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infection and immunity > exam 2 worksheets > Flashcards

exam 2 worksheets Flashcards

1
Q

What happens in the Lag Phase?

A

Bacteria increase in size but theres no cell division

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2
Q

What happens in the Exponential Phase?

A

Cells divide by binary fusion, doubling in number

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3
Q

What happens in the Stationary Phase?

A

Growth reaches a platue
Number of diving cells = dying cells

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4
Q

What happens in the Death Phase?

A

Number of living cells decrease exponentially

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5
Q

What bacteria releases endotoxins?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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6
Q

What bacteria releases exotoxins?

A

Both Gram-negative and Gram-postive bacteria

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7
Q

What is the Transformation mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

A

Introductions, uptake and expression of foreign genetic material

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8
Q

What is the Conjugation mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

A

Transfer of DNA via a plasmid from a donor cell to a recipient cell

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9
Q

What is the Transduction mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

A

Bacterial DNA is moved from one bacterium to another by virus

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10
Q

What bacteria has these characteristics?
* Retains crystal violets
* Thick peptidoglycan layer
* SOME form spores
* can induce fever/inflammation

A

Gram-positve bacteria

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11
Q

What bacteria has these characteristics?
* Doesnt retain crystal violets
* No peptidoglycan
* Has an outer membrane: lipopolysaccharide
* impenetrable cell wall
* releases endotoxins

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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12
Q

Since gram-negative bacteria has an impenetrable cell wall how does this relate to its resistance?

A
  • Resistant to antibiotics
  • Develops resistance quicket
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13
Q

What bacteria has pilli and fimbriae

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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14
Q

What do the gram-negative and gram positive bacteria have in common?

A
  • release exotoxins
  • contain flagella
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15
Q

What happens in the Lytic Cycle?

A
  • New virions produced
  • bacterial cell undergoes lysis
  • releasing more bacteriophages that Infect other cells
  • latent period: Time between infection of host cell and cell lysis
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16
Q

What happens in the Lysogenic Cycle?

A
  • Viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA and remains dormant until triggered to enter the lytic cycle
  • Dormant Period: Host cell lives and does not show sign of infection
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17
Q

What is the Positive Strand RNA?

A

Serves as mRNA and can be immediately transferred to proteins

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18
Q

What is the Positive Strand RNA sequence?

A

RNA/mRNA → Protiens

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19
Q

What is the Negative Strand RNA?

A

Requires viral RNA to be transcribed into mRNA before it can be translated into proteins

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20
Q

What is the Negative Strand RNA sequence?

A

RNA → mRNA → Proteins

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21
Q

Facultative Anaerobe

A

Growth throughout but heavy in the top

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22
Q

Obligate Aerobe

A

Only surface growth

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23
Q

Obligate Anaerobe

A

Growth only at bottom

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24
Q

Aerotolerant Anaerobe

A

Low growth throughout

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25
Q

Microaerophile

A

Below surface growth

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26
Q

How is bacteria metabolized by glucose?

A
  • Glucose is converted
  • Occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
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27
Q

How is bacteria metabolized by fermentation?

A
  • Under anaerobic conditions
  • Involved conversion of pyruvate (ethanol, latic acid)
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28
Q

What does the lipopolysaccharide of the gram neg bacteria release?

A

Endotoxins

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29
Q

What happens when a low dose of endotoxins is released?

A

Activates immune system and can trigger fever

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30
Q

What happens when a high dose of endotoxins is released?

A

Can cause extreme fevers, septic shock, and skin lesions

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31
Q

Why are virsus hard to treat?

A

They live inside our cells, hard treat without causing damage to host cells.

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32
Q

Why are fungal cells hard to treat?

A

They are very similar to human cells

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33
Q

Why are bacteria cells east to treat?

A

We have many mechanisms to recognize pathogens so it’s easy to treat.

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34
Q

What are the steps for a virus to undergo replication? (A Purple Apple Might Redden)

A

Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Replication
Assembly
Maturation
Replication

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35
Q

What is the Attachment step for a virus to undergo replication?

