A

DMI, disgestibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Rumen of animals on ___ quality feed is ___ full

A

high, never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What increases as pasture availability decreases?

A

Bite-size, biting rate, grazing time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What factors affect grazing time?

A

Bite size, biting rate, genetic potential, physiological state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How long do animals graze per day?

A

Max 10-11 hours min 4-5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What factors affect grazing intake?

A

Height, density, mass, digestibility/leaf strength, composition, stocking rate, availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does CNS contribute to metabolic control?

A

1) Senses nutrient intake and body reserves
2) Integrates information
3) Regulates intake (dominant signal wins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Orexigenic

A

Stimulates feed intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anorexigenic

A

Suppress/inhibit feed intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do signaling pathways do in metabolic control?

A

Stimulate and inhibit feed intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tissues that communicate to CNS

A

Gastric stomach, SI, LI, Pancreas, Liver, Adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where is cholecystokinin (CCK) produced?

A

Duodenal and jejunal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is CCK release stimulated by?

A

Release stimulated by transfer of digesta from stomach to duodenum (AA, HCl, fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does CCK do?

A

1) Causes gallbladder to empty and pancreatic enzymes to be secreted
2) Inhibits gastric emptying
3) Increases intestinal motility
4) Anorexigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is ghrelin produced and released?

A

Primarily by gastric oxyntic cells (abomasal) and minimal released by duodenum, ileum, cecum, and colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ghrelin characteristics

A

Orexigenic, not distension-mediated (is endocrine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where is insulin secreted?

A

Secreted form beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the role of insulin?

A

Anorexigenic, regulate blood glucose levels by increasing tissue (e.g. liver) glucose uptake and glycogen storage, promotes AA uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where is glucagon secreted?

A

Glucagon secreted by alpha cells of the pancreas islets?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the role of glucagon?

A

anorexigenic, increase blood glucose by increasing glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where is leptin secreted?

A

Secreted from the white adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the role of leptin?

A

Suppress feed intake (anorexigenic), product of the ob gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When would leptin levels decrease?

A

When white adipose reserves are being depleted and appetite increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens when the ob gene (that codes for leptin) is knocked out?

A

More adipose tissue because the fat is no longer signaling in an endocrine way to stop ending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which satiety signal is secreted from adipose tissue?

A

Leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are net nutrient requirements?

A

Net requirements of nutrients for conceptus growth, nutrient deposition in tissues of gravid uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the gravid uterus?

A

Encompassing all female reproductive organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does metabolic and nutritional impact of pregnancy on the dam depend on?

A

Ratio of fetal weight and maternal weight, gestation length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The ___ the fetus is relative to dam size, the ___ more energy it takes to grow offspring

A

Bigger, more (guinea pig vs human)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the gestation length of a sow?

A

3 months 3 weeks 3 days

77
Q

Does a longer pregnancy need more energy?

A

No definitive answer but also depends on development when leaves the womb

78
Q

When do energy requirements change during pregnancy?

A

Third trimester. First two are fetal development and third is fetal growth

79
Q

Serious under and over-feeding can cause what during early pregnancy?

A

Increased embryo mortality

80
Q

What is the recommendation to feed during pregnancy?

A

Feed at or a little above maintenance for about a month after breeding since well-conditioned animals can afford to lose weight through mid-pregnancy if they are well fed during late pregnancy

81
Q

Why should overfeeding be avoided in pregnant animals?

A

Early and mid pregnant animals synthesize and deposit fat very easily, overeating will store as fat

82
Q

What does the pregnant body do to prepare for later pregnancy?

A

Gets very good at storing things and nutrient absorption because fill limitation in GI tract decreases. It cannot fit in the space so high nutrient small meals

83
Q

How do fat synthesis and mobilization change during pregnancy?

A

synthesis- increases and peaks at like 10 days, decreases gradually then rapidly
Mobilization- decreases and plateaus until day 50, gradually increases

84
Q

Why do requirements accelerate after mid pregnancy?

A

Everything is in its place and just needs to get bigger, higher density in nutrients and higher digestibility due to fill limitation

85
Q

T/F Placental and uterine weight increase during the last trimester

A

True

86
Q

Most of extra energy required by the dam to support pregnancy is converted to ___

A

Heat (why women are always hot)

87
Q

What are the sources of the heat increment of pregnancy?

A

Fetal metabolism, uterine and placental metabolism, Increased metabolism in maternal tissues

88
Q

What are some specific nutrient requirements in late pregnancy?

