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A&P2 Lecture > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what does a single drop of blood consist of?

A

red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets (thrombocytes)

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2
Q

hemocytoblasts

A

stem cell
how the formed elements of blood start out
occurs in the bone marrow

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3
Q

describe erythrocytes

A

stem cell/aka RBC’s
no nuclei or organelles/lives approximately 120 days
contributes to blood viscosity - increased # of RBC’s makes blood thicker
filled with hemoglobin (Hb) for transportation of respiratory gases
produce erythropoiesis — produces erythropoietin hormone (EPO)
location: (1) kidneys (2) liver

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4
Q

describe leukocytes

A

stem cell/aka WBC’s (NLMEB)
complete cells with nucleus and organelles
produces leukopoiesis — produces cytokines chemical
location: macrophages and T-lymphocytes

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5
Q

describe thrombocytes

A

stem cell/aka platelets (form a temporary plug to seal vessels)
megakarayocyte - cytoplasmic cell fragments
produces thrombopoeisis – produces thrombopoietin hormone
location: (1) liver (2) kidneys

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6
Q

hematocrit:hemoglobin

A

3:1

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7
Q

describe oxyhemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin, and carbaminohemoglobin

A

oxy: ruby red; oxygen bound to iron
(external respiration) oxygen loading takes place in the lungs
deoxy: dark red; low oxygen
(internal respiration) oxygen unloading in the tissues
carba: maroon red; carbon dioxide bound to protein NOT iron
(internal respiration) carbon dioxide unloading in the tissues

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8
Q

hypoxia

A 
aka anemia
too few RBC's or Hb
decreased oxygen availability
increased tissue demand for oxygen
erythropoietinn (EPO) released by kidneys as a response
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9
Q

polycythemia

A

too many RBC’s

creates increase viscosity of the blood

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10
Q

describe the rate of erythropoeisis and EPO

A

dependent on the ability of RBC’s to transport oxygen, NOT on the # of RBC’s in circulation!!!!!!!!

  • renal failure: can result in low EPO and RBC counts (low hematocrit)
  • athletic training: increased demand for oxygen/increased blood viscosity
  • testosterone: increases release of EPO/high hematocirt
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11
Q

what is required in your diet for erythropoiesis?

A

nutrients: amino acids, carbohydrates, lipids
iron
vitamin B12
vitamin B9

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12
Q

spleen

A

graveyard for RBC’s

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13
Q

name the 5 types of WBC’s/leukocytes

A 
1 neutrophil (never)
2 lymphocytes (let)
3 monocytes (monkeys)
4 eosinophils (eat)
5 basophil (bananas)
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14
Q

which WBC’s are granular and which are agrnular?

A

granulocytes: basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil
agranulocytes: lymphocyte, monocyte

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15
Q

describe neutrophils

A

most numerous WBC
multi-lobed nuclei
BACTERIA SLAYERS - initiate respiratory bursts to kill (O2 – bleach)
produce antibiotic-like proteins called defensins

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16
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

large, single, dark purple nuclei

T-cells: aTTack virus-infected & tumor cells (Thymus?)
B-cells: produce antiBodies (Bone marrow?)

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17
Q

describe monocytes

A

U-shaped or dark purple nuclei
largest WBC
leave circulation, enter tissue, turn into MACROPHAGES

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18
Q

describe eosinophils

A

red, bi-lobed nuclei
digest parasitic worms
lessen the severity of allergies by inactivating certain inflammatory chemicals released during allergic reactions

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19
Q

describe basophils

A

lowest amount of RBCs
bilobed nucleus U or S shaped
histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant)

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20
Q

leukopenia

A

abnormally low WBC count

drug induced, poisons, radiation

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21
Q

leukemia

A

cancerous conditions from abnormally increased production of WBCs
bone marrow becomes consumed with cancerous WBC’s

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22
Q

hemostasis

A

stoppage of bleeding

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23
Q

name and describe the 3 steps of blood clotting

A

1 vascular spasm: constricts the flow of blood
2 platelet plug: forms to temporarily seal small openings in the vessel
3 coagulation: enables the repair of the vessel wall once the leakage of blood has stopped

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24
Q

describe clotting factors 1-12

A

most are produced in the liver

4 require vitamin K: prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin (net forms clot)

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25
Q

thrombus

A

clot that develops and persists in “unbroken” vessel

can block circulation causing tissue death

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26
Q

embolus

A

a freely floating clot in the blood stream (can block vessels in the body)

