Exam 2 Questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Interference that is equal to 1 implies:
A) That one crossover event completely interferes with another crossover event
B) That one crossover event makes another crossover event more likely to occur
C) That the number of observed double crossover events are equal to the expected number and that the crossover
events are independent
D) That the number of observed double crossover events are greater than the expected number and that the
crossover events are not independent
E) None of these

A

A) That one crossover event completely interferes with another crossover event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A chromosome with the centromere located at the end of the chromosome is called a __________ chromosome.
A) Metacentric
B) Acrocentric
C) Telocentric
D) Submetacentric
E) Paracentri

A

C) Telocentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When a segment from one chromosome is detached and reattached to a nonhomologous chromosome this is
known as:
A) Trisomy
B) Monosomy
C) Translocation
D) Polyploidy
E) Inversion

A

C) Translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following chromosome rearrangements represents a deletion?

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would be the consequence of a diploid gamete (resulting from meiotic nondisjunction) being fertilized by a
haploid gamete from the same species?
A) Allodiploid
B) Allotriploid
C) Allotetraploid
D) Autotriploid
E) Autotetraploid

A

Autotriploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Humans typically have 23 pairs of chromosomes (2n=46). What phenotype and number of chromosomes would a
person with Klinefelter syndrome have?
A) Phenotypically male with 45 chromosomes
B) Phenotypically female with 45 chromosomes
C) Phenotypically male with 24 chromosomes
D) Phenotypically female with 22 chromosomes
E) Phenotypically male with 47 chromosomes
F) Phenotypically female with 47 chromosomes

A

E) Phenotypically male with 47 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is NOT a likely effect of alterations to chromosome numbers in an organism?
A) Polyploidy in plants can lead to larger fruit
B) Polyploidy has contributed to the development of the wheat we enjoy today
C) Gene dosage is altered leading to alterations in phenotypes and possible problems in the development
D) Problems during meiosis and homologous chromosomes pairing up
E) All of these are examples of possible effects on alterations to chromosome numbers

A

E) All of these are examples of possible effects on alterations to chromosome numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What term best describes 2n-2 for a karyotype?
A) Tetrasomy
B) Polyploid
C) Monosomy
D) Trisomy
E) Nullisomy

A

E) Nullisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Temperate and virulent phages differ in that:
A) Lytic phages kill the host cell and temperate phages never kill the host cell
B) Lytic phages never kill the host cell and temperate phages always kill the host cell
C) Lytic phages kill the host cell and temperate phages can kill the host cell or live in a symbiotic state with the
host cell as a prophage
D) Temperate phages kill the host cell and lytic phages can kill the host cell or live in a symbiotic state with the
host cell as a prophage
E) All of these are true

A

C) Lytic phages kill the host cell and temperate phages can kill the host cell or live in a symbiotic state with the
host cell as a prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transduction is a form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria that involves ________.
A) fertility factors
B) bacteriophages
C) 5-bromouracil
D) F plasmids
E) physical contact between the bacteria involved

A

B) bacteriophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the three types of horizontal gene transfer methods is depicted in the following diagram?
A) Nondisjunction
B) Transduction
C) Transformation
D) Conjugation
E) None of the above

A

D) Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In Griffith’s experiment, a mouse injected with heat-killed type IIIS (normally virulent when living)
Streptococcus pneumoniae and living, but avirulent type IIR Streptococcus pneumoniae dies. Which of the
following bacterial processes has been used to explain what has happened?
A) conjugation
B) transformation
C) transduction
D) sterilization
E) none of these are correct

A

B) transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cotransformation between two genes is more likely if they are:
A) Far apart from one another
B) Both next to the F factor
C) Both oriented in the same direction
D) Not located on the same chromosome
E) Close to one another

A

E) Close to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the designation for a bacterium harboring a F factor integrated into the bacterial
chromosome?
A) Hfr
B) Lft
C) F’
D) F-
E) F+

A

A) Hfr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacterial mutants that require supplemental nutrients in their growth media are called:
A) Omnitrophs
B) Auxotrophs
C) Autotrophs
D) Heterotrophs
E) Prototrophs

