Exam 2: Flashcards

1
Q

middle layer of skin, made of dense, irregular connective tissue and little fat tissue

A

dermis

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2
Q

a brown, flat or raised nevus

A

mole

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3
Q

vascular birthmark that appears as a bright red patch or nodule of extra blood vessels in the skin

A

hemangioma

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4
Q

small, red, elevated area of the skin

A

papule

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5
Q

gland that produces sebum

A

sebaceous gland

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6
Q

highly contagious skin infection, starting as vesicles that rupture and form a honey-colored crust

A

impetigo

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7
Q

raised erythematous skin lesions that are a result of Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction; also called hives

A

urticaria

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8
Q

rare, serious infection that can aggressively destroy skin, fat, and muscle

A

necrotizing fasciitis

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9
Q

gland that secretes sweat through skin pores in response to the sympathetic nervous system

A

eccrine gland

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10
Q

term for blister

A

vesicle

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11
Q

large, pigmented spot that may appear in a sun-exposed area; also called age spot or liver spot

A

lentigo

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12
Q

chronic inflammatory skin condition that typically affects the face

A

rosacea

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13
Q

skin injury that can result from a thermal or nonthermal source

A

burn

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14
Q

viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus; also called shingles

A

herpes zoster

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15
Q

condition resulting from mite infestation, involving burrowing. Fecal matter left by the mites triggers the inflammatory response.

A

scabies

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16
Q

infection deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue; usually results from a break in the skin

A

cellulitis

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17
Q

innermost layer of the skin

A

hypodermis

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18
Q

innermost layer of the skin

A

hypodermis

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19
Q

a common chronic inflammatory condition triggered by an allergen

A

atopic dermatitis

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20
Q

parasite that causes superficial fungal infections

A

tinea

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21
Q

gland that opens into hair follicles in the axilla, scalp, face, and external genitalia

A

apocrine gland

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22
Q

recessive condition that results in little or no melanin production

A

albinism

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23
Q

pigment that provides color to the skin as well as protection from UV rays

A

melanin

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24
Q

protein that strengthens skin

A

keratin

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25
Q

Why is important to monitor moles?

A

for changes that could indicate the presence of cancer

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26
Q

What may cause decreased sensations of pain, cold heat, pressure, and touch in the skin?

A

aging

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27
Q

This is an inflammatory response due to direct contact to an allergen or irritant?

A

contact dermatitis

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28
Q

What is the least common type of skin cancer, that is also the most serious?

A

melanoma

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29
Q

An individual who suffered injuries from a house fire arrives at the hospital. As the nurse, what strategy will you utilize to assess the percentage of their body that is burned?

A

Rule of Nines

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30
Q

What are the 4 primary causes of pressure injuries?

A

friction, shear, unrelieved pressure, and moisture

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31
Q

Which stage of pressure injury is characterized by intact, nonblanchable skin with the presence of erythema?

A

stage I

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32
Q

What is the chronic, progressive inflammatory condition that usually affects the face? prevalent in fair-skinned, those who bruise easily, and women

A

rosacea

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33
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer?

A

UV exposure, natural or artificial

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34
Q

what is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

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35
Q

What are the ABCD of suspicious skin findings?

A

asymmetry, border irregularity, color variations, diameter larger than 6mm ( pencil eraser)

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36
Q

This is a form of contact dermatitis that is characterized by a delayed immune response (24-48hrs); type 4 hypersensitivity. ex. poison ivy

A

allergic contact dermatitis

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37
Q

What occurs when pH is less than 7.35?

A

Acidosis (blood is too acidic)

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38
Q

What occurs when pH is greater than 7.45?

A

alkalosis ( too basic)

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39
Q

what results from a deficiency of bicarbonate or an excess of hydrogen?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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40
Q

what is the respiratory compensatory mechanism for acid-base balance?

A

change rate and depth of breaths

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41
Q

What condition is most likely to occur within the respiratory system in an individual who is hyperventilating due to an acute anxiety attack?

A

Respiratory alkalosis (too much CO2 is released)

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42
Q

What is likely to occur in terms of acidity to an individual who has severely depressed breathing rates? (fentanyl, other suppressive drugs, etc)

A

respiratory acidosis (not enough CO2 released)

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43
Q

What occurs to the blood acidity when respiratory rate increases?