  • pulmonary emboli can impair lungs
  • cerebral emboli can cause strokes
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27
Q

how to prevent the preceding thrombolytic conditions

A

aspirin
heparin (anticoagulant) - inhibits thrombin needed to form fibrin net
warfarin (coumadin) - interferes with action of vitamin K

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28
Q

Blood type: A
Antibodies:
Antigens:

A

anti-B

A antigen

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29
Q

Blood type: B
Antibodies:
Antigens:

A

anti-A

B antigen

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30
Q

Blood type: AB
Antibodies:
Antigens:

A

no antibodies

A and B antigens

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31
Q

Blood Type: O
Antibodies:
Antigens:

A

anti-A & anti-B

no antigens

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32
Q

universal donor

A

O-

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33
Q

universal recipient

A

AB+

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34
Q

normal blood ph

A

7.35-7.45

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35
Q

hemolytic disease/erythroblastisfetalis

A

the Rh- negative mother’s Rh+ antibodies cross the placenta to destroy the RBC’s of the Rh+ baby

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36
Q

pericardium

A

double-walled sac surrounding the heart

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37
Q

fibrous pericardium

A

superficial

protects, anchors, and prevents overfilling of the heart with blood

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38
Q

name the layers of the heart wall/pericardium

A

epicardium
myocardium
endocardium

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39
Q

describe the epicardium

A

aka visceral pericardium

visceral layer of the serous pericardium

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40
Q

describe the myocardium

A

spiral bundles of cardiac muscles held together be elastic and collagen fibers that form a dense network called the fibrous skeleton of the heart

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41
Q

describe the endocardium

A

innermost layer

endothelial layer of the inner myocardial surface that is continuous with blood vessel linings

creates a smooth service for easy blood flow

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42
Q

what are the 4 chambers of the heart?

A

R & L upper atria

R& L lower ventricles

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43
Q

describe the 2 atria

A

separated internally by interatrial septum
walls are ridged by pectinate muscles

to R atrium: superior and inferior vena cava, coronary sinus
to L atrium: R & L pulmonary veins

44
Q

describe the 2 ventricles

A

separated by interventricular septum
walls are ridged by trabeculae carnae and papillary muscles

Leaving R ventricle: pulmonary trunk
Leaving L ventricle: aorta

45
Q

describe the pulmonary circuit and its flow

A

blood that is low in oxygen/high in carbon dioxide goes through a gas exchange that returns blood high in oxygen/low in carbon dioxide to be returned to the left atrium

flow: (1) right atrium (2) tricuspid valve (3) right ventricle (4) pulmonary semilunar valve (5) pulmonary arteries (6) lungs (7) pulmonary veins (8) left atrium
* short, low pressure

46
Q

describe the systemic circuit and its flow

A

blood that is high in oxygen/low in CO2 goes through a gas exchange in the capillaries that then puts blood with low oxygen/high CO2 to be put into the right atrium for the cycle to repeat

flow: (1) left atrium (2) bicuspid (mitral) valve (3) left ventricle (4) aortic semilunar valve (5) aorta (6) to the body (7) vena cavas (8) right atrium
* long, higher pressure (higher resistance)

47
Q

foramen ovale

A

hole that connects the 2 atria

closes after birth and becomes the fossa ovalis

48
Q

ductus arteriosis

A

hole that connects the pulmonary trunk and aorta

closes after birth and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

49
Q

name the 4 heart valves

A

tricuspid valve/ RIGHT atroventricular valve

pulmonary semilunar valve

mitral/bicuspid valve/ LEFT atroventricular valve

aortic semilunar valve

50
Q

the first heart sound (lub) is the closing of what?

A

tricuspid valve/ RIGHT atroventricular valve

mitral/bicuspid valve/ LEFT atroventricular valve

51
Q

the second heart sound (dub) is the closing of what?

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

aortic semilunar valve

52
Q

describe where the stethoscope needs to be placed to ausculate (listen) for all 4 heart valves

A

aortic semilunar valve: R 2nd intercostal
pulmonary semilunar valve: L 2nd intercostal

tricuspid valve: L 5th intercostal
mitral valve: L lower 5th intercostal

53
Q

coronary circulation

A

R and L coronary arteries work to supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium

54
Q

anastomosis

A

aka angiogenesis

blood vessels merge together

55
Q

ischemia

A

inadequate blood supply

56
Q

angina pectoris

A

pain due to lack of blood supply to the myocardium

caused by stress-induced spasms of coronary arteries, increased physical demands on the heart, or arteriosclerosis

cells are weakened

57
Q

myocardial infarction (MI)

A

heart attack

cause by prolonged coronary blockage/prolonged lack of oxygen to the heart muscles = cardiac muscle cell death

58
Q

similarities between cardiac and skeletal muscle

A

striated

59
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A

striated, branched, interconnected

intercalated discs: anchoring junctions between cardiac cells

desmosomes
gap junctions

60
Q

describe cardiac muscle contraction

A

nodal tissue: intrinsic, automaticity

conduction system:

SA node (pacemaker) - 60-100 bpm
 **cause atria to contract
AV node - 40-60bpm
 **cause ventricles to contract
Bundle of HIS
R & L bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
61
Q

name and describe the centers involved in the extrinsic innervation of the heart

A

*they are located in the medulla oblongata

cardioaccelatory center: supplies SA & AV node, heart muscle, and coronary arteries via the sympathetic nervous system releasing norepinephrin

cardioinhibitory center: inhibits SA & AV node through parasympathetic fibers in vagus nerves releasing acetycholine

62
Q

vagal tone

A

if vagus nerves are cut = increase in HR by approximately 25 bpm

63
Q

heart murmur

A

abnormal heart sounds

64
Q

describe systole and diastole

A

systole: ventricular contraction of heart muscle
diastole: lowest level of arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation of heart muscle

65
Q

name the 3 phases of the cardiac cycle

A

(1) ventricular filling - mid to late diastole
(2) ventricular systole - isovolumetric contraction (all 4 valves closed)
(3) isovolumetric relaxation - early diastole (all 4 valves closed)

66
Q

describe ventricular filling

A

takes place mid to late diastole

atrial contraction (0.1 seconds) *during P wave
AV valves open

end diastolic volume (EDV): volume of blood in each ventricle at the end (120 ml)

67
Q

describe ventricular systole (isovolumetric contraction)

A

atria relax, ventricles contract (0.3 seconds) *QRS wave

raising ventricular pressure results in closing of AV valves

end systolic volume (ESV): volume of blood remaining in each ventricle goes from 120 ml to 50 ml

68
Q

describe isovolumetric relaxation

A

occurs in early diastole

ventricles relax; all valves closed

quiescent period (0.4 seconds) *T wave 
 -a relaxed state through half of the cardiac cycle
69
Q

how to calculate stroke volume

A

SV = EDV - ESV
stroke volume = end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

SV = 120 - 50
SV = 70 ml
70
Q

how to calculate cardiac output

A

*volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 minute

CO = HR x SV
cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume

CO = 75 x 70
CO = 5,250 ml/min or 5.25 L/min
71
Q

cardiac reserve

A

difference between resting and maximal cardiac output

72
Q

describe hyper/hypo -calcemia & -kalemia

A

hypercalcemia - higher than normal levels of Ca
hypocalcemia - lower than normal levels of Ca

hyperkalemia - higher than normal levels of K
hypokalemia - lower than normal levels of K

73
Q

describe tachycardia and bradycardia

A

tachycardia - rapid heart rate; 100 bpm or greater

bradycardia - slow heart rate; 60 bpm or less

74
Q

commotio cordis

A

an often lethal disruption of heart rhythm

occurs as a result of a blow to the chest during the T wave causing cardiac arrest

fatality rate 65% with prompt action and 80% without action

75
Q

congestive heart failure (chf)

A

left side - pulmonary congestion: blood backing up into the lungs/can lead to suffocation

right side - peripheral congestion: blood backs up at the tissue level (can lead to tissue hypoxia (not enough oxygen))

76
Q

pulmonary trunk BP

A

24/8

77
Q

aorta BP

A

119/79

78
Q

what are blood vessels?

A

a closed system that begins and ends with the heart

79
Q

name the 3 types of major vessels

A

arteries/arterioles
veins/venules
capillaries

80
Q

describe arteries

A

ALWAYS carry blood AWAY from the heart

blood is oxygenated *except for pulmonary circulation or umbilical

81
Q

describe arterioles

A

smallest arteries; lead to capillary beds
control blood flow into capillary beds via sympathetic nervous system vasoconstriction - increased release of norepinephrin and vasodilation - decreased release of norepinephrin

82
Q

describe veins

A

ALWAYS carry blood TOWARDS the heart
blood is deoxygenated *except in pulmonary circulation or umbilical

formed when venules converge
*BP lower than arteries (10mmHg or less)
3 tunics; externa is thickest

large-diameter lumen offer little resistance to blood flow
valves prevent backflow of blood
*respiratory pump
*muscular pump

83
Q

describe venules

A

very porous; allows fluids and WBCs into tissues

smallest originate as postcapillary venules with a single endothelial layer
larger venules have 1 or 2 layers of smooth muscle

84
Q

describe capillaries

A

contact tissue cells and directly serve cellular needs

smallest blood vessels (microscopic)

walls consist of thin (one cell thick) tunica intima

diameter only allows 1 RBC to pass at a time

function: exchange of gases, nutrients, and metabolic wastes between tissue and blood

85
Q

name the 3 types of capillaries

A

continuous capillaries
fenestrated capillaries
sinusoidal capillaries

86
Q

describe continuous capillaries

A

abundant in the skin and muscles
endothelial cells with tight junctions provide a continuous lining
intercellular clefts (gaps) allows passage of fluids
**everywhere but in the brain

87
Q

describe fenestrated capillaries

A

oval shaped pores (fenestrations) that permit greater absorption and filtration
*more permeable
found in small intestines and kidneys

88
Q

describe sinusoidal capillaries

A

fewer tight junctions, large intracellular clefts, large lumens
usually fenestrated/allows passage of large molecules and blood
found in:
liver (lined with phagocytes)
*bone marrow
spleen

89
Q

describe blood flow through the capillaries and the aorta

A

capillaries: slowest here; allows adequate time for exchange between blood and tissues
aorta: fastest here; blood is being pushed to exit the left ventricle into the body

90
Q

name and describe the tunica/coverings of the blood vessels

A

(1) tunica intima (deepest) - endothelium lines the lumen
(2) tunica media (middle) -
smooth muscle & sheets of elastin
sympathetic nerve fibers control vasoconstriction and vasodilation of vessels
(3) tunica externa/adventitia (superficial) - collagen fibers protect & reinforce

91
Q

what is blood pressure?

A

amount of pressure exerted on the wall of a blood vessel by blood
expressed in millimeters of mercury (mmHg)
typically describes the arterial BP in large arteries near the heart
blood moves from pressures of high to low

92
Q

describe regular, high, and low blood pressure

A

regular: 119/79

high/prehypertension: 130/79

hypertension stage 1: 140/89

hypertension stage 2: 140/92

hypertensive crisis: 180/120

low/hypotension: 80/60

93
Q

describe a pulse

A

the number of cardiac cycles per minute

palpitating the systolic pressure surges

94
Q

pulse pressure

A

difference between systole and diastole

95
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

A

pressure that propels blood through tissues
must be 60mmHg or greater

MAP = diastolic + (pulse pressure/3)

*example: 90/60

MAP = 60 + ((90-60)/3)
MAP = 60 + (30/3)
MAP = 60 + 10
MAP = 70
96
Q

what is resistance

A

aka peripheral resistance (PR)

opposition to flow (amount of friction blood encounters)
encountered in the peripheral systemic circulation

97
Q

name and describe the 3 sources of resistance

A

blood viscosity: thickening of blood; remains constant

total blood vessel length: longer length = longer resistance encountered; remains constant

blood vessel diameter: changes with dilation/constriction

98
Q

how to calculate blood pressure

A

BP = CO x PR

blood pressure = cardiac output x peripheral resistance

99
Q

describe the relationship among blood pressure, cardiac output, and peripheral resistance

A

increase in CO or PR means increase in BP

decrease in CO or PR means decrease in BP

100
Q

what are the main factors that influence blood pressure?

A

cardiac output
peripheral resistance
blood volume

101
Q

capillary blood pressure

A

blood pressure entering the capillaries
ranges from 15-35 mmHg
low is desirable (high would rupture capillaries)

102
Q

describe adrenal medulla hormones

A

released in times of stress

*Ne and Epi increase vasoconstriction & heart rate&raquo_space; high bp

103
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

released when bp falls very low
causes intense vasoconstriction&raquo_space; increases bp
also stimulates kidneys to conserve water

104
Q

angiotensin ll

A

released in low renal perfusion (kidney delivering of fluid)&raquo_space; decreased bp

kidneys stimulated to release renin which generates angiotensin ll
short term - vasoconstriction&raquo_space; increases bp
long term - stimulates aldosterone & ADH release&raquo_space; increases blood volume&raquo_space; increases bp

105
Q

circulatory shock

A

any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally

106
Q

name and describe the 3 types of circulatory shock

A

(1) hypovolemic shock - (low blood volume) results from large scale blood loss
(2) vascular shock - poor circulation resulting from extreme vasodilation
(3) cardiogenic shock - (pump failure) the heart cannot sustain adequate circulation

A&P2 Lecture (4 decks)

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