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341 > Exam 2- DISEASES > Flashcards

Exam 2- DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

asthma

A

heterogenous disease characterized by a combo of bronchial hyperresponsiveness with reversible expiratory airflow limitation

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2
Q

pathophysiology of asthma

A

exposure to allergens or irritants triggers the inflammatory cascade involving a variety of inflammatory cells; inflammation leads to bronchoconstriction, hyperresponsiveness, and edema of airways leads to limited airflow

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3
Q

what changes occur to the lungs because of asthma?

A

fibrosis, smooth muscle, hypertrophy, musuc hypersecretion, angiogenesis
progressive loss of lung function

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4
Q

what are the risk factors from asthma?

A

genetics, baby’s immune system must be conditioned to function. stress

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5
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of asthma?

A

wheezing, coughing, dyspnea, and chest tightness

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6
Q

what happens during an acute attack of asthma?

A

wheezing; initially expiration then with progress both inspiration and expiration

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7
Q

what lung sounds might you hear from asthma?

A

decreased/absent breath sounds with exhaustion or inability to have enough muscle force for breathing

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8
Q

silent chest

A

ominous sign; severe airway obstruction or impending respiratory failure; may be life-threatening or need a ventilator

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9
Q

hyperventiliation

A

increased lung volume from trapped air and limited airflow

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10
Q

abnormal alveolar perfusion and ventilation

A

hypoxemic, decreased PaCO2, increased pH

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11
Q

what are the complications of asthma?

A

pneumonia, tension pneumothorax; status asthmaticus; acute respiratory failure

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12
Q

status astmaticus

A

extreme acute asthma attack that DOES NOT IMPROVE with regular bronchodilators or corticosteroids

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13
Q

what are the symptoms of status asthmaticus?

A

hypoxia, hypercapnia, acute respiratory failure, chest tightness, short shallow breaths, wheeze/no air movement, cough, sweating, difficulty talking/breathing

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14
Q

what is the emergency treatment for status asthmaticus

A

intubation and mechanical ventilation; hemodynamic and monitoring; analgesia and sedation; IV magnesium sulfate (works as bronchodilator

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15
Q

what are the diagnostic studies of asthma?

A

peak expiratory flow rate; peak flow meter; spirometry; chest x-ray; sputum culture and sensitivity

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16
Q

what are the asthma classifications?

A

all patients should have an asthma action plan for acute attacks and to prevent further attacks

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17
Q

interprofessional care for asthma patient

A

achieve and control; return to the best possible level of daily functioning

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18
Q

mild-moderate asthma attack interprofessional care

A

inhaled bronchodilators and oral corticosteroids; monitor vitals; monitor as outpatient unless not responding to treatment; follow up with HCP

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19
Q

severe asthma attack symptoms

A

alert and oriented but focused on breathing; tachycardia, tachypnea; accessory muscles being used; tripod position; symptoms interfere with ADLs

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20
Q

severe asthma attack treatments

A

supplemental O2 and oximetry
PaCO2 >60 mmHg or SaO2 >93%

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21
Q

drug therapy of asthma

A

quick relief or rescue medications; bronchodilators; anti-inflammatory drugs; long-term control medications

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22
Q

what are the priority problems of asthma?

A

impaired breathing; activity intolerance; anxiety; lack of knowledge

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23
Q

acute bronchitis

A

self-limiting inflammation of bronchi caused by viruses

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24
Q

what is the diagnosis for bronchitis?

A

breath sounds- crackles or wheezing on expiration but CXR is normal

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25
Q

what are the triggers of bronchitis?

A

pollution, chemical inhalation, smoking, chronic sinusitis, and asthma

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26
Q

what are the symptoms of asthma?

A

cough, clear/purulent sputum, headache, fever, malaise, dyspnea, and chest pain

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27
Q

what are the treatment goals of bronchitis?