A

B) Auxotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Only ___________bacterial cells may receive DNA from a donor through transformation.
A) F+
B) F-
C) Competent
D) Incompetent
E) NO bacterial cells may receive DNA through transformation

A

C) Competent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You have a tube that contains several milliliters of an E. coli bacterial culture. The culture contains a mixture of two different strains of bacteria with the indicated genotypes (his=histidine–an amino acid, amp=ampicillin- an antibiotic, gal = galactose—a carbohydrate, trp=tryptophan—an amino acid, you may also add glucose – a carbohydrate if you need to).

Strain 1 = his+ amps gal- trp-
Strain 2 = his- ampr gal+ trp-

Set up two different cultures that will allow you to separate and propagate the different strains.

  1. What would you add to the medium to grow strain 1 from your mixed culture?
    A) Histidine, ampicillin, galactose, tryptophan
    B) Ampicillin and galactose
    C) Histidine and galactose
    D) Tryptophan and galactose
    E) Tryptophan and glucose
    F) Histidine and glucose
    G) Glucose only
    H) None of these combinations would support the selective growth of strain 1
A

E) Tryptophan and glucose

16
Q

You have a tube that contains several milliliters of an E. coli bacterial culture. The culture contains a mixture of two different strains of bacteria with the indicated genotypes (his=histidine–an amino acid, amp=ampicillin- an antibiotic, gal = galactose—a carbohydrate, trp=tryptophan—an amino acid, you may also add glucose – a carbohydrate if you need to).

Strain 1 = his+ amps gal- trp-
Strain 2 = his- ampr gal+ trp-

Set up two different cultures that will allow you to separate and propagate the different strains.

What would you add to the medium to grow strain 2 from your mixed culture?
A) Histidine, ampicillin, galactose, tryptophan
B) Ampicillin and galactose
C) Histidine and galactose
D) Tryptophan and galactose
E) Tryptophan and glucose
F) Histidine and glucose
G) Glucose only
H) None of these combinations would support the selective growth of strain 2

A

A) Histidine, ampicillin, galactose, tryptophan

17
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is what type of virus?
A) a DNA virus that can infect a type of human blood cell
B) a double-stranded RNA virus that can recombine with the genomes of similar viruses from other species
C) a single-stranded RNA virus that can undergo reverse transcription
D) a single-stranded DNA virus that uses reverse transcriptase to make a provirus
E) a double-stranded DNA virus that can infect both humans and chimpanzees simultaneously

A

C) a single-stranded RNA virus that can undergo reverse transcription

18
Q

Which explanation is one of the reasons for the ability of the influenza virus to evolve rapidly?
A) Its single-stranded DNA genome is sensitive to environmental factors that create mutations.
B) Its ability to integrate into the host genome allows it to remain in host cells for long periods of time.
C) The virus may undergo antigenic shift when multiple strains infect the same organism.
D) It can convert its RNA genome into a DNA copy by using the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

A

C) The virus may undergo antigenic shift when multiple strains infect the same organism.

19
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding bacteria?
A) Bacteria typically have a single, circular chromosome
B) Bacteria typically divide via binary fission
C) Bacteria may have extrachromosomal DNA in the form of a plasmid
D) Bacteria may be grown in the lab using specially formulated media
E) Bacteria chromosomes are separated before cytokinesis using mitosis

A

E) Bacteria chromosomes are separated before cytokinesis using mitosis

20
Q

How did Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase contribute to our understanding of DNA?
A) used X-ray diffraction to examine the structure of DNA
B) determined that DNA contains four different nitrogenous bases
C) found that “the transforming principle” is destroyed by enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
D) found that the phosphorus-containing components are the genetic material of phages
E) discovered “the transforming principle” that could genetically alter bacteria

A

D) found that the phosphorus-containing components are the genetic material of phages

