Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology PaxFlan > Exam 2 drugs > Flashcards

Exam 2 drugs Flashcards

1
Q

albuterol

A

SABA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

levalbuterol

A

SABA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ipratropium

A

SAMA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

prednisone, dexamethasone

A

systemic corticosteroids

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

budesonide

A

ICS

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fluticasone

A

ICS

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ciclesonide

A

new ICS

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

salmeterol

A

LABA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

formoterol

A

LABA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tiotropium

A

LAMA

asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cromolyn

A

cromoglycates - alter function of chloride channels – inhibit cellular activation
asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

theophylline

A

methylxanthines - inhibits PDE = bronchodilator

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

zileuton

A

leukotriene modifier- 5- lipoxygenase inhibitor

asthma (not used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

zafirleukast

A

leukotriene modifier - cysteinyl leukotriene-receptor antagonist
asthma (not used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Montelukast

A

leukotriene modifier - cysteinyl leukotriene-receptor antagonist
asthma (+allergic rhinitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

umeclidinium

A

LAMA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

aclidinium

A

LAMA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

revefenacin

A

LAMA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

glycopyrrolate

A

LAMA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

oldaterol

A

LABA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

arfomoterol

A

LABA

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Roflumilast

A

inhibits PDE4 = decreases inflammation

severe COPD with bronchitis & AE-COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DM

A

cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

benzonatate

A

polyglycol derivative

cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

guaifenesin

A

expectorant for cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

antihistamines

A

antimuscarinic effects for cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

decongestants

A

decrease PND for cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bupropion

A

smoking cessation, MDD, seasonal affective disorder

*dont give with anxiety! or seizure hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

calcium

A

osteoporosis (1000-1200)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HRT

A

estrogen +/- progestin

not 1st line for osteoporosis - now causes VTE, CA, CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

tamoxifen

A

SERM - selective estrogen receptor modulator

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

raloxifene

A

SERM - selective estrogen receptor modulator

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

denosumab

A

anti-rank ligand - prevents preosteoclasts–>osteoclasts

osteoporosis, mets from solid tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

alendronate

A

bisphos - incorporates into bone, gets released by osteoclasts = osteoclast apoptosis
osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

risendronate

A

bisphos - incorporates into bone, gets released by osteoclasts = osteoclast apoptosis
osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

zoledronic acid

A

bisphos - incorporates into bone, gets released by osteoclasts = osteoclast apoptosis
osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

teriparatide

A

PTH/PTHrP analog - increases osteoblasts, increase Ca2+ in GI tract and kidney
osteoporosis with high risk of fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

aboloparatide

A

PTH/PTHrP analog - increases osteoblasts, increase Ca2+ in GI tract and kidney
osteoporosis with high risk of fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

romosumab

A

sclerostin inhibitor - stimulates osteoblasts

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

levothyroxine

A

T4–>T3

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

liothyronine

A

T3

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

liotrix

A

T3 & T4

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PTU

A

thionamide - blocks conversion in thyroid and liver

hyperthyroidism in 1st trimester pregnancy, thyroiditis (thyroid storm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

methimazole

A

thionamide - blocks conversion just in thyroid

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

RAI

A

sodium iodine I-131 - inflammation = destroys thyroid

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

steroid for hyperthyroidism sxs

A

dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

metformin

A

biguanides- decreases hepatic glucose production, increases GLP1
pre-DM, DM, PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

glyburide

A

sulfonyurea- binds ATP K+ channel = increased insulin secretion
DM (not used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

glimepiride

A

sulfonyurea - binds ATP K+ channel = increased insulin secretion
DM (not used in elderly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

glipizide

A

sulfonyurea OF CHOICE - binds ATP K+ channel = increased insulin secretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

nateglinide

A

meglitinides - binds ATP K+ channel = increased insulin secretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

repaglinide

A

meglitinides - binds ATP K+ channel = increased insulin secretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

pioglitazone

A

TZD - ppar-y agonist

DM (favorable lipid effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

rosiglitazone

A

TZD - ppar-y with ppar-a activity

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

acarbose

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor - decreases glucose absorption at SI brush border
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

miglitol

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor - decreases glucose absorption at SI brush border
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

liraglutide

A

GLP-1 agonists - stimulates insulin, inhibits glucagon secretion, hepatic glucose production, gastric emptying, appetite
DM, *weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

semaglutide

A

GLP-1 agonists - stimulates insulin, inhibits glucagon secretion, hepatic glucose production, gastric emptying, appetite
DM - *most potent A1C lowering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

exenatide

A

GLP-1 agonists - stimulates insulin, inhibits glucagon secretion, hepatic glucose production, gastric emptying, appetite
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