A

the acidity decreases

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44
Q

What occurs to the blood acidity when respiratory rates decrease?

A

increased acidity

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45
Q

What acid-base regulation mechanism has the longest effect?

A

renal/metabolic regulation

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46
Q

What acid-base compensatory mechanism is most slowly activated?

A

metabolic/renal regulation

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47
Q

What condition is the result of a deficiency of bicarbonate or excess of hydrogen?

A

metabolic acidosis

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48
Q

Which integumentary condition is characterized by previous infection with chickenpox (varicella), unilateral manifestations, and may cause post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

Herpes zoster/shingles

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49
Q

What is a good way to treat herpes zoster/shingles?

A

prevent it via varicella and herpes zoster vaccines

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50
Q

Common type of fungal infection involving the feet, especially the toes (aka athletes foot)

A

Tenia Pedis

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51
Q

What is the name of the distinct assortment of symptoms that appears in individuals with cardiac tamponade? (low b.p., muffled heart sounds, JVD)?

A

Beck’s Triad

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52
Q

What are the three manifestations that make up Becks Triad, the system of manifestations that appear with cardiac tamponade?

A

low b.p.
muffled heart sounds
jugular vein distensions

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53
Q

As the nurse, what procedure can you expect to prepare the patient for who is experiencing cardiac tamponade?

A

pericardiocentesis (needle used to remove fluid that is compressing the heart)

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54
Q

What describes the force that blood exerts on the walls of the blood vessels?

A

blood pressure

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55
Q

What condition is characterized by a falling cardiac output, where the blood backs up to pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, and activity intolerance?

A

left-sided failure

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56
Q

What are the treatment options for contact dermatitis?

A

-identify and remove cause
-wet compresses
-anti-inflammatory creams(corticosteroid agents)
-systemic anti-inflammatory agents

57
Q

hWhat stage of pressure injury is characterized by non-blanchable erythema of localized area of skin, that is usually found over a bony prominence. -skin is intact, but red (dark skin may appear blue or purple)

A

Stage I

58
Q

What stage of pressure injury is characterized by partial thickness loss of the epidermis, erosion or blister, but no exposed subcutaneous tissue? -shallow open ulcer with pink-red wound bed

A

stage II

59
Q

What stage of pressure injury does this BEST describe: full thickness skin loss with damage to subcutaneous tissue, where subcutaneous fat may be visible? -no visible tendon, muscle, or bone

A

stage III

60
Q

What stage of pressure injury is characterized by full thickness loss of skin? -possible muscle, bone, and tendon exposure, and possible tunneling

A

Stage IV

61
Q

What type of injury is expected when there is visible area of purple/maroon skin, and skin is nonblanchable, and upon palpation feels jello-like/mooshy?

A

deep tissue injury

62
Q

What type of injury is expected when there is visible area of purple/maroon skin, and skin is nonblanchable, and upon palpation feels jello-like/mooshy?

A

unstageable

63
Q

What are the major risks for pressure injuries?

A

friction, shear, unrelieved pressure, moisture, advancing age, impaired circulation/tissue perfusion, immobilization, malnutrition, decreased sensation or incontinence

64
Q

What type of burn is characterized by redness, edema, pain, and impact to epidermis? (superficial)

A

first degree burn

65
Q

What type of burn is characterized by partial thickness damage, affecting the epidermis AND dermis, with presence of pain, erythema, and blistering?

A

second degree burn

66
Q

How may a nurse attempt to avoid burn shock with a patient who has severe burns? (burn shock is caused by loss of fluid)

A

-place patient in Trendelenburg (feet above head), and cover them with a coat/blanket
-administer fluids to prevent dehydration
-reverse isolation room

67
Q

Rule of 9’s: head and neck

A

9%

68
Q

Rule of 9’s: arms (each)

A

9%

69
Q

Rule of 9’s: trunk (anterior and posterior individually)

A

18% each

70
Q

Rule of 9’s: legs (each)

A

18% each

71
Q

Rule of 9’s: genitalia & perineum

A

1%

72
Q

What should the nurse educate any patient about with pruritus?