A

Fetal metabolism and growth, placental transport, metabolic impact on the dam, Ca and P requirement increase from maintenance

89
Q

What is different in requirements for egg layers?

A

Calcium has a drastic increase due to calcium carbonate shell and maybe choline for maximum egg yield

90
Q

What is the Ca:P ratio for egg layers?

A

7:1 or something like that

91
Q

How does DMI trend before and after calving?

A

DMI decreases leading up to calving, then increases rapidly after calving

92
Q

How does NEFA trend before and after calving?

A

Increases and spikes before calving, then decrease after calving

93
Q

Dramatic increase in nutrient requirements during early lactation is met by what?

A

1) Diet which is often not adequate enough to meet requirements
2) Rapid mobilization of endogenous reserves (fat, Ca, protein)

94
Q

When are cows in negative energy balance?

A

Shortly after calving when there are high NEFAs and losing weight

95
Q

When does normal diet alone become sufficient to meet requirements of dam?

A

As lactation progresses

96
Q

What is the nutrient requirement for lactation?

A

Higher total energy, protein, mineral, vitamin (almost everything higher)

97
Q

How is lactose synthesized?

A

2 glucose goes to 1 glucose and 1 galactose which combines to be 1 lactose (disaccharide)

98
Q

Milk fat is ___% triacyglycerol

A

> 98%

99
Q

Milk protein composition

A

80% Caseins 20% Whey (B-lactoglobulin, a-lactalbumin, other)

100
Q

Nutrient requirements associated with ___ are much higher than ___, and even ___

A

Lactation, maintenance, pregnancy

101
Q

Animal growth is the progressive net ___ of nutrients and their metabolites

A

accretion

102
Q

What is perinatal?

A

Around the time of birth (-3 mo to +1 mo)

103
Q

What is neonatal?

A

First month of birth

104
Q

Where do the nutrients for growth come from?

A

Pre-weaning period: milk
Weaning period: Milk and feed
Post-weaning period: feed

105
Q

What does colostrum contain?

A

Immunoglobulins to provide passive immunity to newborn ruminants, vitamins and minerals to aid in development and microbial metabolism (rumen and colon)

106
Q

When does a calf move to a non-milk diet?

A

When the dam milk volume declines, food volume/amount of nutrient required increases, microbe population establishes

107
Q

What can we use to determine an animal’s specific needs?

A

US guidelines set by the National Research Council (NRC) outline requirements for species, maintenance, and other physiological states

108
Q

What does the NRC guidelines include?

A

Tables of nutrient requirements, information regarding specific considerations like susceptibilities and toxicities, and typical diet ingredients

109
Q

No animal has a nutrient requirement for ___

A

Carbs

110
Q

____ must be included in the diet of ruminant in order to maintain rumen health

A

Beta-linked carbs

111
Q

What are forages?

A

Leaves and stems of grasses, legumes, and brassicas including fresh, hay, silage, and crop residue

112
Q

What are characteristics of forages?

A

Typically high in fiber (>18% DM) so high in beta-linked carbs

113
Q

What is the rule of thumb for forages?

A

If forage is >32% NDF or >22% ADF then it is relatively low in energy (lots of hemicelluloses cellulose, and lignin)

114
Q

How is a rumen separated?

A

Gases on top (CO2, methane)
Fiber mat (light fibrous material, grass before it gets waterlogged)
Liquid on bottom (more dense material with microbes)

115
Q

What the pH and required feed for acidosis?

A

Above 5.5 is ideal- long grass/forage
Below 5.5 is acidosis- more dense feed

116
Q

___ fiber, ___ the rumen PH

A

More, higher (fiber slows down digestion opposite of humans)

117
Q

What are characteristics of concentrates?

A

Includes most grains and high-quality byproducts, concentrated in a nutrient (normally energy or protein), low in NDF and ADF,

118
Q

What is the rule of thumb for concentrates?

A

<32% NDF or <22% ADF and high in energy

119
Q

High grain diet almost always causes ___ and can cause ___

A

Metabolic acidosis, laminitis

120
Q

General features of lactation ketosis

A

5-10% of cows <2 weeks after calving
May be secondary to decreased DMI caused by infectious disease or other metabolic disturbance

121
Q

What are symptoms of lactation ketosis?

A

Hypoglycemia, hyperketonemia, metabolic acidosis
Decreased DMI, milk yield, body condition
Increased excitability or apathy
Recumbency, death if not treated

122
Q

Prevention of lactation ketosis

A

Maintain 3 BCS during late pregnancy
Feed adequate energy during late pregnancy
Maximize DMI during late preg and after calving
Alternative strategy of prepartum caloric restriction

123
Q

Treatment of lactation ketosis

A

Orally dose with propylene glycol
Inject glucose IV
Inject dexamethasone IM

124
Q

General Features of Milk Fever

A

8-9% soon after calving mostly in Jerseys, old ladies
Associated with other production diseases
Severe hypocalcemia

125
Q

What is milk fever?

A

Onset of lactation causes massive drain on extracellular Ca pool that cant be totally met by changes in absorption
Ca goes to milk so not Ca left in body (Ca input cannot handle or sustain Ca export)

126
Q

Symptoms of milk fever

A

Muscular spasms, recumbency, paralysis, unconsciousness, death if not treated

127
Q

Why don’t heifers need SQ Ca?

A

They’re still growing so their bones can make enough calcium to counteract the loss

128
Q

Prevention of milk fever

A

So that cows get used to mobilizing Ca from bone- feed cows <100g Ca per day with Ca:P <2.5:1 2 weeks before calving, increase mineral acidity of close-up ration (reduce Ca, Na, K, increase Cl, S)

129
Q

Treatment of milk fever

A

SQ or IV Ca

130
Q

Carb Requirements for dairy cows

A

Non-fiber carbs need to be <44% DM or risk of acidosis
NDF- 29% of total diet DM (25-33)
ADF- 19% total diet DM (17-21)

131
Q

Total crude protein requirement for dairy cows

A

16-18% DM for early lactation
16% DM for mid lactation
14% DM for late lactation
12% DM for dry cows

132
Q

Fat requirements for dairy cows

A

<6% of DM (above that will show negative effects)

133
Q

What increases as beef cattle age increases?

A

Mad cow and other diseases
Meat gets tougher as animal gets older

134
Q

What is the life of a beef cow?

A

Gets pregnant every year and nurses calf (good moms)

135
Q

What is the life of a beef boy?

A

Nurses and then weans
Goes to backgrounding to gain weight
Goes to finishing on high grain diet
Becomes burgers

136
Q

Grass finishing

A

Stay on grass, 6-10 months, longer for animals to get to market cause high in fiber low in energy, better welfare, not much differs nutritionally from grain

137
Q

Grain finishing

A

High energy high carb concentrate grain diet, 4-6 months, energy content higher so they gain weight faster

138
Q

Bloat

A

Gas buildup in the rumen due to froth from high soluble protein diet like fresh alfalfa
Treated by gas relief puncture in rumen
More common in grazing animals

139
Q

Acidosis

A

Due to highly fermentable diet
More common on finishing diets for long periods of time
Can develop gut lesions, bacteria, rumen wall and liver abscesses

140
Q

What is grass tetany?

A

Low magnesium

141
Q

What is white muscle disease?

A

Low selenium

142
Q

What is water belly?

A

Kidney/bladder stones due to excess phosphorus

143
Q

What is hardware disease?

A

When a cow swallows metal so most milking cows have a magnet in the bottom of their rumen

144
Q

In beef cows, ketosis occurs more frequently as ___

A

Pregnancy toxemia

145
Q

What is pregnancy toxemia?

A

High fetal demand (likely due to twins) so GI tract is small because there’s no room during late pregnancy

146
Q

What is the maintenance energy for a beef animal?

A

4 (200kg) to 7.5 (450kg) (in Mcal/day)

147
Q

What is the growth energy for a beef animal?

A

1 (low BW and ADG) to 13 (High BW and ADG) (in Mcal/day)

148
Q

What is the Crude protein requirement for a beef animal?

A

6 (High BW and low ADG) to 22 (low BW and high ADG) % of DM

149
Q

What is the maintenance energy for sheep?

A

1.48 (small mature) to 10.11 (large early lactation)

150
Q

What is the crude protein requirement for a sheep?

A

6% (non-lactating) to 16% (growing or early lactation) of DM

151
Q

What are the essential fatty acid requirements for a sheep?

A

0.043 g/kgBW^0.75 to 0.055 g/kgBW^0.75

152
Q

Symptoms of Acute copper toxicity in sheep

A

Discoloration
Jaundicing of gums, third eyelid, skin
Kidneys, liver are gunmetal (latter can be bronze)
Really dark urine

153
Q

Prevention of copper toxicity

A

Avoid copper-rich feed (essential so only in low levels)
Use grain byproducts and concentrate mixtures carefully
Increase Molybdenum or Sulfur in diet
Test Cu, Mb, S in feeds
Watch out for other physical copper sources

154
Q

What is the maximum tolerable level of copper in a sheep’s diet?

A

15mg/kg

155
Q

What AA should be paid attention to in wool sheep?

A

Very high composition of cysteine and arginine

156
Q

General features of pregnancy toxemia in sheep

A

Higher incidence than beef cows, occurs late pregnancy when carrying twins or triplets, more common in very thin or obese dams, may be triggered my stress

157
Q

Symptoms of pregnancy toxemia in sheep

A

Hypoglycemia, hyperketonemia, metabolic acidosis (all in last 2-4 weeks of pregnancy), progressive depression of consciousness, decreased awareness, neuromuscular disturbances, recumbency, death

158
Q

Treatment of pregnancy toxemia in sheep

A

IV glucose

159
Q

What diseases are goats susceptible to?

A

All the same diseases covered for other ruminants

160
Q

Copper requirement for goats

A

Lactating- 15 mg/kg
Mature- 20 mg/kg
Growing- 25 mg/kg
no max

161
Q

Max tolerable level of copper requirements for cattle

A

40 mg/kg

162
Q

Llamas and alpacas have higher susceptibility to what?

A

Vitamin D associated rickets
Fatty liver (hepatic lipidosis)
Maybe zinc deficiency

163
Q

What are the four feed considerations for fish?

A

Type of feed
Size of pellet vs size of fish
Sinking vs floating feed
Even distribution of feed

164
Q

What fish feed floats?

A

High carb

165
Q

What are the three types of fish feed?

A

Live feed, moist feed, dry feed

166
Q

Pros and Cons of Live fish feed

A

Pro- attractive
Con- Expensive, handling, storage, nutritionally balanced?

167
Q

Pros and Cons of moist fish feed

A

Pro- palatable, economical
Con- Pollution (dispersion in water)

168
Q

Pros and Cons of dry fish feed

A

Pro- supply, storage, handling
Con- Less attractive

169
Q

Animal considerations for fish

A

Poikilothermic (body temp)
Plastic growth

170
Q

Crude protein requirement for fish

A

28-38%
Same 10 essential AA (PHILL, MT, VAT)
Commercial feeds: 22-68% DM

171
Q

Fat requirement for fish

A

0.5-2%
EE of commercial feeds: 22-68% DM

172
Q

Daily energy requirement for fish

A

3000-3600 DE/kg diet (as fed)

173
Q

Carb requirement for fish

A

N/A included in diet to increase energy density and other carb-derived metabolites
Commercial feeds: 8-50% DM

174
Q

Vitamin requirements for fish

A

Vit c, and basically everything else
Inclusion of supplements to increase pigmentation

175
Q

T/F gut fill may limit intake in layer chickens

A

True

176
Q

What is the size of an egg dependent on?

A

BW of bird
Want eggs to be max 61g

177
Q

Egg shell is (by weight):

A

94% Calcium carbonate
1% magnesium carbonate
1% calcium phosphate
4% organic matter

178
Q

What are nutritional issues for layer hens?

A

Rickets in growing birds
Cage layer fatigue (Ca def or mineral imbalance?
Fatty liver syndrome
Vitamin deficiencies

179
Q

Eggshell is (by weight):

A

94% Calcium carbonate
1% magnesium carbonate
1% calcium phosphate
4% organic matter

180
Q

During laying how does the Ca:P ratio change?

A

2:1 -8-12:1

181
Q

How much can broiler chicken gain a day?

A

60 g/day

182
Q

Male broiler chickens respond to higher ___ and has a higher ___ requirement

A

Crude protein, P

183
Q

Nutritional issues with broiler chickens

A

Ascites (water belly)(Right ventricle failure due to rapid muscle growth and slower lung capacity gain)
Monitoring Ca, P, D for bone development
Monitoring Lys for muscle deposition

184
Q

Chicken feed is typically high in what and is what base?

A

High corn and a soybean based diet

185
Q

What should you watch for in chicken feed?

A

Mycotoxins especially in corn

186
Q

What is canola meal?

A

glycosinolates and erucic acid can give fish taint to brown eggs

187
Q

Who should not be fed cottonseed meal and why?

A

Laying hens because gossypol content creates discoloration of yolk

188
Q

Additives to chicken feed

A

Anticoccidial (mostly Na/K)
Growth promotant
Antibiotics/fungals/oxidants
Pellet binders (sticky lignin, clay)

Animal Nutrition (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions