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Pathophysiology > exam 2: heme > Flashcards

exam 2: heme Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dominant element of blood?

A

erythrocyte (RBC)

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2
Q

What does the RBC do?

A

transports gas to and from tissue cells and lungs

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3
Q

How long do RBC last?

A

80-120 days

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4
Q

How much does the erythrocyte make up the blood component?

A

45%

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5
Q

What is a buffy coat?

A

it is a component of blood that covers leukocytes (WBC) and platelets

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6
Q

how much does the buffy coat make up the blood component?

A

<1%

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7
Q

what is contained in blood plasma?

A

water (91%), proteins and other solutes

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8
Q

how much does blood plasma make up the blood component?

A

55%

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9
Q

how do kidneys help with RBCs?

A

it stimulates RBC production when kidneys sense reduction in O2; or when the body experiences hypoxia or hemorrhage

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10
Q

what are clotting factors?

A

promotes coagulation and stops bleeding from damaged blood vessels through platelet formation

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11
Q

what are Fibrin Degradation Products (FDP)s ?

A

plasmin as enzyme that dissolves clot—works as fibrinolysis—by degrading fibrin and fibrinogen into FDPs

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12
Q

what causes thrombus (clot) formation?

A

decreased circulation, platelet aggregation on vessel wall and blood coagulation

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13
Q

what are risk factors for thrombus (clot) formation?

A

sedentary activities and post operations

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14
Q

what is an embolus?

A

a clot that dislodges and circulates in the blood which can obstruct vessel and organs

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15
Q

what happens when an arterial clot is formed?

A

platelets initiate the process
fibrin formation occurs
RBCs are trapped inside the fibrin mesh

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16
Q

what are assessment cues related to arterial clot formation

A

secondary to:
MI- chest/upper body pain, SOB, extreme fatigue
CVA- numbness/sensation loss of extremity/side, confusion, inability to speak

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17
Q

what happens when a venous clot is formed?

A

platelet aggregation with fibrin that attaches to RBCs
venous stasis and valves worsen circulation

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18
Q

what are assessment cues related to venous clot formation

A

secondary to:
DVT- extremity is red, warm, inflamed, tender
PE- lethal with sudden/extreme SOB, chest pain while breathing, collapse, shock

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19
Q

what is a pernicious anemia?

A

lack of vitamin B12
abnormal DNA and RNA synthesis in erythroblast
premature cell death

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20
Q

what type of anemia is pernicious and what is it caused by?

A

macro-cytic anemia

caused by: congenital or acquired deficiency of intrinsic factor and genetic disorder of DNA synthesis

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21
Q

what is a folate deficiency anemia

A

lack of folate
premature cell death

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22
Q

what type of anemia is a folate deficiency and what is it caused by?

A

microcytic-hypochromic anemia

caused by: dietary folate deficiency

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23
Q

what is an iron deficiency anemia?

A

a lack of iron for hemoglobin
insufficient hemoglobin

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24
Q

what type of anemia is an iron deficiency and what is it caused by?

A

microcytic-hypochromic anemia

caused by: chronic blood loss, dietary iron deficiency, disruption of iron metabolism or iron cycle

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25
Q

what is a posthemorrhagic anemia?

A

blood loss

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26
Q

what type of anemia is a posthemorrhagic anemia and what is it caused by?

A

normocytic-normochromic anemia

caused by: increased erythropoiesis and iron depletion

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27
Q

what is a sickle cell anemia?

A

abnormal hemoglobin synthesis
abnormal cell shape with susceptibility to damage, lysis and phagocytosis

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28
Q

what type of anemia is sickle cell and what is it caused by?

A

normocytic-normochromic anemia

caused by: congenital dysfunction of hemoglobin synthesis

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29
Q

what are common clinical manifestations to anemia?

A

weakness, fatigue, paresthesias, difficulty walking, loss of appetite, cheilosis (scales and fissures of mouth), stomatitis, painful ulcerations

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30
Q

what is hemophilia?

A

a group of inherited bleeding disorders resulting from mutation in coagulation factors

common: joint bleeding

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31
Q

what is an Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

A

destruction of platelets or antibody-mediated inflammatory reactions to allergens damage blood vessels and cause seepage into tissues

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32
Q

what is a thrombocytopenia

A

platelet count of less than 150k

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33
Q

what causes thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelet productions:
viral infections, drugs/radiation therapy, chronic renal failure, bone marrow hypoplasia or cancer

increased platelet consumption:
HIT, I (idiopathic) TP, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

34
Q

what is a general of clonal diversity?

A

a colonal phase of the immune response that produces large numbers of T and B lymphocytes with maximum delivery of antigen receptors

35
Q

what is a colonal selection?

