Exam 2 Prep Flashcards

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1
Q

Binocular

A

Referring to two eyes

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2
Q

Monocular

A

Referring to one eye

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3
Q

Your two eyeballs (and their two retinas) and in slightly different _____ in your head.

A

places

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4
Q

Lateral eyes

A

Eyes on the sid of the head (360 visual field)

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5
Q

Frontal eyes

A

Eyes on the front of the head (190 visual Field with 110 overlap)

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6
Q

Binocular Visual Field

A

Overlapping visual field seen by both eyes

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7
Q

Binocular Sunnation

A

The combination of signals from both eyes in ways that makes performance on many tasks better than with either eye alone.

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8
Q

The ability to use the slight difference in information gathered from each eye as a cue to _____.

A

3D Depth

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9
Q

Binocular Disparity

A

The difference between two retinal images of the same scene.

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10
Q

Stereopsis

A

The ability to use binocular disparity as a cue to bepth

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11
Q

Depth Cue

A

Information about the third dimension (depth) of visual space

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12
Q

Monocular Depth Cue

A

Depth cue that is available even when the wold is viewed with one eye alone.

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13
Q

Binocular Depth Cue

A

Depth cue that relies on information from both eyes

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14
Q

Occlusion

A

A cure relative to depth order in which one object obsturcts the view of part of another object.

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15
Q

The image on the retinal formed by an object gets _____ as the object gets further away.

A

smaller

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16
Q

Projective Geometry

A

The transformations that occur when the 3D world is projected onto a 2D surface

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17
Q

Texture Gradient

A

A depth cue based on the geometric fact that items of the same size form smaller images when they are further away.

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18
Q

Because _____ is interpreted as _____, this arrangement creats the perception of a ground plane receding into the distance.

A

smaller; farther

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19
Q

Relative height

A

A depth cue where objects further away will be seen as higher on the image.

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20
Q

The visual system makes depth predictions based on properties of the _____.

A

Atmosphere

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21
Q

Aerial Perspective

A

A depth cue based on our implicit understanding that light is scattered by the atmosphere; more light is scattered when we look through more atmosphere.

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22
Q

Linear Perspective

A

Depth cue based on the fact that lines that are parallel in the 3 D world will appear to converge in a 2D image as they extend into the distance

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23
Q

Vanishing Point

A

A point where parallel lines receding in depth will converge

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24
Q

Objects _____ to you shift positions more quickly than do object _____ away.

A

closer; farther

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25
Q

Parallax

A

A geometric relationship whereby when you change you viewpoint, objects closer to you shift their position more than objets farther away.

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26
Q

The visual system exploites disparities in information from both eyes (___) to construct a 3D world (stereopsis).

A

Binocular disparity

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27
Q

Corresponding Retinal Points

A

Two monocular images of an object are said to fall on corresponding point if those points are the same distance from the fovea in both eyes.

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28
Q

In an object is on the horopter and has corresponding retinal points that object has _____.

A

Zero binocular disparity.

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29
Q

Horopter

A

The location of objects whose images lie on corresponding points.

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30
Q

The greater the distance in depth of the object from the horpter, the larger the _____.

A

binocular disparity

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31
Q

Diplopia

A

Double vision; seeing two of a single object

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32
Q

The further an object gets from the _____ the greater the binocular disparity.

A

horopter surface

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33
Q

To exploit and resolve these binocular disparitie input from two eyes must _____ on the same neuron.

A

converge

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34
Q

Many binocular neurons respond best when the objects are on _____ points for the two retinas.

A

corresponding

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35
Q

Direction sensitivity

A

Responding preferentially to stimuli that are moving in a particualr direction.

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36
Q

Apeture Problem

A

The fact that when a moving object is viewed through an aperture (or a single receptive field) the direction of motion of part of the object may be ambiguous.

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37
Q

_____ are highly sensitive to direction of stimulus motion.

A

Middle Temporal (MT) neurons

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38
Q

The brain soves the aperture problem by combining info from multiple V1 neurons whose receptive fields are aimed at _____ of a moving contour.