A

1st step: Virus binds to host cell through specific receptor molecules on the host cell’s plasma membrane

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36
Q

What is the Penetration step for a virus to undergo replication?

A

2nd step: Energy from host cells causes viruses to cross the host cell’s plasma membrane through endocytosis or phagocytosis

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37
Q

What is the Uncoating step for a virus to undergo replication?

A

3rd step: breakdown/remove of capsit to release genome to be used for replication and transcription

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38
Q

What is the Replication step for a virus to undergo replication and its purpose?

A

4th step: Proteins incorporated into virions made by expressing viral genes, viral genome is copied

The purpose is to make needed components (viral proteins and genomes) to assemble new virions

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39
Q

What is the Assembly step for a virus to undergo replication and can it occur simultaneously with other steps?

A

5th step: newly synthesized viral components collected and assembled into immature virus particles
- Can occur alongside maturation and release

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40
Q

What is the Matruation step for a virus to undergo replication?

A

6th step: changed to immature virion/capsid, resulting in infection virused readly to infect other cells

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41
Q

What is the Release step for a virus to undergo replication?

A

6th step: virion released into extracellular environment to continue cycle of infection of infection new cells

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42
Q

What shape is cocci bacteria?

A

Spherical
- clusters = staphylococcus
- chains = streptococcus

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43
Q

Does pleomorphic bacteria have a shape?

A

No

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44
Q

What is the shape of bacilli bacteria?

A

Rod

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45
Q

What is the shape of Vibrio bacteria?

A

Curved or comma
- spirillum = thick, rigid, spiral
- spirochete = thin, flexible, spiral

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46
Q

Bacterial Cell Structure

A

Capsule
Cell Wall
Cytoplasmic Membrane
Pili
Flagella
Nucleoid
Cytoplasm
Ribosomes

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47
Q

Fimbriae/pili

A
  • Responsible for: attachment and transfer of DNA
  • Motility
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48
Q

Capsule

A
  • Can inhibit phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages → virulence factor for some bacteria
  • Covers the outer layer of the cell wall
  • Composed of polysaccharides
  • Mediates attachment of bacterium to host tissues
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49
Q

Flagella

A
  • Motility
  • Also sense certain temperature and chemicals/metals
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50
Q

What type of bacteria are Normal Flora considered?

A

Commnsal

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51
Q

What are the Gram-Positive Bacteria in Streptococcus viridans group (green)? (SAMA)

A
  • Mutans group
  • Salivarius group
  • Mitis group
  • Anginosus group
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52
Q

What are the Gram-Positive Bacteria in Bacilli and Filaments?

A
  • Lactobacilli
  • Eubacteria
  • Propionibacterium acnes and Propionibacterium propionicus
  • Actinomyces species
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53
Q

What are the Gram-Positive Bacteria in the S.Salivarius group?

A

S. salivarius
S. vestibularis

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54
Q

What are the Gram-Positive Bacteria in the S.Mitis group?

A

S. sanguinis
S. gordonii
S. mitis
S. oralis

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55
Q

What are the Gram-Positive Bacteria in the S. Anginosus group?

A

S. anginosus
S. intermedius
S. constellatus

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56
Q

What are the Gram-Negative Bacteria that are bacilli shaped?

A
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
  • Fusobacterium species
  • Porphyromonas
  • Prevotella
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57
Q

What are the Gram-Negative Bacteria that are cocci shaped?

A

Veillonella species

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58
Q

What are the Gram-Negative Bacteria that are pleomorphic shaped?

A

Tannerella forsythia

59
Q

What are the Gram-Negative Bacteria that are spiral shaped?

A
  • Campylobacter rectus
  • Treponema
60
Q

Supragingival bacteria (SAMA)

A
  • Predominantly Streptococcus
    • Mutans
    • Salivarius
    • Mitis
    • Anginosus
61
Q

What bacteria(gram/aerobe) are Supragingival bacteria?

A

Gram-Positive facultative anaerobe

62
Q

Subgingival bacteria

A
  • Actinomyces
  • Prevotella
  • Porphyromonas
  • Fusobacterium
  • Veillonella
63
Q

What bacteria (gram/aerobe) are Subgingival bacteria?

A

Gram-Negative Anaerobe
EXPECT ACTINOMYCES BEING GRAM POSITIVE

64
Q

What are the importances of Streptococcus Mutans?

A
  • Causes caries
  • Produces acids
  • Forms biofilm
  • Colonized tooth/denture surfaces
65
Q

What are the importances of Lactobacilli?

A
  • Caries formation
  • PH range growth in acidogneic
66
Q

What is the importances of Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans?

A

Associated with aggressive periodontitis

67
Q

What is the importances of Porphyromonas gingivalis?

A

Found in advanced periodontal lesions

68
Q

What are the importances of Treponema denticola?

A
  • Progression of perio disease
  • Strict anaerobe
69
Q

What are the importances of Tannerella Forsythia?

A
  • Connective tissue destruction/Alveolar bone respostion in perio disease
  • Gram negative anaerobe
70
Q

What are the bacterias associated with periodontal disease?

A
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
  • Porphyromonas gingivalis
  • Prevotella intermedia
  • Campylobacter rectus
  • Treponema Denticola
  • Tannerella Forsythia
  • Fusobacterium nucleatum
  • Eubacteria
71
Q

What are early colonizers?

A
  • Initials bacteria that colonize the pellicle surface though specific molecules
72
Q

What bacteria are early colonizers?

A
  • Gram-positive facultative anaerobic
    - Actinomyces spp
- Oral Streptococci (80% of the initial biofilm)
73
Q

What are Secondary colonizers and when do they attach?

A
  • Continues plaque attracts other bacteria to adhere to the bacterial matrix
  • Attach 1-2 days after plaque accumulation
  • Subsequently attracts late colonizers
74
Q

What are the secondary colonizers bacteria? (pretty fun cats)

A
  • Gram-negative
  • Prevotella intermedia
  • Capnocytophaga spp
  • Fusobacterium nucleatum
75
Q

What are Late colonizers and when do they attach?

A
  • Adheres to gram-positive
  • Attached after 1 week of plaque accumulation
76
Q

What are Late colonizers bacteria?

A
  • Gram-negative
  • P.Gingivalis
77
Q

What are the dental biolm stages of formation?

A
  1. Pellicle Formation
  2. Bacterial Attachment
  3. Colonization
  4. Growth
  5. Maturation
78
Q

What happens in the pellicle formation step of biofilm formation?

A

1st step: acid glycoproteins deposits rapidly covering newly cleaned tooth
- derived from salivary components. aborsed onto tooth surface

79
Q

What is the 2nd step of dental biolm formation?

A

Bacterial attachment

80
Q

What is the 3rd step of dental biolm formation?

A

Colonization and multiplication
- pathogenic potential

81
Q

What is the 4th step of dental biolm formation?

A

growth: increase in mass and thickness

82
Q

What is the last step of dental biolm formation?

A

maturation: intermicrobial matrix connects colonies

83
Q

What is the biofilms matrix composed of?

A

polysaccharides, proteins

84
Q

What are the mature plaque? (pretty fun cats poop)

A

Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria:
- prevotella intermedia
- fusobacterium
- capnocytophaga
- p.gingivalis

85
Q

What does the biofilms matrix composed act as?

A

Protects the biofilms from the host’s immune system and from antimicrobial/antibiotic agents

86
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

Transition of plymocribal community from large gram positive commensal microbes to gram-negative enriched inflammogenic community
(healthy then shifts in plaque composition cuasing disease)

87
Q

What is tooth-associated plaque?

A
  • associated w calc formation, root caries, root resorption
  • mainly gram positive filaments w some gram neg cocci and rods
  • similar to supra plaque
88
Q

What is epithelium-associated plaque?

A
  • Loosely adherent structure
  • One layer in contact with epithelial cells and other loose in sulcus
  • mainly gram-neg cocci
  • lead to perio
89
Q

What is connective-tissue associated plaque?

A
  • bacteria penetrate thru pockets epithelial wall and basal lamina into the connective tissue
  • acute ulcerative gingivitis, advanced perio and aggressive perio
90
Q

What are the four keyfactor to caries

A

host
bacteria
diet
time

91
Q

Describe the host factor to a multifactorial infection

A
  • susceptible tooth surface (difference in mineral content)
  • saliva flow and composition (mechanical washing, neutralizes acids, has calcium and phosphorus for remineralization, active defenses against lysozyme, lactoperoxide, lactoferrin)
92
Q

Describe the bacteria factor to a multifactorial infection

A
  • dental plaque bacteria are prerequisite for development of dental caries
  • 700 hundred species in mouth
93
Q

Describe the diet factor to a multifactorial infection

A
  • mainly fermentable carbohydrates
  • sucrose diffuses into dental plaque bc its soluble
  • streptococci produce insoluble glucan (promotes caries)
94
Q

List key information regarding Lactobacillus

A
  • found on caries lesions on enamel and root
  • presence in saliva link to cavities
  • initiate and maintain growth at low PH (aciduric/acid tolerant)
  • produced lactic acid below ph 5 by fermenting carbs to acids (acidogenic)
  • inhibits growth of mutans streptococci
  • has been used as probiotic
95
Q

List key information regarding S. mutans

A
  • main caries causing bacteria
  • initiates and grows acid production in low ph
  • acidogenic: produces acid
  • aciduric: survived in low ph (4.5-5.0)
  • acidophilic: grows best in acidic conditions
96
Q

What ways can caries be prevented?

A
  • reduction of sugar intake
  • fluoridation
  • pits and fissure sealants
  • control of cariogenic plaque flora
  • replacement of carcinogenic bacteria
97
Q

Ecological plaque hypothesis is?

A

model for why caries develop

98
Q

What kind of disease can be transfer in different phases

A

Communicable diseases

99
Q

What food source are p.gingivalis getting food from?

A

Iron

100
Q

Keystone pathogen hypothesis is?

A

model for why periodontitis occurs

101
Q

What is disenfection?

A
  • process of eliminating disease causing microbial life on inanimate objects
  • does not destroy all microbe life
  • some spores can remain
  • used mostly decontaminate surface and air
  • chemical/physical method
102
Q

What is sterilization?

A
  • Process of destroying all forms of microbial life from a given product or surface in vegetative or spore state
  • completely destroy all forms of microbial life
  • spores destroyed completely
  • for food, medicine, surgical instruments
  • chemical/physics; method
103
Q

Spore test

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus
- failure will cause spores to germinate and grow
yellow = spores notes killed FAIL
purple = spores have been killed PASS

104
Q

What is antisepsis?

A
  • inhibiting/destroying microorganisms on living tissue
  • doesn’t destroy all forms of microbe life
  • some spores can remain
  • chemical method
105
Q

What is important information about chlorhexidine

A
  • antimicrobial oral rinse inhibits plaque and gingivitis formation
  • hand and skin antiseptic
  • broad spectrum
  • kills slower than alcohol
106
Q

Autoclaving

A
  • moist heat under pressure (15 lb at 121-132 C)
  • protein denaturation
  • rate or killing is affected by size, temp/time, steam flow
107
Q

What are spores

A

highly durable can survive for a long time

108
Q

What are endospores

A
  • dormant from of cell
  • does not allows cell to grow or reproduce
  • resistant from heat, radiation, chemical agents
109
Q

High-level disinfectants (good people clean hard)

A
  • usually emulates sterilization
  • glutrahygelyde
  • peractectic acids
  • chlorine compounds
  • hydorgen peroxide
110
Q

Active form of bacteria: not undergoing cell division

A

although they are active, not dividing at the moment

111
Q

Active form of bacteria: metabolically active

A

breaking down nutrients for energy, making protiens

112
Q

Intermediate - level disinfectants (PAI)

A
  • bacteria spores can survive
  • cleans surfaces where spores arnt likley
  • phenolic compounds
  • alcohols
  • iodophor compounds
113
Q

Low-level disinfectants (Quick Clean)

A
  • kolls most vegetative bacteria and lipid-enveloped viruses
  • quaternary ammonium compounds
114
Q

Mechanism of action for disinfectants (PINME)

A
  • protein denaturation
  • inhibits metabolism
  • nucleic acid damage
  • membrane destruction
115
Q

Mechanism of action for antibacterial agents (CPNM)

A
  • inhibits cell wall synthesis
  • inhibits protein synthesis
  • inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
  • inhibits metabolic activity
116
Q

Bacteriostatic Antibiotics

A
  • inhibits bacterial growth
  • immune response is still needed to kill bacteria
117
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics

A

kills cell in growth phase on bacterial growth curve
- penicllin

118
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotics

A
  • highly specific
  • cons; if not accurately identifies, drug wont work
  • pros: low drugs resistance and no disruption to normal microflora
119
Q

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

large group of bacteria gram pos and neg (tetracycline)
cons: increases drugs resistance and distributes normal microflora
pro: non specific

120
Q

Describe the host immune system in periodontitis. Describe the bacteria associated with periodontitis AKA what are they considered?

A

Periodontitis-associated bacteria are considered Inflammophilic

121
Q

Attenuated vaccines

A

Live weakened microbial vaccine
- induces: innate, humaoral, cell mediated immunity
- varicella zoster
- long lasting

122
Q

Inactivated vaccine

A
  • inactive or killed bacteria, toxins proteins
  • rapid, tetanus, dipertha vaccine
  • NEEDS BOOSTER AT TIMES
123
Q

bacteria found in health vs gingivitis and periodontitis

A

Health:
- Gram positive cocci and facultative anaerobic organisms
Disease:
- Strict anaerobic, gram negative organisms, motile organisms

124
Q

Subunit vaccine

A
  • contains molecular compoents of bacteria or virus
  • HBV or HPV
125
Q

What kind of bacteria is associated with periodontal pockets and what environmental conditions are ideal (acidic or basic environment)?

A

P. gingivalis
Anaerobic environment
Basic pH (shift from 7.4 to 7.8)

126
Q

What are the Red Complex bacteria?
(please go to france to dance)

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis
Tannerella forsythia
Treponema denticola

127
Q

What bacteria is found in more than 85% of subgingival plaque samples derived from patients with chronic periodontal disease?

A

P. gingivalis

128
Q

Describe what PPAD does and what bacteria is associated with it.

A

P. Gingivalis releases PPAD
- Peptidylarginine deiminase

129
Q

Describe what the following phrase means: P. gingivalis is asaccharolytic. What does it require for survival?

A

It means it does not rely on digestive sugars for energy production
- Requires iron for survival

130
Q

Describe the virulence factors of P. gingivalis.

A

Lipopolysaccharide:
- Endotoxic activity released by gram negative bacteria
Capsule
Fimbriae:
- associated with attachment
Extracellular proteolytic enzymes

131
Q

Fibroblasts

A
  • involved in collagen turnover since these cells produce new collagen and destroy “old” collagen
  • Increased MMPs which accelerates collagen breakdown, leading to tissue destruction. (breaks down soft tissue)
132
Q

Osteoclasts

A
  • multinucleated cells that degrade and reabsorbs bone; involved in the turnover of bone along with osteoblasts
  • Crushing of the bone
133
Q

Osteoblasts

A

produce organic matrix of bone
- Building of bone

134
Q

What kind of bacteria is predominant in periapical abscesses?

A

Strict anaerobes

135
Q

What does RANKL do?

A

Stimulates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption.

136
Q

What does OPG do?

A

Inhibits osteoclast activity by blocking RANKL.

137
Q

What happens when RANKL is high?

A

Increased osteoclasts → Bone resorption.

138
Q

What happens when RANKL is low?

A

Decreased osteoclasts → Less bone resorption.

139
Q

Why is high OPG beneficial?

A

It reduces osteoclast activity and prevents bone resorption.

140
Q

What happens when OPG binds to RANKL?

A

It inhibits osteoclast activation, preventing bone resorption.

141
Q

How does OPG affect osteoblasts?

A

OPG prevents osteoblasts from signaling osteoclast formation.

142
Q

Why does OPG inhibit bone resorption?

A

It blocks RANKL from activating osteoclasts.

143
Q
A

infection and immunity (11 decks)

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