A

a colonal phase of the immune response that selects, expands, and differentiates the clones of T and B cells against specific antigens

36
Q

what is the role of antigens

A

molecular targets of antibodies

37
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

T cells: Thymus derived
B cells: Bone marrow derived

38
Q

what is humoral immunity

A

antibodies circulating in blood (fight bacteria or viruses)

39
Q

what is cellular immunity

A

T cells (fight intracellular pathogens and abnormal cells)

40
Q

what is an active immunity

A

develops after exposure to antigen; long-lived

41
Q

what is an example of active immunization and what is it

A

vaccines: biologic preparations of antigens that induce long-lasting protective immune response (through boosters)

42
Q

what is a passive immunity

A

pre-formed antibodies or T cells are administered; temporary

43
Q

what are examples of passive immunizations

A

Hep A and Hep B
Monoclonal Antibody against RSV for ebola virus infection

44
Q

what is an IgG antibody?

A

is the most abundant class (80-85%) which accounts for most of the protective activity against infections

45
Q

what is the role of IgG

A

it is transported across the placenta to protect the newborn child during the first 6mos

46
Q

what is an IgM antibody

A

largest and the first antibody that the body makes when encountering an antigen

47
Q

what is the role of IgM

A

to synthesize in early neonatal life but may be increased as a response to infection in utero

48
Q

what is an IgA antibody

A

found in blood and bodily secretions as secretary IgA

49
Q

what is an IgD

A

a part of the BCR antigen receptor on the surface of early B cells

50
Q

what is an IgE

A

low concentrations in the circulation

51
Q

what is the role of IgE

A

a mediator of many common allergic responses and as a defense against parasitic injection

52
Q

what are clinical cues found in secondary (acquired) immune deficiencies

A

complications of other physiologic or pathophysiologic conditions

MANY: pregnancy, trauma, stress, malnutrition, acquired infections, malignancy, burns, stress

53
Q

what is the role of IgE

A

a mediator of many common allergic responses and as a defense against parasitic injection

54
Q

what is a direct function of antibodies

A

through the action of antibody alone in affecting infectious agents or toxic products by neutralization-inactivating or blocking the binding of antigens to receptors

55
Q

what is an indirect function of antibodies

A

requires activation of other components of the innate immune response

56
Q

what is a type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE-Mediated Hypersensitivity Reactions
common allergic reactions against environmental antigens

IgE

57
Q

what is a type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Tissue Specific Hypersensitivity Reactions
immune reactions against a specific cell or tissue

IgG

58
Q

what is a type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Immune Complex-Mediated Hypersensitivity
antigen-antibody(immune) complexes formed in circulation and deposited in vessel walls

IgG
IgM

59
Q

what is a serum sickness

A

type reactions that are caused by formation of immune complexes in the blood and their subsequent generalized deposition in target tissues

60
Q

what is a Raynaud phenomenon

A

conditions caused by temperature-dependent deposition of immune complexes in the capillary beds of the peripheral circulation

61
Q

what is an arthus reaction

A

repeated local exposure to antigen that reacts with performed antibody and forms immune complexes in walls of local blood vessels

62
Q

what is a type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Cell-Mediated Hypersensitivity Reactions
mediated by T lymphocytes and do not involve antibodies

63
Q

what is a systemic lupus erythrematosis (SLE)

A

production of large variety of autoantibodies against self-antigens

64
Q

what are common clinical findings of SLE

A

rash, photosensitivity, arthritis, serositis, renal dysfunction, neurologic disorders, hematologic manifestations

65
Q

what is an alloimmune disease in transplant rejection in acute

A

cell mediated response that occurs within days to months after transplantation

66
Q

what is an autoimmune disease in transplant rejection in chronic

A

slow, progressive organ failure from chronic inflammation and weak-cell mediated type 4 reaction

67
Q

what are clinical cues found in primary (congenital) immune deficiencies

A

result of single gene defects

Predominantly antibody deficiencies; defects in phagocte number or function; defects in innate immunity; and complement defects

68
Q

what does hemostasis depend on

A

adaptive immunity’s defense system to promote health and prevent illness

69
Q

what are alloimmunity conditions

A

organ/blood transplant rejection

70
Q

what are autoimmunity conditions

A

SLE and sickle cell disease

71
Q

what do anticoagulants do

A

prevent formation of clots than inhibit circulation

72
Q

what do antiplatelets do

A

prevent platelet aggregation

73
Q

what do thrombolytics do

A

promotes fibrinolytic mechanism (converting plasminogen to plasmin; destroying the fibrin in the blood clots)
attack and dissolve blood clots that have already formed

74
Q

what is an anti XA Unfractionated Heparin Level

A

measurement of antithrombin (AT)
-which is a catalyzed inhibitor of factors 10A by unfractionated heparin

75
Q

what is an induction therapy in immunosuppressant drugs

A

provides intense immunosuppression with drugs designed to diminish presentation and T-cell response

-reduces risk of acute rejection during initial transplant period

76
Q

what are traditional virus

A

whole or components of inactivated (killed) microorganisms
can be live or dead

77
Q

what are attenuated virus

A

live, weakened microorganisms

78
Q

what are toxoids

A

inactivated toxins that stimulate antitoxin formation but can’t produce disease

79
Q

what are conjugate vaccines

A

requires protein or toxoid from unrelated microorganism to link outer coating of disease-causing microorganism

80
Q

what are recombinant subunit vaccines

A

involve some genetic material of pathogen into another cell or organism where antigen is produced

Pathophysiology (6 decks)

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