A

different segments

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39
Q

Middle Temporal Area (MT)

A

An area of the brain thought to be imporatnt in the perceptiopn of motion.

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40
Q

Global-Motion Detector

A

Has access to all V1 cells detectiong local motion directions and can compare and synthesize all of their outputs

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41
Q

Biological Motion

A

The motion of animal and people

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42
Q

Saccades

A

A small and rapid movement most often of the eyes from one fixation point to another.

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43
Q

Superior Colliculus

A

A region of the midbrain that plays a major role in initiating and guiding eye movements

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44
Q

Extraocular Muscles

A

Six muscles that control movement of the eye and one muscle that controls eyelid elevation.

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45
Q

Saccade Generator Regions:

A

Two regions of the brainstem that cooperate to generate saccade eye movements

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46
Q

Pontine and Medullary Reticular formation

A

horizontal eye movements

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47
Q

Midbrain reticual formation

A

vertical eye movements

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48
Q

Saccade motor maps

A

A systematic representation in the brain of saccade endpoints, such that activation of adjacent neurons triggers saccades to adjacent targets iun the external world.

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49
Q

Frontal Eye Field (FEF)

A

A cortical area that lies at the anterior edge of the pre-motor cortex and is involved in the control of eye movements

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50
Q

Smooth Pursuit Eye Movements

A

an eye movement that smoothly tracks a relatively small moving visual stimulus.

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51
Q

What are the 4 Frontal Eye Field (FEF) functions

A

1) To select a target for the next saccade
2) To retain target information
3) To prevent saccades in some situations
4) Smooth pursuit eye movements

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52
Q

The FEF adds a substantial layer of _____ to the functions of the sub-cortical eye movement ciruits

A

complexity

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53
Q

The retinal array contains fare _____ information than we can process.

A

more

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54
Q

Attention

A

The focusing of the mind on specific objects or trains of thought

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55
Q

Attentional Spotlighting

A

permitting attention on one stimulus at a time

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56
Q

Overt attention

A

Aims your retinal fovea at the attended location and involves eye and often head movement.

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57
Q

Covert attention

A

A form of visual spatial attention that can be shifted from one location to another without movement of the eyes or head.

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58
Q

Visual search

A

A search for a target in a display containing distracting elements

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59
Q

Involuntary Attention

A

A form of attention in which external stimuli “grab” a person’s attention without them having conscious control.

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60
Q

Salient

A

Grabbing (or deserving) attention

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61
Q

In a _____ (involuntary attention)- the salient stimuli pop out from the background

A

parallel search

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62
Q

Voluntary attention

A

Attention that can be directed at will.

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63
Q

We intentionally move out attentional spotlight from one object to the next in a _____ (voluntary attention)

A

serial search

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64
Q

Conjuncion search

A

A search for a target defined by the presence of two of more attributes

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65
Q

Involuntary attention

A

Can be covert or overt
Grabs attention; salient stimuli pop out (parallel search)
Conjunction search

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66
Q

Voluntary attention

A

Can be covert or overt
Attention that can be directed at will (serial search)
Conjunction search

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66
Q

The time it takes for a salient stimulus to pop oyut of the background ____ increase significantly as the number of background distractors goes up.

A

doesnt

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67
Q

Stimulus salience is computed by neurons with relativly small spacial _____.

A

receptive fields

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68
Q

Stimulus salience is likely computed by neurons that receive _____ about multiple stimulus features.

A

convergent input

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69
Q

Superior colliculus- likely involved in computing _____ “bottom up” salience.

A

involuntary

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70
Q

Experimental evidence for the role of the sauperior colliculus in involuntary _____ spatial attention.