A

symptom relief and prevent pneumonia
cough suppressants, oral fluids, humidifier; throat lozenges, hot tea; bronchodilator inhaler; wear mask to limit allergen exposure; if due to flu, use antivirals; see HCP if patient has fever, dyspnea, or > 4 weeks; avoid irritants and smoking

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28
Q

bordetella pertussis

A

gram-negative bacteria attached to cilia, releases toxins results in inflammation

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29
Q

what is the diagnosis for pertussis?

A

nasopharyngeal cultures, polymerase chain reaction (PCR0 of nasopharyngeal secretions (rapid test), or serology testing

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30
Q

what are the manifestation stages of pertussis?

A

stage 1: (1-2 weeks) low grade fever, runny nose, watery eyes, general malaise, and mild nonproductive v=cough
stage 2: (2-10 weeks) paroxysms of cough
stage 3: (2-3 weeks) less severe cough, weak

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31
Q

what are the hallmark characteristics of pertussis?

A

uncontrollable, violent cough with “whooping” sound from trying to breathe in air against an obstructed epiglottis

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32
Q

what is the treatment for pertussis?

A

ATBs

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33
Q

what else is important about pertussis?

A

contagious from stage 1 until 5 days after taking ATBs; routine and droplet precautions; don’t use cough suppressant, antihistamine results in coughing episode; don’t use corticosteroids or bronchodilators because it is ineffective

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34
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

preventable, treatable, often progressive disease characterized by persistent airflow limitation;
associated with chronic inflammatory response in the airways and lungs primarily caused by cigarette smoking and other noxious particles and gases

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35
Q

what is the pathophysiology of COPD?

A

characterized by chronic inflammation of airways, lung parenchyma (bronchioles and alveoli) and pulmonary blood vessels;
the defining feature is airflow limitation that is not fully reversible during forced exhalation due to loss of elastic recoil, airflow obstruction due to mucous hypersecretion, mucosal edema, and bronchospasm

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36
Q

what is the disease progression of COPD?

A

abnormalities in air flow limitation; air trapping; gas exchange; impaired or destroyed lung tissue exists alongside normal tissue

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37
Q

severe disease of COPD

A

pulmonary hypertension; systemic manifestations

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38
Q

what is the primary process of COPD

A

inflammation
as air trapping increases, alveolar walls are destroyed resulting in formation of bullae and blebs

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39
Q

what are the main risk factors of COPD?

A

cigarette smoking and infection

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40
Q

what occurs in the respiratory system from cigarette smoking?

A

hyperplasia of cells, lost/decreased ciliary activity; abnormal distal dilation and destruction of alveolar walls; precancerous cells developing chronic, enhanced inflammation

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41
Q

passive smoking

A

decreased pulmonary function; increased respiratory symptoms; increased risk of lung and nasal sinus cancer

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42
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of COPD?

A

chronic cough, sputum production, dyspnea, chest heaviness/tightness, chest breather, wheezing, fatigue, weight loss/anorexia; prolonged expiratory phase, pursed lip-breathing, barrel- chest, tripod position, peripheral edema, hypoxemia, hypercapnia, increased RBCs, hemoglobin concentrations

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43
Q

what are the complications of COPD exacerbation?

A

accessory muscle use, cyanosis, unstable BP, right side heart failure, change in mentation, decreased breath sounds

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44
Q

what are the complications of COPD cor pulmonalle?

A

chronic inflammation and pulmonary vascular changes results in pulmonary hypertension resulting in right side heart failure

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45
Q

right side heart failure

A

response to constriction of pulmonary vessels in response to the alveolar hypoxia

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46
Q

signs of COPD cor pulmonalle

A

dyspnea, crackles at base, systolic murmurs, distended neck veins, hepatomegaly, right upper quadrant tenderness, peripheral edema, weigh gain, increased BNP level

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47
Q

treatment for COPD cor pulmonalle

A

O2, diuretics, anticoagulant therapy

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48
Q

what are the diagnostic studies for COPD?

A

spirometry

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49
Q

interprofessional care of COPD

A

most treated as outpatient, evaluate for exposure to environmental/occupational irritants, flu vaccine annual, pneumococcal vaccine (every 5 years)

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50
Q

interprofessional care with O2 treatment for COPD

A

combustion, CO2 narcosis, O2 toxicity, and infection

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51
Q

pneumonia

A

acute infection of lung parenchyma (alveoli and bronchi-gas exchange);
associated with significant morbidity and mortality rates

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52
Q

etiology of pneumonia

A

defense mechanisms of the lungs become incompetent or overwhelmed

53
Q

what are the 3 ways organisms reach the lungs with pneumonia?

A

aspiration
inhalation
hematogenous spread

54
Q

what are the classifications of pneumonia?

A

community-acquired
hospital-acquired
ventilator-associated
empiric antibiotic therapy

55
Q

what are the different types of pneumonia?

A

viral; bacterial; mycoplasma; aspiration; opportunistic

56
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

abnormal entry of oral/gastric material in lower airway

57
Q

what are the major risk factors of aspiration pneumonia?

A

decreased LOC, difficulty swallowing, insertion of nasogastric tubes with or without feeding, aspirated material triggers inflammatory response, primary bacteria most common, aspiration of acid reflux causes chemical pneumonitis

58
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of pneumonia?

A

cough; fever and chills; dyspnea and tachypnea; pleuritic chest pain; lethargy; accessory muscle gland use; nasal flaring; asymmetric chest movement; tachycardia

59
Q

what are the complications of pneumonia?

A

multi-drug resistant; atelectasis; pleurisy; pleural effusion; bacteremia; pneumothorax; acute respiratory failure; lung abscess; empyema; sepsis

60
Q

what are the diagnostic studies for pnuemonia?

A

chest x-ray; thoracentesis/bronchoscopy; pulse oximetry; leukocytosis; ABGs; sputum gram-stain, culture, and sensitivity; blood cultures

61
Q

what is the interprofessional care of pneumonia?

A

pneumococcal vaccine; prompt treatment with antibiotics; supportive care; viral pneumonia- no definitive treatment

62
Q

what treatment do you give for bacterial community-acquired pneumonia?

A

initial empiric therapy; antibiotics

63
Q

arterial blood gases

A

measure of O2 compliance against the arterial walls

64
Q

what are the priority problems for pneumonia?

A

impaired gas exchange; impaired breathing; fluid imbalance; hyperthermia; activity intolerance

65
Q

primary tuberculosis

A

bacteria are inhaled, inflammatory response occurs; if adequate immune response infection doesn’t progress to disease

66
Q

active tuberculosis

A

primary (active) TB disease within 2 years of infection; reactivation TB (post-primary)- disease occurs >2 years after primary infection

67
Q

latent tuberculosis

A

infected (positive skin test) but not active disease; asymptomatic; noninfectious; may develop active TB later; important to treat to prevent active TB

68
Q

multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

A

resistance to two of the most potent first-line anti-TB drugs

69
Q

what are the two most potent drugs for TB?

A

isoniazid and rifampin (turns urine orange)

70
Q

what are the causes for multi-drug resistant TB?

A

incorrect prescribing; lack of public health case management; nonadherence; lack of funding for education and prevention

71
Q

what are the diagnostic studies for TB?

A

tuberculin skin test; bacille-calmett-guerin vaccine; interferon-y release assays-screening tools; chest x-ray; bacteriologic studies

72
Q

interprofessional care of tuberculosis

A

infectious for first 2 weeks after starting treatment; aggressive drug therapy (must monitor adherence); airborne isolation (negative pressure room)

73
Q

what is the drug therapy of pneumonia?

A

taken between 8 weeks-13 months: isonizad, rifampin, pyrazinamide; ethambutol

74
Q

what is a major side effect from the drug therapy used for pneumonia?

A

non-viral hepatitis

75
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

inflammation of nasal mucosa due to seasonal or perennial allergen; exposure leads to IgE and inflammation

76
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of allergic rhinitis?

A

my allergic reactions; pale, boggy, swollen turbinates

77
Q

what is the management of allergic rhinitis?

A

corticosteroids; decongestants; immunotherapy

78
Q

acute viral rhinopharyngitis

A

common cold; contagious- airborne droplets or contact; can survive 3 days on inanimate objects

79
Q

what are the symptoms of acute viral rhinophrayngitis?

A

runny nose; watery eyes; congestion; sneezing; coughing; sore throat; fever; headache; fatigue

80
Q

what is the management of acute viral rhinopharyngitis?

A

symptom relief; monitor/teach to report secondary infection or worsening symptoms

81
Q

influenza

A

classified by serotypes; droplet precautions

82
Q

what are the manifestations of influenza?

A

abrupt onset- chills, fever, myalgia headache, cough, sore throat, or fatigue

83
Q

what is the management of infleunza?

A

vaccine- DON’T GIVE TO SOMEONE WITH AN EGG ALLERGY

84
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of sinus mucosa results in blockage and accumulated secretions

85
Q

what are the acute manifestations of sinusitis?

A

pain/tenderness, purulent drainage, congestion, headaches, fever, malaise, or haitosis

86
Q

what are the chronic manifestations of sinusitis?

A

facial/dental pain, congestion, increased damage

87
Q

what is the management of sinusitis?

A

symptom relief- decongestants, corticosteroids, analgesics, saline spray/irrigation, rest, and hydration

88
Q

acute pharyngitis

A

inflammation of pharyngeal walls; tonsils, palate, uvula

89
Q

what are the manifestations of acute pharyngitis?

A

sore throat; red, swollen pharynx

90
Q

appendicitis

A

inflammation or infection of the appendix

91
Q

signs and symptoms of appendicitis

A

constant dull pain over mcburney’s point; anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; rebound tenderness and abdominal; PSOAS sign; low grade fever; elevated WBC; client side-laying and guarding; constipation and diarrhea

92
Q

risks for appendicitis

A

obstruction by fecalith, appendicolith, or foreign bodies or toxins; low fiber diet; high intake of refined carbs; could be caused by nutrition, trauma, and more

93
Q

treatment for appendicitis

A

appendectomy; pharamcologic

94
Q

diagnostic evaluation for appendicitis

A

leukocyte >10,000mm3; neutrophil >75%; abdominal graphs; ultrasound study; CT scan

95
Q

complications of appendicitis

A

perforation; peritonitis

96
Q

pre-op procedures of appendicitis

A

NPO; IV fluids; monitor pain; monitor signs of rupture or peritonitis; position right side-laying or low semi-fowler’s for comfort

97
Q

post-op procedures of appendicitis

A

monitor temp and incision for infection; NPO until bowel sounds are heard; ruptured appendix results in a penrose drain

98
Q

discharge and home healthcare instruction for appendicitis

A

medications; incisions; complications (peritonitis); nutrition

99
Q

enteral feeding tube

A

delivery of a nutritional feeding directly into the stomach, duodenum, or jejunum; located in the small bowel

100
Q

nursing interventions for enteral feeding tube

A

subsequent placement should be checked by aspirating the stomach contents and measuring pH (1.5-4); provide nose/mouth care; must be checked with x-ray; replace every 4 weeks; check residual (if over 100 mL, hold/stop feeding); place patient in semi-fowler’s for feeding

101
Q

complications for enteral feeding tube

A

tube misplacement; diarrhea; constipation

102
Q

interventions for percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy

A

assess residual volume every 4/8 hours, if feeding; flush with 30 mL warm water before and after feeding and meds (unless otherwise ordered); maintain semi-fowler’s position 1-2 hours after feeding

103
Q

LPN assistance with percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy

A

flush NG and G tubes; give bolus or continuous feeding for stable patient; give meds through NG/G tube; provide skin care

104
Q

UAP abilities with percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy

A

provide oral care; weigh patient; head of bed at 35-45 degrees; report symptoms; drain and measure output; assess vitals

105
Q

parenteral nutrition

A

IV administration of IV solution made up of glucose, insulin, minerals, lipids, electrolytes, and other essential nutrients; used when patient cannot effectively use the GI tract for nutrition

106
Q

partial/peripheral parenteral nutrition

A

used when patient can eat but not take in enough nutrients; administered through large distal arm vein or PICC line

107
Q

total parenteral nutrition

A

used when patient require intensive nutritional support for an extended time period; delivered through central vein

108
Q

nursing interventions for parenteral nutrition

A

maintain strict surgical sepsis for dressing drain (Q72 hours); change tubing and remaining TPN Q24 hours; monitor glucose, electrolytes, and fluid imbalance; use infusion pump; daily weight

109
Q

safety for parenteral nutrition

A

solutions are prepared in the pharmacy and are good for 24 hours (always check orders); follow aseptic technique to reduce potential for infection; change filter and IV tubing Q24 hours; check glucose levels and vitals Q4; accurate I&O; assess heart and lungs; mouth care daily

110
Q

gastritis

A

inflammation of gastric mucosa; breakdown in gastric mucosal barrier allowing HCl acid and pepsin to diffuse back into mucosa results in tissue edema, disruption of capillary walls with loss of plasma into gastric lumen and possible hemorrhage

111
Q

causes of gastritis

A

medications (NSAIDs, ASA, corticosteroids); diet; microorganisms (bacterial, viral/fungal infections); environmental; diseases/disorders; endoscopy, NGT, stress

112
Q

acute clinical manifestations of gastritis

A

nausea and vomiting; epigastric tenderness; hemorrhage; anorexia

113
Q

chronic clinical manifestations of gastritis

A

asymptomatic; pernicious anemia

114
Q

diagnostic studies of gastritis

A

endoscopy; h. pylori test

115
Q

nursing and interprofessional management of acute gastritis

A

identify cause; NPO, IV fluids, antiemetics; monitor lab results for electrolyte imbalance; monitor vitals, heme test; PPIs/H2 receptor blockers

116
Q

nursing and interprofessional management of chronic gastritis

A

evaluate and eliminate cause; antibiotics for h. pylori; cobalamin for pernicious anemia; lifestyle modifications

117
Q

GERD

A

chronic syndrome of mucosal damage due to reflux of stomach acid into lower esophagus; acidic gastric contents overwhelm esophageal defenses, causes irritation and inflammation

118
Q

primary factor of GERD

A

incompetent lower esophageal sphincter [LES] (caused by overeating)

119
Q

clinical manifestations of GERD

A

heartburn (pyrosis); regurgitation; dyspepsia; respiratory- wheezing, hoarseness, sore throat

120
Q

diagnostic studies of GERD

A

upper GI endoscopy; esophagram (barium swallow)’ motility studies

121
Q

complications of GERD

A

respiratory and dental erosion

122
Q

nursing and interprofessional management of GERD

A

lifestyle modifications (upright after eating, HOB increased on 4-6 inch blocks); drug therapy (proton pump inhibitors, histamine receptor blockers, avoid foods that decrease LES pressure)

123
Q

hiatal hernia

A

herniation of part of the stomach into the esophagus through and opening in the diaphragm; weakened muscle in diaphragm and esophagogastric opening (increased intraabdominal pressure)

124
Q

sliding hernia

A

part of stomach protrude into the chest; occurs with increased intraabdominal pressure

125
Q

paraoesophageal hiatal hernia

A

stomach protrudes up through esophageal hiatus

126
Q

predispositions of hiatal hernia

A

obesity, pregnancy, heavy lifting, ascites, tumor, intense physical exertion

127
Q

clinical manifestations of hiatal hernia

A

some asymptomatic, heartburn, dyspepsia, regurgitation, respiratory, chest pain

128
Q

diagnostic studies of hiatal hernia

A

barium swallowing test and endoscopy

129
Q

nursing and interprofessional management of hiatal hernia

A

avoid bearing down; avoid lifting weights/heavy objects; avoid constricting garments

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