lixisenatide

A

GLP-1 agonists - stimulates insulin, inhibits glucagon secretion, hepatic glucose production, gastric emptying, appetite
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

dulaglutide

A

GLP-1 agonists - stimulates insulin, inhibits glucagon secretion, hepatic glucose production, gastric emptying, appetite
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

sitagliptin

A

DPP-4 inhibitor - prolong active incretin levels

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

saxagliptin

A

DPP-4 inhibitor - prolong active incretin levels

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

linagliptin

A

DPP-4 inhibitor - prolong active incretin levels

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

alogliptin

A

DPP-4 inhibitor - prolong active incretin levels

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

canagliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor - decreases glucose and Na reabsorption, increase urinary glucose/Na excretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

empagliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor - decreases glucose and Na reabsorption, increase urinary glucose/Na excretion
DM *agent of choice!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ertugliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor - decreases glucose and Na reabsorption, increase urinary glucose/Na excretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

dapagliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor - decreases glucose and Na reabsorption, increase urinary glucose/Na excretion
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

regular insulin

A

fast-acting insulin

71
Q

lispro

A

faster-acting insulin

72
Q

aspart

A

faster-acting insulin

73
Q

glulisine

A

faster-acting insulin

74
Q

NPH

A

intermediate insulin

75
Q

detemir

A

long acting insulin

76
Q

glargine

A

long acting insulin

77
Q

degludec

A

long acting insulin

78
Q

mannitol

A

diuretic

decrease ICP, TURP procedure

79
Q

acetazolamide

A

diuretic

acute mountain sickness

80
Q

furosemide

A 
loop diuretic (loop of henle) 
pulmonary edema, other edema states, hypercalcemia
81
Q

torsemide

A 
loop diuretic (loop of henle) 
pulmonary edema, other edema states, hypercalcemia
82
Q

bumetanide

A 
loop diuretic (loop of henle) 
pulmonary edema, other edema states, hypercalcemia
83
Q

ethancrynic acid

A 
loop diuretic (loop of henle) 
pulmonary edema, other edema states, hypercalcemia
84
Q

hydrochlorothiazide

A 
thiazide diuretic (distal convoluted tubule) 
HTN
85
Q

chlorthaldone

A 
thiazide diuretic (distal convoluted tubule) 
HTN (more potent, longer 1/2 life)
86
Q

metolazone

A 
thiazide diuretic (distal convoluted tubule) 
HTN (synergistic with loops)
87
Q

spironolactone

A

anti-aldo / K+ sparing diuretic - blocks at cortical collecting tubule
primary & secondary aldosteronism, hirsutism/acne

88
Q

eplerenone

A

anti- aldo / K+ sparing diuretic - blocks at cortical collecting tubule
primary & secondary aldosteronism, hirsutism/acne

89
Q

amiloride

A

K+ sparing diuretic - in distal tubule, cortical collecting tubule, collecting duct
with other diuretics to correct/prevent hypo K+

90
Q

triamterene

A

K+ sparing diuretic - in distal tubule, cortical collecting tubule, collecting duct
with other diuretics to correct/prevent hypo K+

91
Q

lisinopril

A

ACEi - inhibits angioten 1 –> angioten 2 & dilates efferent arteriole
HF with systolic dysfunction, HTN (LVH>), CKD, post-AMI
(ONLY QDAY)

92
Q

enalapril

A

ACEi - inhibits angioten 1 –> angioten 2 & dilates efferent arteriole
HTN with systolic dysfunction, HTN (LVH>), CKD, post-AMI

93
Q

losartan

A

ARB - inhibits binding of angiotensin to AT1 receptor = no vasoconstricting effects
HTN with systolic dysfunction, HTN, CKD, post-AMI
+ gout prevention!

94
Q

candesartan

A

ARB - inhibits binding of angiotensin to AT1 receptor = no vasoconstricting effects
HTN with systolic dysfunction, HTN, CKD, post-AMI

95
Q

valsartan

A

ARB - inhibits binding of angiotensin to AT1 receptor = no vasoconstricting effects
HTN with systolic dysfunction, HTN, CKD, post-AMI

96
Q

aliskiren

A

renin inhibitor

HTN (but never used)

97
Q

terazosin

A

long-acting alpha-blocker - blocks a1 = dilates resistance and capacitance vessels
BPH, medical expulsive therapy for ureteral stones, HTN, endocrine HTN

98
Q

doxazosin

A

long-acting alpha-blocker - blocks a1 = dilates resistance and capacitance vessels

99
Q

prazosin

A

short-acting alpha-blocker - blocks a1 = dilates resistance and capacitance vessels

100
Q

propranolol

A

non-selective B-blocker
HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors, **infantile hemangiomas

101
Q

timolol

A

non-selective B-blocker

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

102
Q

nadolol

A

non-selective B-blocker

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

103
Q

metoprolol

A

selective B-blocker

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

104
Q

carvedilol

A

non-selective B-blocker w. alpha-activity

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

105
Q

labetalol

A

non-selective B-blocker w. alpha activity

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

106
Q

nebivolol

A

selective B-blocker (B3) + NO activity

HTN, unstable angina, post-AMI, HFrEF, systolic HF, arrhythmias, perioperative, migraine prophylaxis, essential tremors

107
Q

nifedipine

A

short-acting DHP - CCB - inhibit L-type Ca channel in vascular smooth muscle = decreased PVR
HTN, angina, Raynaud

108
Q

amlodipine

A

long-acting DHP - CCB - inhibit L-type Ca channel in vascular smooth muscle = decreased PVR
HTN, angina, Raynaud

109
Q

verapamil

A 
non-DHP CCB - blocks L-type Ca channel in heart = (-) ionotropic effect (more cardiac activity than diltiazem) 
cardiac arrhythmias (SVT, a-fib)
110
Q

diltiazem

A 
non-DHP CCB - blocks L-type Ca channel in heart = (-) ionotropic effect 
cardiac arrhythmias (SVT, a-fib)
111
Q

hydralazine

A

direct vasodilator = decrease PVR

HTN, HF in blacks, eclampsia/preeclampsia

112
Q

minoxidil

A

direct vasodilator = decrease PVR

HTN, alopecia, OSA, hyper aldosterone tumor

113
Q

clonidine

A

central alpha-agonist - stimulates a2 receptors = decrease PVR, renal vascular resistance, HR, BP
HTN (patch)

114
Q

methyldopa

A

central alpha-agonist - stimulates a2 receptors = decrease PVR, renal vascular resistance, HR, BP
HTN

115
Q

rosuvastatin

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering

116
Q

simvastatin (+ when dosed)

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering
dosed in AM (short 1/2 life)

117
Q

atorvastatin

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering

118
Q

pitavastatin

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering

119
Q

pravastatin

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering

120
Q

lovastatin (+ when dosed)

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering
dosed in AM (short 1/2 life)

121
Q

fluvastatin (+ when dosed)

A

hmg-coa reductase inhibitor - uptakes regulation of LDL = decreased serum LDL
LDL-lowering
dosed in AM (short 1/2 life)

122
Q

ezetimibe

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor - inhibits intestinal absorption of dietary & biliary cholesterol
LDL-lowering

123
Q

cholestyramine

A

bile acid sequestrant - conversion of bile –> cholesterol = increase LDL receptor synthesis –> decrease plasma LDL
LDL-lowering

124
Q

colestipol

A

bile acid sequestrant - conversion of bile –> cholesterol = increase LDL receptor synthesis –> decrease plasma LDL
LDL- lowering

125
Q

colesevelam

A

bile acid sequestrant - conversion of bile –> cholesterol = increase LDL receptor synthesis –> decrease plasma LDL
LDL-lowering

126
Q

alirocumab

A

PCSK9 inhibitor - prevents PCSK9 from binding to LDL receptors = increased hepatic uptake of LDL-C
LDL- lowering (for familial hypercholesterolemia)

127
Q

evolocumab

A

PCSK9 inhibitor - prevents PCSK9 from binding to LDL receptors = increased hepatic uptake of LDL-C
LDL- lowering (for familial hypercholesterolemia)

128
Q

Niacin

A

inhibits synthesis and conversion of VLDL –> LDL

targets HDL & TG

129
Q

fenofibrate

A

Ppar-a agonist - regulates gene that control lipid & glucose metabolism, inflammation, endothelial function
targets TG, *also for gout prevention

130
Q

gemfibrozil

A

Ppar-a agonist - regulates gene that control lipid & glucose metabolism, inflammation, endothelial function
targets TG

131
Q

fenofibric acid

A

Ppar-a agonist - regulates gene that control lipid & glucose metabolism, inflammation, endothelial function
targets TG

132
Q

EPA/DHA

A

reduces hepatic TG production and increases TG clearance

133
Q

aspirin

A 
irreversibly acetylates COX = decreased platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction = irreversible platelet effect 
TIA/CVA/AMI prophylaxis (1* and 2*)
ACS (DAPT)
DVT prophylaxis 
analgesia
134
Q

clopidogrel

A

ADP receptor inhibitor (thienopyridine) - prodrug though CYP2C19 (activated in liver) - irreversibly blocks P2Y12 component of ADP receptors

135
Q

prasugrel

A

ADP receptor inhibitor (thienopyridine) - prodrug that is less dependent on CYP system -irreversible platelet effect

136
Q

ticagrelor

A

ADP receptor inhibitor (non-thienopyridine)

same as clopidogrel/prasugrel but reversible

137
Q

cangrelor

A

ADP receptor inhibitor (non-thienopyridine)

same as clopidogrel/prasugrel but reversible

138
Q

warfarin

A

antagonizes VKORC1 - inhibits carboxylation of vit K factors (II, VII, IX, X) and anticoagulant factors (C&S)
AF with CAD, valvular AF, prosthetic valve AF
prevention and treatment of VTE

139
Q

heparin

A

indirect thrombin inhibitor
systemic anticoagulation
DVT prophylaxis
anticoag for ECMO

140
Q

rivaroxaban

A

oral factor Xa inhibitors (NOAC/DOAC)
VTE prevention in THA/TKA
non-valvular AFIB
prevention/tx of VTE

141
Q

apixaban

A

oral factor Xa inhibitors (NOAC/DOAC)
VTE prevention in THA/TKA
non-valvular AFIB
prevention/tx of VTE

142
Q

edoxaban

A

oral factor Xa inhibitors (NOAC/DOAC)
VTE prevention in THA/TKA
non-valvular AFIB
prevention/tx of VTE

143
Q

betrixaban

A

oral factor Xa inhibitors (NOAC/DOAC)
VTE prevention in THA/TKA
non-valvular AFIB
prevention/tx of VTE

144
Q

enoxaparin

A

LMWH - anti-thrombin mediated inhibition of Xa>IIa
VTE prevention in hip/knee surgery, abd sx, medical patients
VTE treatment
ACS

145
Q

dalteparin

A

LMWH - anti-thrombin mediated inhibition of Xa>IIa
VTE prevention in hip/knee surgery, abd sx, medical patients
VTE treatment
ACS

146
Q

vitamin K/PCC/FFP

A

reverses warfarin

147
Q

protamine (sulfate?)

A

reverses UFH & LMWH

148
Q

andexanet-a

A

reverses oral factor Xa inhibitors

149
Q

idarucizumab

A

reverses Direct thrombin inhibitors

150
Q

fondaparinux

A

factor Xa inhibitor
VTE prophylaxis for hip/knee, abd surgery
VTE treatment

151
Q

dabigatran

A

direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)
VTE prevention for TKA/THA
non-valvular AFIB
VTE treatment

152
Q

argatroban

A

direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)

HIT

153
Q

desirudin

A

direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)

DVT prophylaxis during THA

154
Q

bivalirudin

A

direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)

ACS pts managed with PCI, pts with or at risk for HIT/HITTS undergoing PCI

155
Q

alteplase (tpa)

A

fibrinolytic (thrombolytics) - binds to fibrin in a thrombus & converts entrapped plasminogen to plasmin
STEMI, acute PE, acute ischemic stroke, central venous catheter clearance, acute peripheral arterial occlusive disease

156
Q

tenecteplase

A

fibrinolytic (thrombolytics) - binds to fibrin in a thrombus & converts entrapped plasminogen to plasmin
longer 1/2 life than tpa
STEMI (only)

157
Q

quinidine

A

Class IA anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

158
Q

procainamide

A

Class IA anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

159
Q

disopyramide

A

Class IA anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

160
Q

lidocaine

A

Class IB anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

161
Q

mexiletine

A

Class IB anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

162
Q

flecanide

A

Class IC anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

163
Q

propafenone

A

Class IC anti-arrhythmic - modulate Na channels

164
Q

sotalol

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic - block K+ channels

165
Q

ilbutilide

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic - block K+ channels

166
Q

dofetilide

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic - block K+ channels

167
Q

amiodarone

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic - block K+ channels
life-threatening or hemodynamically unstable VT
unlabeled: recurrent AF, AF prophylaxis following open heart surgery

168
Q

dronedarone

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic - block K+ channels

A-FIB/a-flutter

169
Q

digoxin

A

advanced systolic HF: blocks Na/K –> increases intracell Ca –> increase contractility (last line!)
2nd line for AF in HF patients –> increase vagal tone, decrease conduction through SA/AV node

170
Q

omalizumab

A

anti IgE antibody

asthma

171
Q

mepolizumab

A

il-5 antibody

asthma

172
Q

reslizumab

A

il-5 antibody

asthma

173
Q

benralizumab

A

il-5 antibody

asthma

174
Q

dupilumab

A

il-4 antibody

asthma

Pharmacology PaxFlan (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions