Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Why do we use an incentive spirometer?

A

prevent pneumonia by encouraging patients to breathe deeply

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2
Q

What causes a barrel chest?

A

air trapped in the alveoli

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3
Q

What does the epiglottis prevent?

A

food and liquid from entering the lungs

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4
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

alveoli

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5
Q

What people groups is influenza most serious for?

A

children, elderly, and immune compromised

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6
Q

Lobar, viral, and broncho are all types of what?

A

pneumonia

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7
Q

What should be included in a teaching about tuberculosis?

A

respiratory isolation, night sweats, and hemoptysis (coughing up blood)

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8
Q

What is asthma?

A

chronic, intermittent, reversible condition of the lungs

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9
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

collapse of the alveoli

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10
Q

What are the components of COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)?

A

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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11
Q

What are the nursing interventions to prevent atelectasis?

A

incentive spirometer, cough/deep breathe, and increased mobility

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12
Q

What are the triggers for asthma exacerbations?

A

allergens

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13
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis? How does tissue appear?

A

caseous necrosis
cottage cheese like

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14
Q

What are the interventions for a pneumothorax?

A

chest tube

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15
Q

What condition is commonly found by a mother tasting her baby’s salty skin?

A

cystic fibrosis

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16
Q

What can you teach a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

-secretions will be thick
-its autosomal recessive
-increased respiratory infection risk
-intensive chest physiotherapy

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17
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

kidney

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18
Q

What are the manifestations of acute pyelonephritis?

A

flank pain, CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness, fever, chills, cloudy urine

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19
Q

Hypovolemia, hypotension, and fluid loss are associated with what condition?

A

pre-renal kidney injury

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20
Q

What are the manifestations of benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

urinary hesitancy

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21
Q

What are osteoclasts responsible for?

A

bone reabsorption

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22
Q

What can result in kyphosis?

A

age, osteoporosis, and disk degeneration

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23
Q

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for fibromyalgia?

A

fatigue, pain

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24
Q

What are the signs of compartment syndrome?

A

pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis

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25
Q

How is nephritic syndrome characterizes?

A

gross hematuria and inflammatory injury of the kidney

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26
Q

What can lead to kidney stones?

A

excess calcium and pH changes

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27
Q

What type of kidney injury is the client who hemorrhaged due to trauma at risk for?

A

pre-renal

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28
Q

What are the best indicator of kidney function?

A

GFR and creatinine

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29
Q

What is the main symptom of nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteinuria

30
Q

What is the priority intervention for a client with renal calculi?

A

strain all urine

31
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

urine backup and dilation of renal structures

32
Q

What are the manifestations of UTI?

A

dysuria, suprapubic pain, frequency

33
Q

What is the pathologic feature of osteoarthritis?

A

loss of articular cartilage

34
Q

What is the most common malignant bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

35
Q

What describes a joint that is fused and stiff?

A

ankylosis

36
Q

How is gout characterized?

A

uric acid crystals in the tissues (usually big toe)

37
Q

What type of fracture is caused by bone that is already weakened by disease?

A

pathologic

38
Q

What type of kidney injury is caused by an enlarged prostate?

A

post-renal

39
Q

painful urination

A

dysuria

40
Q

What type of acute kidney injury is caused by low b.p./volume, cardiac dysfunction, or hemorrhaging?

A

prerenal kidney in jury

41
Q

What type of acute kidney injury is caused by acute tubular necrosis (impaired blood supply), hemolytic uremic syndrome, glomerulonephritis, or prolonged drug exposure?

A

intrarenal kidney injury

42
Q

What type of acute kidney in jury is caused by ureter/bladder obstruction or dysfunction (stones, tumors, BPH)?

A

postrenal kidney injury

43
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

gradual loss of renal function

44
Q

What is the leading cause of chronic kidney disease?

A

diabetes mellitus

45
Q

During what stage of chronic kidney disease would a patient begin dialysis?

A

stage IV (5), or when GFR drops less than 15

46
Q

What is known as the separation of two bones at a joint?

A

dislocation

47
Q

Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes are common manifestations of what condition?

A

osteoarthritis

48
Q

What is ankylosis?

A

stiffening of a joint due to bone fusion

49
Q

What type of arthritis are osteophytes associated with?

A

osteoarthritis

50
Q

What type of fracture is characterized by a single break with bone ends maintaining their alignment and position?

A

simple fracture

51
Q

What type of fracture occurs with a twisting motion of the bone; common in abuse cases?

A

spiral fractures

52
Q

What kind of fracture is characterized by an angled break?

A

oblique

53
Q

What type of fracture is characterized by multiple fracture lines and bone pieces?

A

comminuted

54
Q

What kind of fracture is an incomplete break where bone is bent and only outer curvature of bone is broken, and is common in children due to minimal calcification?

A

greenstick fracture

55
Q

What kind of fracture is common is osteoporosis and is characterized by bone crushing or collapsing into small pieces?

A

compression fractures

56
Q

increased outward curvature of the thoracic spine?

A

kyphosis

57
Q

What fracture complication is characterized by increased pressure in a compartment? What are the 6Ps?

A

compartment syndrome
-pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis, and poikilothermia

58
Q

Sprain

A

stretching or tearing of a ligament

59
Q

strain

A

stretching or tearing of muscle or tendon

60
Q

What type of of bone tumor begins in the bone cells?

A

osteosarcoma

61
Q

what type of bone tumor has an unknown origin, and may begin in nerve tissue within the bone?

A

Ewing sarcoma

62
Q

What are examples of ventilation conditions/alterations?

A

asthma, cystic fibrosis, COPD, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, lung cancer, pleural effusion, pneumothorax

63
Q

What do the sinuses do in the respiratory system?

A

warm, moisten, and filter incoming air

64
Q

What does alcohol do to respiratory cilia?

A

causes them to be hypoactive

65
Q

What condition is associated with the term blue bloaters?

A

chronic bronchitis
-weight gain and cyanosis

66
Q

What condition is associated with the term pink puffers?

A

emphysema
-pinkish and pursed-lip breathing

67
Q

What is the treatment for pleural effusion?

A

chest drainage tube (remove fluid from pleural cavity)

68
Q

What is a common cause of mediastinal shift?

A

pleural effusion

69
Q

What is PRICE? What condition do we use this for?

A

protect, rest, ice, compression, elevation
sprain (ligament)

70
Q

Where are fractures common in individuals with osteoporosis?

A

wrist, hip, and spine

71
Q

What manifestation is most significant with Paget disease?

A

hypercalcemia

72
Q

What type of arthritis is pannus(extra growth) formation common in?

A

rheumatoid arthritis