A

covert and overt

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71
Q

Weak electrical stimulation of the superior colliculus elicited an improvement in movement discrinination without eye meovbement (_____ attention)

A

covert

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72
Q

Saccade elicited by strong stimulation of the superior colliculus (_____ attention)

A

overt

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73
Q

Voluntary attention is controlled by the jubject, rather than external stimuli (_____ attention)

A

“Top-Down”

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74
Q

_____ play a major role in the control of voluntary head and eye movements.

A

Frontal Eye Field

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75
Q

Cued Spacial Attention Task

A

A behavioral task in which the subject is given a signal indicating where they should direct their spational attention.

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76
Q

FEF guides covert _____ spacial attention (selecting target for the next saccade), following be eye movement.

A

voluntary

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77
Q

Parietal Eye Field

A

A region of the posterior parietal cortex that plays an important role in the control of visual attention.

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78
Q

Attention plays a big role in object _____ and object _____.

A

recognition; localization

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79
Q

Neglect

A

In visual attention, the inability to attend to or respond to stimuli in the contralesional visual field.

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80
Q

Contralesional Field

A

The visual field on the side op

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81
Q

Ipsolesional field

A

The visual field on the same side as a brain lesion

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82
Q

Extinction

A

The inability to perceive a stimulus to one side of the point of fixation in the presence of another stimulus.

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83
Q

Balint syndrome

A

A disorder where everything except the current object of attention seems to be blacked from conscious perception.

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84
Q

Hearing Loss: Inhibit the ability of wound waves to exert _____ on the tympanic membrane

A

pressure

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85
Q

A longitudinal _____ that travels through the air or other medium.

A

wave

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86
Q

Sound waves move faster through _____ substances

A

denser

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87
Q

Amplitude (intensity; dB)

A

The magnitude of displacement (increase of decrease) of a sound pressure wave i.e. loudness

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88
Q

Frequency (Hz)

A

The number of times per seconds that a patteren of pressure change repeats. i.e. pitch

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89
Q

Decibles (dB)

A

A unit of measure for the physical intensity of sound, measured on a logarithmic scale

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90
Q

Parts of the outer ear

A

Pinna; Ear canal

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91
Q

Parts of the middle ear

A

Middle ear bones; Tempanic membrane; oval window

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92
Q

Parts of the inner ear

A

Vestibular labyrith; cochlea

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93
Q

The three middle ear bones

A

Malleus, Incus, and Stapes

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94
Q

Pinna

A

The outer ear (ear flap)

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95
Q

Ear Canal

A

Tubular passage from the outer ear to the tympanic membrane

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96
Q

Tempanic membrane

A

(ear drum) Thin membrane separating the ear canal from the middle ear.

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97
Q

Vestibular labyrinth

A

A set of interconnected canals

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98
Q

Cochlea

A

The spiraling tubular part of the inner ear that is responsible for sensing sounds

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99
Q

Oval window

A

Thin membrane between middle and inner ears

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100
Q

ossicles

A

Any of the three tiny bones of the middle ear

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101
Q

Sound pressure waves travel up the scala _____ towards the apex and back down again through the scala _____.

A

vestibuli; tympani

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102
Q

Basilar Membrane

A

A thin membrane inside the cochlea on top of which the inner and outer hair cells sit

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103
Q

Organ of corti

A

A structure on the basilar membrane of the cochlear that is composed of the hair cells

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104
Q

Auditory Transduction

A

The process by which the ear converts sound waves into electric impulses and sends them to the brain so we can interpret them as sounds

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105
Q

Hair cells

A

Sensory cells (NOT neurons) within the organ of corti and extends stereocilia (“hairs”) into the scala media

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106
Q

Each cochlear hair cell is adorned with three rows of stereocilia that differ in _____

A

height

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107
Q

Inner Hair Cells

A

Hair cells closest to the center of the spiraling chochlea

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108
Q

Outer Hair Cells

A

Three spiraling rows of hair cells furthest away from the center of the spiraling cochlea

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109
Q

Inner hair cells are purely _____, whereas outer hair cells performs both _____ functions

A

sensory; sensory and motor

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110
Q

Techrotial Membrane

A

Gelatinous structure, attached at one end, that extends into the scala media of the cochlea

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111
Q

Tip links

A

A thin filament that connects the tip of one stereocilium to the adjacent, taller stereocilium

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112
Q

Endolymph

A

The fluid inside the scala media in which the stereocilia are bathed; it contains an unusually high concentration of K+ ions

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113
Q

The tips of the shorter stereocilia (row 2 and 3) contain _____ that allow K+ and ions to flow in and depolarize them.