21
Q

Which of the following sequences is the correct complementary sequence to: 5’-CTAGCTGGTA-3’
A) 3’-GCAACTAGCT -5’
B) 5’-AUGGUCGAUC-3’
C) 5’-TACCAGCTAG-3’
D) 3’-TACCAGCTAG-5’
E) None of the above

A

C) 5’-TACCAGCTAG-3’

22
Q

Nucleosomes provide a level of packaging that involves:
A) DNA polymerases and DNA
B) histones and DNA
C) telomerases and DNA
D) DNA and RNA

A

B) histones and DNA

23
Q

The components that make up a nucleotide include________.
A) tryptophan and leucine
B) base, sugar, and phosphate
C) phosphorus and sulfur
D) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
E) amino acids

A

B) base, sugar, and phosphate

23
Q

_____________________ -form DNA spirals to the right and is the major form of naturally occurring DNA
molecules.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) Z
E) None of these are correct

A

B) B

24
Q

______________________is densely packed DNA that is inaccessible to transcription factors, so it is generally
rendered transcriptionally silent. Examples of this type of chromatin includes centromeres, telomeres, and Barr
bodies.
A) Euchromatin
B) Heterochromatin
C) Epigenetic
D) Topoisomerase
E) Supercoiling

A

B) Heterochromatin

25
Q

A gene-encoding sequence is an example of which type of DNA sequence in eukaryotes?
A) Moderately repetitive DNA
B) Highly repetitive DNA
C) Short, interspersed elements
D) Unique-sequence DNA
E) Long interspersed elements

A

D) Unique-sequence DNA

26
Q

If 30% of the bases in a region of the mouse genome are cytosine, what percentage in that region are adenine?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) The percentage of adenine can’t be determined using this information

A

A) 20%

27
Q

What contribution did Lederberg and Tatum provide to genetics, that was later explained in more depth with U-
tube experiments?
A) Elucidated the structure of DNA
B) Determined that DNA is the hereditary material
C) Proved Chargaff’s Rule
D) Determined that horizontal gene transfer could occur between two strains of bacteria

A

D) Determined that horizontal gene transfer could occur between two strains of bacteria

28
Q

In a U-tube experiment, the presence of DNase prevents which process from happening?
A) Translation
B) Transduction
C) Transformation
D) Conjugation
E) Mutation

A

C) Transformation

29
Q

What chromosomal abnormality is associated with Patau syndrome?
A) Trisomy 8
B) Trisomy 13
C) Trisomy 18
D) Trisomy 21
E) Monosomy X

A

B) Trisomy 13

30
Q

What type of bond holds together the backbone of nucleotide chains in nucleic acids?
A) Ionic bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Disulfide bonds
D) Phosphodiester bonds
E) None of the above

A

D) Phosphodiester bonds

31
Q

Which of the following would denature at the HIGHEST temperature? Each of the following DNA molecules are
the same length.
A) Composed of 10% AT and 90% GC
B) Composed of 30% AT and 70% GC
C) Composed of 50% AT and 50% GC
D) Composed of 70% AT and 30% GC
E) Composed of 90% AT and 10% GC

A

A) Composed of 10% AT and 90% GC

32
Q

Changes in DNA expression without altering the DNA sequence, due to changes in DNA availability
(methylation or interaction with histone proteins), is called
A) Allogenetics
B) Transformational genetics
C) Epigenetics
D) Protein folding
E) Conjugation

A

C) Epigenetics

33
Q

From the results of the replica plating experiment shown below, which colony/colonies are streptomycin-resistant
and leucine-requiring?
A) 2, 3, and 9
B) 3 and 9
C) 2, 3, and 9
D) 1 only
E) 4 and 9
F) 5 only
G) None of the above are correct

A

D) 1 only

34
Q

Most DNA in human cells is overwound. This is called negative supercoiling.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

35
Q

Triploid organisms are usually able to produce viable gametes.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

36
Q

Chromosome duplication and chromosome deletion may lead to alterations in gene dosage.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

37
Q

Familial Down syndrome is an inherited form of Down syndrome resulting from a Robertsonian translocation
between chromosomes 14 and 21.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True