A

cease scratching to prevent secondary bacterial infection

73
Q

What are the manifestations of cellulitis?

A

swollen, warm, tender area of erythema. Leukocytosis, malaise, etc.
Can lead to necrotizing fasciitis and sepsis

74
Q

What condition is caused by the reawakening of of varicella-zoster virus on a nerve commonly caused by stress?

A

herpes zoster (shingles)

75
Q

What are the manifestations of herpes zoster/shingles?

A

extremely sensitive skin, pain, paresthesia (tingling), red/silvery vesicular rash, itching

-may also result in post-herpetic neuralgia (pain after disease is gone), blindness

76
Q

What are manifestations related to hypernatremia?

A

excess thirst, dry/sticky mucous membranes, seizures, lethargy, coma, b.p. changes, tachycardia, weak and thready pulse, edema, decreased urine output

77
Q

What are manifestations of hyponatremia?

A

diminished deep tendon reflexes, confusion, coma, seizures, muscle weakness, g.i. upset, headache, pulse changes, dry mucous membranes

78
Q

What is the major concern with fluctuation of potassium outside of the expected range?

A

EKG changes

79
Q

How would hypernatremia likely be treated?

A

fluid replacement (oral or hypotonic solutions) and diuretics

80
Q

How would hyponatremia likely be treated?

A

limit fluids and increase dietary sodium

81
Q

What may happen to the heart if potassium is too low?

A

cardiac arrest

82
Q

What system is likely to be affected by hypercalcemia?

A

neuromuscular system (confusion, headache, decreased deep tendon reflex

83
Q

You are observing a clients b.p. and observe a carpal spasm(Trousseau’s Sign) , which electrolyte imbalance might you expect?

A

hypocalcemia

84
Q

What is Chvostek’s Sign, and which electrolyte imbalance is it associated with?

A

twitch of facial muscles when tapping on cheek related to hypocalcemia

85
Q

What compensatory mechanism is activated in the kidney’s when renal blood flow is decreased, as with hypotensive states?

A

RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)

86
Q

What is referred to as generalized edema?

A

anasarca

87
Q

What is referred to as swelling in the abdomen due to excess fluid?

A

ascites

88
Q

How may the body compensate for hypovolemia?

A

increased thirst and heart rate, decreased urine output

89
Q

What system of maintaining acid-base balance is immediate, and is comprised of chemicals that combine with an acid or base to alter pH?

A

buffer system

90
Q

What is the most significant buffer system?

A

bicarbonate-carbonic acid system

91
Q

What type of compensatory mechanism is trademarked by Kussmaul respirations? Why do they occur?

A

metabolic acidosis
-deep, rapid respirations in attempt to eliminate excess acid by exhaling CO2

92
Q

what is referred to as the strength of contraction of the heart?

A

inotropic effect

93
Q

What is the term for the amount of blood the heart pumps in one minute?

A

cardiac output

94
Q

What type of heart failure is characterized by blood backing up into pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, and activity intolerance?

A

left-sided heart failure

95
Q

Which heart failure causes blood to back up into the peripheral circulation, causing edema & weight gain?

A

right-sided heart failure

96
Q

As the nurse, you assessed the client and find low b.p., muffled heart sounds, and JVD, which cardiovascular condition might you suspect? What is this unique trio of manifestations called?

A

cardiac tamponade

97
Q

What is the life-threatening cardiac compression from fluid accumulation called?

A

cardiac tamponade

98
Q

What is referred to as the death of the myocardium from a sudden blockage of coronary artery blood flow?

A

Myocardial infarction

99
Q

What may you expect with troponin levels in an individual who has had a myocardial infarction within the last 2 weeks?

A

elevation/increased

100
Q

What type of shock is characterized by the left ventricle’s inability to maintain adequate cardiac output?

A

cardiogenic shock

101
Q

What is the cause of cardiogenic shock?

A

myocardial damage (heart attack), arrythmias, etc

102
Q

What are the manifestations of endocarditis?

A

flu-like symptoms, Osler Nodes (tender, raised subcutaneous lesions on finger nails and toes), Janeway Lesions (small, non-tender lesions on palms or soles of feet), Roth Spots (eye lesions)

103
Q

What type of valvular disease leads to hypertrophy, and may be accompanied by atresia (failure to open valve)?

A

stenosis

104
Q

What type of valvular disease causes dilation due to insufficient closure/ bidirectional blood flow?

A

regurgitation

105
Q

What is hypertension?

A

prolonged elevation in b.p. that creates excessive cardiac workload

106
Q

What is dyslipidemia/ hyperlipidemia?

A

high levels of lipids in the blood

107
Q

What condition is a chronic inflammatory disease triggered by a vessel wall injury and characterized by thickening/hardening lesions calcifying on the arterial wall?

A

atherosclerosis

108
Q

What is peripheral vascular disease?

A

narrowing of/atherosclerosis of the arteries in the legs/ arterial insufficiency

109
Q

What are the manifestations of PVD?

A

intermittent claudication (pain w/ walking), shiny, hairless legs, and cool skin

110
Q

What is PUD (peptic ulcer disease)?

A

erosive lesions affecting the muscularis mucosa of the stomach or duodenum?

111
Q

What is cholelithiasis? What type of diet causes this condition?

A

gallstones
high fat diet

112
Q

What is GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)?

A

the inappropriate movement of stomach contents into the esophagus, causing irritation to esophageal mucosa

113
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease is trade-marked by a cobblestone appearance or skip lesions to the g.i. lining?

A

Chrohn’s Disease

114
Q

Which IBD is caused by stress?

A

IBS (irritable bowel syndrome)

115
Q

Which IBD is characterized by erosions seen by colonoscopy?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

116
Q

What condition is identified by out-pouching of the submucosal layer of the intestines that pushes through the muscular layer?

A

diverticular disease

117
Q

What happens to the abdomen during peritonitis? other manifestations?

A

rigidity
-decreased peristalsis, sepsis, intestinal obstruction

118
Q

Dark, tarry stool associated with a significant amount of bleeding in the g.i. tract?

A

melena

119
Q

Blood in the vomitus (coffee ground appearance)?

A

hematemesis

120
Q

What are concerns for diarrhea/vomiting?

A

dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

121
Q

What are the manifestations of liver cirrhosis?

A

ascites, jaundice, portal hypertension, intense itching, clay-colored stools, dark urine, clotting changes

122
Q

What is the condition by which a section of the stomach protrudes upward through an opening in the diaphragm? What are the risks?

A

hiatal hernia
advancing age, smoking, obesity

123
Q

What type of shock may present with a rapid and thready pulse?

A

hypovolemic shock

124
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a client who has hyperkalemia?

A

get an EKG

125
Q

What is referred to as thin, weak walls of the left ventricle? What does this condition cause?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy
decreased cardiac output

126
Q

What type of IV fluid expands fluid volume?

A

isotonic

127
Q

What is the sign for Crohn’s Disease?

A

skip lesions

128
Q

What manifestations are associated with a small bowel obstruction?

A

colicky pain (sudden and severe)

129
Q

What type of solution moves fluid into a cell?

A

hypotonic

130
Q

What type of solution moves fluid out of a cell?

A

hypertonic

131
Q

What type of solution is responsible for putting more fluid in the intravascular space? When would you use this solution?

A

isotonic
hypovolemia

132
Q

In terms of Na+, what would cause diminished deep tendon reflexes and g.i. disturbances?

A

hyponatremia

133
Q

Which electrolyte disturbances are Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs related to?

A

hypocalcemia

134
Q

What refers to the group of conditions characterized by enlargement, thickening, or replacement of myocardium with scar tissue?

A

cardiomyopathy

135
Q

What annual test may be used in individuals with hyperlipidemia to assess risks?

A

ASCVD (atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease) risk calculator

136
Q

what hormone increases blood volume by increasing the reabsorption of Na+ in the kidneys?

A

aldosterone

137
Q

What is the normal blood pH?

A

7.35-7.45

138
Q

What is normal range of PaCO2?

A

45-35 mmHg

139
Q

What is the normal range of HCO3?

A

22-26 mEQ/L