A

mechanically-gated ion channels

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114
Q

This influx causes membrane _____ and opens voltage gated Ca2+ concentration throughout the base of the hair cell.

A

depolarization

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115
Q

Ribbon synapse

A

A type of chemical synapse in which numerous synaptic vesicles are arranged around a central “ribbon”

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116
Q

Ribbon synapses undergo a cycle of _____ in response to graded changes of membrane potential

A

exocytosis

117
Q

Peri-lymph

A

The fluid surrounding the cell body of the hair cell; it contains an unusually low concentration of K+ ions

118
Q

Differences in _____ and _____ are encoded in the cochlea

A

amplitude; frequency

119
Q

_____ sounds cause large displacements closer to the oval window, near the cochlear base

A

High Frequency

120
Q

_____ sounds cause displacements further away, near the cochlear apex.

A

Lower frequency

121
Q

Place Code

A

Turning of different parts of the cochlea to different frequencies, where the particular frequency of an incoming sound wave is coded by the place along the basilar membrane with the greatest mechanical displacement.

122
Q

Cochlear Tonotopy

A

Neurons tuned to similar sound frequencies are located adjacent to one another such that, they form a neural “map” of sound frequency.

123
Q

The cochlea also has processes that actively _____ tuning

A

sharpen

124
Q

Most of the nerve fibers synapse with the outer hair cells are _____ fibers

A

efferent

125
Q

Over 90% of the _____ fibers in the auditory nerve synapse on the 3500 inner hair cells

A

afferent

126
Q

Sounds containing multiple frequencies activate multiple groups of hair cells at several _____ in the cochlea (spacial info)

A

locations

127
Q

Sound intensity affects _____. (temporal info)

A

firing rate

128
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Hearing loss caused by problems with the bones of the middle ear

129
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

A form of hearing loss due to defects in cochlea or auditory nerve

130
Q

Following exposure to loud sounds, _____ between hair cells and neurons in the auditory nerve are lost.

A

synapses

131
Q

Auditory Nerve (cochlear Nerve)

A

One of two branches of the vestibulocochlear nerve (nVIII), that carries auditory sensory information from the cochlea of the inner ear directly to the brain.

132
Q

When you record from auditory nerve fibers, different AN fibers selectively respond to different _____.

A

Sound Frequencies

133
Q

Threshold Tuning Curve

A

Graph plotting the threshold of a neuron in response to sound waves of varying frequency at the lowest intensity that will give rise to a response.

134
Q

Ganglia

A

A small swelling containing cell bodies of sensory neurons

135
Q

Spiral (cochlear) ganglion

A

Group of neuron cell bodies whose dendrites synapse with the hair cells and whose axons send information the brain to the cochlear nucleus.

136
Q

Tonotopic Map

A

A sound’s frequency (pitch) is represented in a map like fashion across a brain region, such that adjacent neurons are turned to similar sound frequencies.

137
Q

Primary Auditory Cortex (A1)

A

Located withing the temporal lobes, this is the first cortical area responsible for processing acoustic information.

138
Q

Processing proceeds from _____ to more _____ stimuli we move further along the auditory pathway.

A

simpler; complex

139
Q

Having _____ is critical for localizing sounds in space

A

two ears

140
Q

For most spatial positions, the sound source will be _____ to one ear than the other.

A

Closer

141
Q

Interaural

A

between the ears

142
Q

Interaural level differences (ILD)

A

The difference in sound intensity measured between the two ears

143
Q

Interaural Timed Difference (ITD)

A

The differnce in time at which sound waves reach the two ears

144
Q

To measure ILDs and ITDs, neurons must receive _____ input.

A

biaural

145
Q

Lateral Superior Olive (LSO)

A

Measures interaural differences
sensitive to LSO

146
Q

Medial Superior Olive (MSO)

A

Measures interaural differences
Sensitive to ITDs

147
Q

Information from both ears is sent via the cochlear nucleus and _____ in the superior olives

A

converges

148
Q

A sounds _____ location is encoded in the firing rate of lateral superior olive neurons

A

horizontal

149
Q

Not well understood, but the Medial Superior Olive is critical for the analysis of _____.

A

Interaural Time Difference (ITDs)

150
Q

Spectral composition

A

An auditory distance cue based on the sound absorbing qualities of air, which dampen high frequencies more than low frequencies.

151
Q

The sound that arrives at your ear is some combination of _____ and _____.

A

Direct energy; reverberant energy

152
Q

When a sound is close to the listener, most of the energy that reaches the ear is _____.

A

Direct

153
Q

When a sound source is far from the listener, most of the energy that reaches the ear is _____.

A

Reverberant

154
Q

Harmonic Spectrum

A

The spectrum of a complex sound

155
Q

Fundamental Frequency

A

The lowest frequency component of a complex sound

156
Q

The perceived pitch of a harmonic complex is determined by the _____.

A

fundamental frequency

157
Q

Our auditory system is acutely sensitive to the natural relationship between _____.

A

harmonics

158
Q

Fluctuations in sound pressure at regular intervals that correspond back to that _____ frequency

A

fundamental

159
Q

Two notes of identical pitch and intensity can still be identified as _____.

A

distinct

160
Q

Timbre

A

Psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds with the same fundamental loudness and pitch are dissimilar

161
Q

The same musical note played on different instruments sounds unique due to different _____ characteristics of the instruments.

A

harmonic

162
Q

Variations in the way a complex sound begins and ends: Attack

A

Part of a sound during which amplitude increases (onset)

163
Q

Variations in the way a complex sound begins and ends: Decay

A

Part of a sound during which amplitude decreases(offset)

164
Q

The differences you hear relate to difference in how quickly sound energy _____ at the onset. (i.e. the attack)

A

increases

165
Q

How quickly a sound decays depends on the length of time it takes for the vibrating object creating the sound to _____ energy and stop moving.

A

dissipate

166
Q

Music Therapy

A

The use of music to address the physical, emotional, cognitive, and social needs of a groups or individual.

167
Q

Octave

A

The interval between two sound frequencies having a ratio of 2:1

168
Q

Sounds that are _____ apart will sound more similar to each other than those closer in frequency.

A

Octaves

169
Q

Chord

A

A combination of three or more musical notes with different pitches played simultaneously

170
Q

Melody

A

A sequence of notes or chords perceived as a single coherent structure

171
Q

Tempo

A

The perceived speed of the presentation of sounds

172
Q

Rhythm

A

A repeated pattern of sounds, comprised of strong and weak elements.

173
Q

A1

A

Primary Auditory Cortex

174
Q

A2

A

Belt Area or Secondary Auditory Cortex

175
Q

A3

A

Para-belt Area or Third Auditory Cortex

176
Q

A1 fores in response to almost any sound, the belt and para-belt areas have _____ in response to sine waves.

A

less activity

177
Q

Primary Auditory Cortex (A1)

Identifies the fundamental elements of music such as _____.

A

Pitch and loudness

178
Q

Belt Area (A2)

Involved in processing _____

Detecting a difference in anomaly in a _____

A

rhythm; melody

179
Q

Para-belt (A3)

Involved in processing _____

A

Rhythm

180
Q

Phonation

A

The process through which vocal folds are made to vibrate when air pushes out of the lungs.

181
Q

Vocal Folds

A

A pair of elastic tissues that vibrate due to airflow generated by the lungs.

182
Q

The rate at which vocal folds vibrate depends on their _____ and _____.

A

stiffness; mass

183
Q

Vocal folds become stiffer and vibrate faster if you _____ their tension.

A

increase

184
Q

Vocal folds vibrate faster if you _____ their mass.

A

decrease

185
Q

By varying the tension of vocal folds and the pressure of airflow from the lungs, talkers can vary the _____ of their vocalizations

A

fundamental frequency

186
Q

Articulation

A

Producing a speech sound using the articulators

187
Q

Respiration

A

To initiate a speech sound, air needs to be pushed out of the lungs through the trachea and up to the larynx.

188
Q

Vocal tract

A

The airway above the larynx, which includes the nasal and oral tracts, used for the production of speech.

189
Q

Resonator

A

An object that, due to its shape naturally oscillates with greater amplitude at some frequencies, than at other frequencies.

190
Q

How we hear speech sound depends on our ______ with the speech sound of our first language.

A

experience

191
Q

Babies learn to listen even before they are _____.

A

born

192
Q

Language processing occurs int the _____

A

Cerebral cortex

193
Q

Broca’s Aphasia

A

A difficulty or inability to produce articulate speech (expressive aphasia)

194
Q

Broca’s Area

A

A cortical region in the frontal lobe of the human brain with functions linked to speech production

195
Q

In all of these aphasic patients, damage was on the _____ of the brain.

A

left inferior

196
Q

Wernicke’s Area

A

An area in the loft posterior portion of the superior temporal lobe involved in language comprehension

197
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia

A

In ability to comprehend speach

198
Q

Arcuate fasciculus

A

A neurological pathway connecting Broca’s and Wervicke’s areas

199
Q

Listening to spoken sentences activates these cortical areas _____ instead of only on the left.

A

bilaterally

200
Q

Vestibular Sense

A

The sensations of head motion orientation of gravity, and spatial orientation, which arises from sensors in the inner ear.

201
Q

Vestibular System

A

The vestibular organs as well as the vestibular neurons in creanial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear) and the central neurons that contribute to the functional roles the vestibular system plays a part in.

202
Q

Vestibular Organs

A

The set of five organs-three semicircular canals and two otolith organs-located in each inner ear that sense head motion and head orientation with respect to gravity.

203
Q

The vertebrate fossil record shows the presence of distant vestbular organs at least _____ million years ago.

A

400

204
Q

Many of the responses evoked by the vestibular system are _____.

A

reflexive

205
Q

Active Sensing

A

sensing that includes self-generated probing of the environment

206
Q

Balance

A

The neural processes of postural control by which weight is evenly distributed, enabling us to remain upright and stable

207
Q

Kinesthesia

A

Perception of the position and movement of out limbs in space

208
Q

Spacial Orientation

A

A sense consisting of three interacting sensory modalities-perception of linear motion, angular motion and tilt.

209
Q

Angular motion

A

“Rotational motion”; Sensed when accelerating or decelerating in a car.

210
Q

Tilt

A

Sensed as orientation with respect to gravity

211
Q

Linear Motion

A

“Translational motion”; Sensed when accelerating or deceleration in a car.

212
Q

Semicircular Canals

A

A bilateral set of three semicircular tubes oriented at right angles to one another, involved in sensing angular motion

213
Q

Ampulla

A

An expansion of each semicircular canal duct where transduction occurs

214
Q

This signal makes a predominate contribution to our sense of _____ motion

A

angular

215
Q

Crista

A

Any of the specialized detectors of angular motion located in each semicirular canal in the ampulla

216
Q

Otolith organs

A

Either of two mechanical structures (utricle and saccule) in the vestibular system that sense both linear acceleration and gravity

217
Q

Otolith organs provide:

The predominant contribution to you sense of head _____.

The predominant contribution to your sense of _____ (translation)

A

tilt; linear motion

218
Q

Utricle

A

A saclike structure that contains the sensors for horizontal acceleration (or deceleration) of the head; contains utricular macula

219
Q

Saccule

A

A saclike structure that contains the sensors for vertical acceleration (or deceseration) of the head; contains the saccular macula

220
Q

The vestibular organs do not respond to constant velocity; instead they respond to _____ in velocity (i.e. acceleration)

A

changes

221
Q

Hair Cells

A

A cell with a stereocilia for transducing mechanical movement in the inner ear into neural activity sent to the brain

222
Q

Vestiular hair cells sit on a substrate that does not vibrate in response to sound. _____ causes thes stereocilia to deflect

A

Stereocilia

223
Q

Kinocilium

A

A long cilium that sits next to the tallest stereo cilium of a vestibular hair cell

224
Q

Vestibular hair cells rlease neurotransmitter at a _____ rate, triggering a constant at of action potentials in the afferent neuron

A

constant

225
Q

The bending of our stereocilia changes the _____ of neurotransmitter release and therefore the rate of AP firing.

A

rate

226
Q

Condition III: Motion

_____ the rate of firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons

A

Decrease

227
Q

Condition II: Motion

_____ the rate of firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons.

A

Increase

228
Q

Direction of acceleration or deceleration of the head is encoded int the _____ of action potential firing of those afferent neurons

A

rate

229
Q

Mechanical Transduction

A

The process by which the vestibular system converts angular motion, linear motion, and tilt into electric impulses and sends them to the brain so we can perceive our spatial orientation

230
Q

Utricles are oriented _____

A

horizontally

231
Q

Saccules are oriented _____

A

vertically

232
Q

Shear Forces

A

Forces that are parallel to the macular plane

233
Q

Otoconia

A

Tiny calcium carbonate stones in the ear that provide inertial mass for the otolith organs, enabling them to sense gravity and linear acceleration

234
Q

Utricle

A

Hair cells on the utricle sensitive to acceleration (or deceleration) of the head forward, backward, and sideways

235
Q

Saccule

A

Hair cells on the utricle sensitive to acceleration (or deceleration) of the head upwards and downwards and the effects of gravity

236
Q

Movement of the otoconial membrane in different directions will cause different _____ of hair cells to depolarize

A

sets

237
Q

For each individual semicircular canal all of the hair cells are _____

A

aligned

238
Q

_____ the rate of AP firing for all neurons that innervate that canal

A
239
Q

Rotations in the opposite direction yield a hyper-polarization of those hair cells and _____ the rate of neurotransmitter release.

A
240
Q

Vertigo

A

A condition where a person has the sensation of moving or of surrounding objects moving when they are not

241
Q

Imperfections in the visual-vestibular interactions will yield _____ relative to normal sensory interactions that are expected by the brain

A

discrepancies

242
Q
A

Sensory discrepancies that arise when sensory systems provide conflicting information

243
Q

Vestibular-ocular reflex (VOR)

A

A reflexive counter-rotation of the eyes when the head rotates; serves to stabilize images on the retina

244
Q

Receives head-rotation signals from the _____

A

Semicircular canals

245
Q

The “_____”: on most cases we need to me in direct contact with an object to perceive it by touch.

A

Proximal Sense

246
Q

Touch

A

The sensation caused by mechanical stimulation of the skin, muscles, tendons and joints

247
Q

Tactile

A

teferring to the results of mechanicao interactionswith the skin

248
Q

Kinesthesia

A

Perception of the position and movement of out limbs in space

249
Q

Proprioception

A

Perception mediated by kensthetic and internal receptors

250
Q

Somatosemsation

A

Collectively sensory signals from the skin muscles tendons joints and internal receptors

251
Q

Somatosensory system

A

A system of neurons and sensory cells hat provide an organism with information about the physical state of its body (temperature, limb position, and pressure on the skin)

252
Q

Mechanotransduction

A

The ability to sense a mechanical disturbance and turn it into an electrical signal that neurons can process.

253
Q

Free nerve endings

A

The peripheral tip of a sensory axon that is not associated with one or more accessory sensory cells

254
Q

Encapsulated Nerve endings

A

The peripheral tip of a sensory axon that is embedded in (encapsulated by) one or more accessory sensory cells.

255
Q

The sensory for the human sense of touch is mostly house in the _____.

A

skin

256
Q

Glabrous skin

A

skin that lacks hair

257
Q

Epidermis

A

Tough outer layer of dead skin cells

258
Q

Dermis

A

The living layer

259
Q

Hypodermis

A

subcutaneous fat cells

260
Q

Merkel Disks

A

Detect light, sustained pressure and touch

261
Q

meissner’s corpuscle

A

Pressure discrimination
Found concentrated in places where you need a lot of responsiveness to a little input.

262
Q

Root Hair plexus

A

Detects tickle and light touch

263
Q

Ruffini Endings

A

Encapsulated pressure sensors
Respond to continuous pressure, e.g. skin stretching

264
Q

Pacinian corpuscles

A

Deep pressure sensors
Respond to on-off pressure of vibration

265
Q

Temperatures

A

Free nerve endings
Hot and cold

266
Q

Pain

A

Free nerve endings
tissue damage
nociceptors

267
Q

Touch receptor physiology:

Merkel Disks

A

Frequency: 0.3-3 Hz

Perception: Light touch

268
Q

Touch receptor physiology:

Meissner corpuscle

A

Frequency:3-40 Hz

Perception: Pressure

269
Q

Touch receptor physiology:

Ruffini Endings

A

Frequency:15-400 Hz

Perception: Stretching

270
Q

Touch receptor physiology:

Pacinian Corpuscle

A

Frequency: 10-500 Hz

Perception: Vibration

271
Q

Responses to continuous stimulation:

Slow Adapting (SA) Fibers

A

Merkel disks, Ruffini endings

Continues to respond even to sustained stimuli

272
Q

Responses to continuous stimulation:

A

Meissner coruscles, pacinian corpuscles

Respond with a burst of firing at the beginning and end of stimulation

273
Q

Receptive Field

A

The area of skin controlled by the receptor

274
Q

Receptive field size determines _____.

A

Spacial Resolution

275
Q

Net perception of touch is determined by information from all _____.

A

Mechano receptors

276
Q

Touch Receptor Location and Response:

Merkel Disk

A

Location: Epidermis (near dermis border)

Response: Slow

277
Q

Touch Receptor Location and Response:

Meissner Corpuscle

A

Location: Dermis (Just below the epidermis)

Response: Rapid

278
Q

Touch Receptor Location and Response:

Ruffini Endings

A

Location: Dermis

Response: Slow

279
Q

Touch Receptor Location and Response:

Pacinian Coruscle

A

Location: Dermis (deep in subcutaneous fat)

Response: Rapid

280
Q

Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:

Merkel Disk

A

Receptive Field Size: Small

Responds Best To: Steady, sustained touch from small objects

281
Q

Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:

Meissner Corpuscle

A

Receptive Field Size: Small

Responds Best To: Pressure from rubbing against the skin or skin movement across a surface

282
Q

Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:

Ruffini Endings

A

Receptive Field Size: large

Responds Best To: Stretching of the skin (e.g. joint movement)

283
Q

Touch Receptor Receptive field size and responds best to:

Pacinian Coruscle

A

Receptive Field Size: Large

Responds Best To: Vibrations from machinery (esp. changes in stimulation)

284
Q

Kinesthetic Receptors

A

sensory mechanoreceptors in muscles, tendons, and joints

285
Q

Muscle spindles

A

Specialized structures that lie between principle muscle fibers of skeletal musle

286
Q

Golgi Tendon Organs

A

Sensory nerve ending embedded in the tendons that senses changes in muscle tension

287
Q

Touch sensory in the skin are more densely packed in the _____ than on the back

A

Fingertips

288
Q

Difference in the _____ of mechanoreceptors and size of _____ fields exists across the entire body.

A

Density; Receptive

289
Q

Two-point threshold

A

How far apart two points need to be to be discriminable

290
Q

Tactile Acuity Vs. Sensitivity:

Merkel Disks

A

High density
Small receptive fields
Low convergence
High acuity

291
Q
A